GCE A/LBiology
ENGLISH MEDIUMFAST TRACK WORK PACKAGEAbout this package
A complete and focused resource to help you master Advanced Level Biology with clarity, confidence and the right guidance towards an A+.
All 10 units of the current G.C.E. (A/L) Biology syllabus, in syllabus order.
Only what the examiner asks for, organised as tiles and tables.
Every process drawn as a step-by-step flow you can redraw in an essay.
Model MCQs with instant feedback and essay marking points for every unit.
Each topic shows how often it was examined in 2016–2026 and lists the actual questions.
Paper blueprints, priority lists and an 8-week fast-track planner.
Dr. Muthunu Akurugodagama
A dedicated medical professional and passionate educator, committed to making Biology simple, visual and exam-focused for every Advanced Level student. Through MEDVision Global Academy, he aims to empower learners with the right guidance, effective resources and a clearer path towards higher futures.
EXCELLENCE IS A HABIT
How to use this package
Every topic opens with an exam radar: how often it appeared in the new-syllabus papers (2019 onward), MCQs per paper, Paper II appearances, the last year asked, and the full list of past questions.
Tiles hold the facts and flows hold the sequences. Cover a flow and redraw it from memory — that is exactly what essays reward.
Red boxes list the misconceptions that the wrong MCQ options are built on.
Finish each unit with its model MCQs and essay marking points. Press Mark done on a topic to track your progress in the sidebar (saved in this browser).
Notes are written to align with the NIE G.C.E. (A/L) Biology syllabus and resource books; where textbooks differ (e.g. number of skull bones, ATP yield), the NIE figure is used. Exam statistics come from the 850 question parts of the 2016–2026 papers (12 papers; 8 under the current syllabus).
Exam intelligence
Paper I — 2 hours
- 50 MCQs, five options, one correct
- About 2 min 24 s per question — aim for 90 s on the first pass
- No negative marking: never leave a blank
Paper II — 3 hours
- Part A: 4 structured questions — answer all, in the spaces given
- Part B: 6 essays — answer 4 (Q10 is usually short notes)
- Spend ~90 min on Part A and ~90 min on Part B
Where the marks are — MCQs per paper by unit (new syllabus)
Animal Form & Function alone is about one third of Paper I. Plant Form & Function has been rising (from about 4 to 6 MCQs per paper).
The 19 “every-paper” subtopics
These appeared in every one of the 8 new-syllabus papers. Treat them as guaranteed marks.
- Biomolecules & water U2
- Cell cycle, mitosis & meiosis U2
- Cell organelles & structure U2
- Cellular respiration & fermentation U2
- Animal diversity U3
- Origin of life & evolution U3
- Plant diversity U3
- Plant hormones & responses U4
- Plant tissues & anatomy U4
- Water relations & transport U4
- Animal tissues U5
- Circulation & blood U5
- Digestion & nutrition U5
- Excretion & osmoregulation U5
- Nervous system U5
- Reproduction & development U5
- Sense organs U5
- Skeleton, muscle & movement U5
- Biomes & Sri Lankan ecosystems U8
Paper I position blueprint
MCQs follow the syllabus order, then cycle through it a second time. Knowing this lets you recognise a question's unit instantly.
Paper II blueprint
| Question | Usual unit(s) | Prepare |
|---|---|---|
| Q1 structured | Unit 2 (+ Unit 3) | Biomolecules, food tests, organelles, cell division, enzymes |
| Q2 structured | Units 3 / 4 / 5 | Classification tables, plant tissues and transport |
| Q3 structured | Unit 5 (+ Unit 6) | Human systems with labelled diagrams; genetics problems |
| Q4 structured | Units 6–10 | Genetics, ecology, microbiology, applied — short answers |
| Q5 essay | Unit 2 | Photosynthesis, respiration, membranes, cell cycle |
| Q6 essay | Unit 4 | Water transport, plant reproduction, hormones |
| Q7–8 essays | Unit 5 | Nervous, circulation, excretion, reproduction, immunity |
| Q9 essay | Units 7 / 8 / 9 | rDNA technology, environment, applied microbiology |
| Q10 short notes | Any, often 6–10 | Three short notes — aquaculture, propagation, food, stem cells, vectors |
Most-examined subtopics (new syllabus)
| # | Subtopic | Unit | MCQs | Paper II parts |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | Reproduction & development | U5 | 23 | 12 |
| 2 | Circulation & blood | U5 | 14 | 8 |
| 3 | Nervous system | U5 | 16 | 6 |
| 4 | Digestion & nutrition | U5 | 12 | 7 |
| 5 | Skeleton, muscle & movement | U5 | 16 | 2 |
| 6 | Biomes & Sri Lankan ecosystems | U8 | 12 | 6 |
| 7 | Plant diversity | U3 | 15 | 2 |
| 8 | Water relations & transport | U4 | 11 | 5 |
| 9 | Excretion & osmoregulation | U5 | 9 | 7 |
| 10 | Photosynthesis | U2 | 7 | 7 |
| 11 | Plant tissues & anatomy | U4 | 10 | 4 |
| 12 | Cell organelles & structure | U2 | 11 | 2 |
| 13 | Cellular respiration & fermentation | U2 | 10 | 3 |
| 14 | Animal diversity | U3 | 12 | 1 |
| 15 | Biomolecules & water | U2 | 8 | 5 |
Marks per textbook page — where your reading time pays most
Yield = a unit's share of MCQs ÷ its share of NIE resource-book pages. Above 1× means the exam rewards that unit more than its length suggests.
| Unit | Book pages | MCQ share | Yield | Advice |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| U3 Evolution & Diversity | 34 | 11.5% | 1.83× | Over-rewarded: revise first |
| U4 Plant Form & Function | 50 | 12.2% | 1.33× | Over-rewarded: revise first |
| U2 Chemical & Cellular Basis of Life | 65 | 13.8% | 1.15× | Over-rewarded: revise first |
| U9 Microbiology | 37 | 7.8% | 1.14× | Over-rewarded: revise first |
| U5 Animal Form & Function | 175 | 32.5% | 1.01× | Fair |
| U8 Environmental Biology | 43 | 7.8% | 0.98× | Fair |
| U6 Genetics | 51 | 5.2% | 0.56× | Under-rewarded: learn the essentials, skip fine detail |
| U7 Molecular Biology & rDNA Technology | 53 | 5.2% | 0.54× | Under-rewarded: learn the essentials, skip fine detail |
| U10 Applied Biology | 28 | 2.5% | 0.48× | Under-rewarded: learn the essentials, skip fine detail |
Introduction to Biology
A short unit, but it sets up the vocabulary for everything else. Expect about one MCQ per paper plus part of Paper II Q1.
Nature, scope and importance of biology
Past-paper questions (2)
- 2026 P1 Q1 — Communicable disease (AIDS)
- 2021 (2022) P2 Q1A — Origin of life, characteristics, food production, eras
Biology (bios = life, logos = study) is the study of living organisms. "Life" has no single accepted definition; it is recognised by a set of characteristics shown together.
Main branches
- Zoology, Botany, Microbiology
- Cell biology, Histology (tissues), Anatomy (gross structure), Physiology (function)
- Biochemistry, Genetics, Ecology
Why biology matters today
- Understanding biodiversity (10 to over 100 million species)
- Understanding the human body and its functions
- Sustainable use of natural resources (pollution, biodiversity loss, desertification)
- Sustainable food production: high-yielding and disease-resistant varieties, better postharvest technology
- Understanding plant life (plants are primary producers)
- Understanding diseases; legal and ethical issues (DNA fingerprinting in parentage, crime, immigration)
Diseases named in the syllabus
| Non-communicable | Communicable |
|---|---|
| Cancers, heart diseases, diabetes, chronic renal disease (CKDu in Sri Lanka) | Dengue, AIDS |
Characteristics of organisms and levels of organisation
Past-paper questions (7)
- 2025 P1 Q3 — Characteristics of organisms
- 2024 P1 Q1 — Basic functional unit of life
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q2 — Characteristics unique to life
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q41 — Levels of biological organisation
- 2019 (New) P1 Q1 — Basic unit of life
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q1 — Scientific method
- 2018 P1 Q41 — Levels of organisation
Seven characteristics
- Order and organisation: molecules → biosphere
- Metabolism: sum of all chemical reactions (catabolism + anabolism)
- Growth and development: growth = irreversible increase in dry mass; development = irreversible changes over the life span
- Irritability and coordination: response to internal and external stimuli; together they produce movement
- Adaptation: e.g. sunken stomata in xerophytes, vivipary in mangroves, splayed foot of camel
- Reproduction
- Heredity and evolution: evolution = change over time due to genetic modification
Hierarchy of organisation
The cell is the basic structural and functional unit of life. Nothing below the cell level is "living".
Diversity of form
- Size: bacteria 0.25–2 µm to giant sequoia ~100 m
- Shape: cylindrical (earthworm), streamlined (birds, fish)
- Form: unicellular (Amoeba), multicellular
- Habitat: terrestrial (rat), aquatic (fish), arboreal (loris), aerial (birds)
Unit 1 — Model MCQs
Pick an answer to check it. Questions follow the past-paper style (five options, one correct).
1.1 Which of the following is a characteristic shown by all living organisms but NOT by a growing crystal? Characteristics of life & levels of organisation
1.2 Which statement about the scope of biology in Sri Lanka is correct? Biology, health & society
1.3 The correct order of levels of biological organisation, from simplest to most complex, is Characteristics of life & levels of organisation
Unit 1 — Structured & essay practice
Structured (a) List five characteristics of living organisms. (b) State three ways biology helps solve food-production problems in Sri Lanka.
Show marking points
- Organisation (cellular), metabolism, growth & development, reproduction, irritability/response, homeostasis, adaptation/evolution — any five
- Improved crop varieties by breeding / tissue culture
- Integrated pest management; biofertilisers
- Post-harvest technology and food preservation; soil and water management
Chemical & Cellular Basis of Life
The biochemical and cellular core of the syllabus. It owns MCQ positions 1–7, structured Q1 and essay Q5. Photosynthesis, respiration and enzymes are tested every year.
Elements, water and the organic compounds of life
Past-paper questions (24)
- 2026 P1 Q2 — Protein structure levels
- 2026 P2 Q1A — Chitin, NAD/NADP, cytoskeleton, cell junctions
- 2025 P2 Q1A — Sugars, lipid/sugar tests, protein structure, ribosomes
- 2024 P1 Q2 — Carbohydrates
- 2024 P2 Q1A — Proteins, fats, keratin, microscopy, ER
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q41 — Nucleotide coenzymes (NAD/FAD)
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q1 — Lipids
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q1 — Non-reducing sugar
- 2020 P1 Q2 — Proteins
- 2020 P1 Q6 — ATP
- 2020 P2 Q1A — Irritability, monomers, coenzymes, cytoskeleton, cell wall
- 2019 (New) P1 Q2 — Nucleotides
- 2019 (New) P2 Q1A — Lipids, RER, vacuoles, mitosis
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q2 — Properties of water
- 2019 (Old) P2 Q1A — Life characteristics, protein structure, vacuoles, SER
- 2018 P1 Q4 — Elements in living matter
- 2018 P1 Q5 — Cohesion/adhesion of water
- 2018 P2 Q1A — Life characteristics, organic compounds, food tests
- 2018 P2 Q1B — Monosaccharides, disaccharides, reducing sugar test
- 2017 P1 Q1 — Role of trace elements
- 2017 P2 Q1A — Water properties & roles
- 2016 P1 Q42 — Polymers of glucose
- 2016 P2 Q5a — Protein structure
- 2016 P2 Q1A — Macromolecules, sugars, lipids
Elements
- ~92 natural elements; about 20–25% are essential (≈25 for humans, ≈17 for plants)
- C, H, O, N = 96% of living matter
- Ca, P, K, S make up most of the remaining 4%
- Trace elements (needed in minute amounts): B, Co, Cu, Cr, F, I, Fe, Mo, Mn, Se, Si, Sn, V, Zn
- Main role of trace elements: enzyme cofactors
Water: small, polar, angular
O is δ−, H is δ+, so hydrogen bonds form between molecules. H-bonds underlie all four key properties:
| Property | Biological importance |
|---|---|
| Cohesion / adhesion, high surface tension | Water columns in xylem; water skaters on ponds |
| High specific heat; high heat of vaporisation | Thermal buffer for organisms and water bodies; cooling by sweating and transpiration |
| Maximum density at 4 °C; ice floats | Aquatic life survives under ice in winter |
| Versatile solvent (polarity) | Dissolves polar (glucose) and ionic (NaCl) solutes; medium for reactions and transport |
Carbohydrates: C, H, O with H:O = 2:1, general formula Cx(H2O)y
Monosaccharides (CH2O)n, n = 3–7
- Triose: glyceraldehyde (PGAL is a derivative)
- Tetrose: erythrose (rare)
- Pentose: ribose, deoxyribose, ribulose (RuBP derivative)
- Hexose: glucose, fructose, galactose
- Aldoses: glucose, galactose · Ketose: fructose
- All are reducing, water-soluble and crystalline
Disaccharides (glycosidic bond, condensation)
| Sugar | Monomers | Reducing? |
|---|---|---|
| Maltose | glucose + glucose | Yes |
| Lactose | glucose + galactose | Yes |
| Sucrose | glucose + fructose | No |
Sucrose is the form translocated in phloem and stored in sugarcane; lactose is milk sugar.
Polysaccharides
| Polysaccharide | Monomer | Role |
|---|---|---|
| Starch (amylose linear, amylopectin branched) | Glucose | Storage in plants and chlorophytes |
| Glycogen (branched) | Glucose | Storage in animals and fungi |
| Cellulose (linear) | Glucose | Plant cell wall |
| Inulin | Fructose | Storage in Dahlia tubers |
| Pectin | Galacturonic acid | Middle lamella |
| Hemicellulose (branched) | Pentoses (+ others) | Plant cell wall |
| Chitin (contains N) | Glucosamine | Fungal wall, arthropod exoskeleton |
| Peptidoglycan | – | Bacterial and cyanobacterial walls |
Lipids: hydrophobic, not polymers, more H than 2:1
Fats (triacylglycerol)
- Glycerol (3C alcohol) + 3 fatty acids (16–18C) joined by ester bonds
- Saturated: no C=C; mostly animal; solid (butter)
- Unsaturated: ≥1 C=C; mostly plant; liquid (oils); cis or trans
- Excess saturated and trans fats → atherosclerosis
Phospholipids
- Glycerol + 2 fatty acids + phosphate (often + choline)
- Amphipathic: hydrophilic head, hydrophobic tails, so they form bilayers
- Major membrane component
Steroids and functions
- Cholesterol (animal membranes; regulates fluidity), steroid hormones
- Functions: energy store, membrane fluidity, signalling (hormones), insulation
- Test: Sudan III → red-stained oil droplets
Proteins: C, H, O, N, S, from 20 amino acids
Amino acids
- Central asymmetric C (except glycine), –NH2, –COOH, H and an R group
- Amphoteric: basic amino + acidic carboxyl group
- Peptide bond forms by condensation
Four levels of structure
| Level | Basis | Example |
|---|---|---|
| Primary | Amino acid sequence, peptide bonds | All proteins |
| Secondary | H-bonds within the backbone: α-helix, β-pleated sheet | Keratin (α), spider silk (β) |
| Tertiary | R-group interactions: H-bonds, disulphide, ionic, hydrophobic/van der Waals | Most enzymes, myoglobin, albumin |
| Quaternary | ≥2 polypeptide subunits | Haemoglobin, collagen |
Functions and denaturation
- Catalytic (pepsin, amylase) · Structural (keratin, collagen) · Storage (ovalbumin, casein) · Transport (haemoglobin; serum albumin carries fatty acids) · Hormonal (insulin, glucagon) · Contractile (actin, myosin) · Defensive (immunoglobulins)
- Denatured by heat and high-energy radiation, strong acid or alkali, concentrated salts, heavy metals, organic solvents and detergents
- Test: Biuret → violet
Nucleic acids and other nucleotides
Nucleotide = pentose + base + phosphate
- Nucleoside = no phosphate (adenosine, guanosine)
- Purines (2 rings): A, G · Pyrimidines (1 ring): C, T, U
- Phosphodiester bonds form the sugar–phosphate backbone
- DNA: antiparallel double helix, A=T (2 H-bonds), G≡C (3 H-bonds), 10 bp per turn
RNA types
| Type | Shape | Role |
|---|---|---|
| mRNA | Linear; least abundant | Carries code from nucleus to ribosome |
| tRNA | Smallest; three-looped | Brings amino acids |
| rRNA | Complex, irregular; most abundant | Site where polypeptides are assembled |
ATP, NAD⁺, NADP⁺, FAD
- ATP: universal energy carrier
- NAD⁺: coenzyme, electron carrier, oxidising agent in respiration
- NADP⁺: coenzyme, electron carrier; NADPH is the reducing agent in photosynthesis
- FAD: coenzyme and electron carrier
Practical food tests
| Test for | Reagent | Positive |
|---|---|---|
| Reducing sugar | Benedict's, heat | Brick-red precipitate |
| Non-reducing sugar | Boil with dilute HCl (hydrolysis), neutralise with NaHCO3, then Benedict's | Brick-red after hydrolysis |
| Starch | Iodine in KI | Blue-black |
| Protein | Biuret | Violet |
| Lipid | Sudan III | Red |
Microscopy
Past-paper questions (5)
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q3 — Transmission electron microscope
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q2 — Light microscope
- 2020 P1 Q3 — Using a light microscope
- 2019 (New) P1 Q3 — Microscopes
- 2018 P1 Q2 — Light microscope visibility
Key terms
- Magnification = image size ÷ actual size; light microscope (LM) max ≈ ×1000
- Resolution = minimum distance at which two points are seen as separate; LM = 0.2 µm
- Resolution is inversely proportional to wavelength, which is why electrons give better resolution
- Total magnification = objective × eyepiece (×40 × ×15 = ×600)
- The objective's image is the object for the eyepiece
TEM vs SEM
| TEM | SEM |
|---|---|
| Beam passes through a very thin section | Beam scanned over the surface |
| Internal ultrastructure | 3-D surface view |
| Heavy-metal stains; fewer electrons pass through densely stained regions | Usually gold-coated; specimen scatters many electrons, others absorbed |
EM theoretical magnification 1×108; practical just over 5×105.
Light vs electron microscope
| LM | EM |
|---|---|
| Glass lenses, light | Electromagnets, electron beam |
| Image seen directly | Micrograph or screen |
| Living or dead specimens | Non-living only |
| True colour; dyes | No colour; heavy metals |
The cell: theory, organelles, membranes and junctions
Past-paper questions (23)
- 2026 P1 Q3 — Organelle–function pairs
- 2026 P1 Q41 — Golgi apparatus functions
- 2025 P1 Q1 — Nucleus structure
- 2025 P2 Q1B — Organelle functions, meiosis stages, enzymes, chlorophyll spectrum
- 2024 P1 Q3 — Mitochondria
- 2024 P1 Q41 — Cell junctions
- 2024 P2 Q1B — ECM, organelles, mitosis, G0, respiration sites, fermentation
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q1 — Lysosomes vs peroxisomes
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q3 — RER vs SER function
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q4 — Subcellular components
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q3 — Organelle–function
- 2020 P1 Q4 — Prokaryotic vs eukaryotic cell features
- 2019 (New) P1 Q4 — Cytoskeleton
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q3 — Organelles
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q4 — Cell junctions
- 2018 P1 Q42 — Glycolipid synthesis
- 2018 P1 Q43 — Plant-only structures
- 2017 P1 Q2 — DNA outside the nucleus
- 2017 P1 Q5 — SER functions
- 2017 P1 Q7 — Cell junctions
- 2017 P2 Q1B — Cell theory, eukaryote features, microscope steps
- 2016 P1 Q1 — Glyoxysomes convert fats
- 2016 P1 Q4 — Structure–function mismatch
History and cell theory
- Hooke (1665): named "cell" (cork)
- Leeuwenhoek: first living cells (Euglena, bacteria)
- Schleiden (plants), Schwann (animals), Virchow (1855: cells from pre-existing cells)
- Theory: (1) all organisms are made of cells; (2) the cell is the basic structural and functional unit; (3) all cells arise from pre-existing cells
Prokaryote vs eukaryote
| Prokaryote | Eukaryote | |
|---|---|---|
| Size | 1–5 µm | 10–100 µm |
| Origin | 3.5 bya | 1.8 bya |
| DNA | Circular, naked, nucleoid | Linear, with histones, in nucleus |
| Ribosomes | 70S | 80S (+70S in mitochondria and chloroplasts) |
| Division | Binary fission | Mitosis / meiosis |
| Flagellum | Simple, 20 nm, extracellular | 9+2, 200 nm, membrane-covered |
| N₂ fixation | Some | None |
Shared by all cells: plasma membrane, cytosol, DNA, ribosomes.
Plasma membrane: fluid mosaic (Singer and Nicolson, 1972)
- ~7 nm; phospholipid bilayer with proteins (integral/transmembrane, peripheral)
- Glycoproteins and glycolipids; cholesterol in animal membranes (fluidity buffer)
- Protein functions: cell recognition, receptors, attachment to cytoskeleton (shape), enzymes, channels
- Phospholipids give fluidity; cholesterol modulates it
| Component | Structure | Key functions |
|---|---|---|
| Nucleus | Double envelope, 20–40 nm gap, pore complexes; nuclear lamina lines the inside | Controls the cell; DNA synthesis; nucleolus makes rRNA and ribosomal subunits; mRNA, tRNA synthesis |
| Ribosomes | rRNA + protein; 70S or 80S; free or bound | Protein synthesis |
| Rough ER | Flattened sacs with ribosomes; continuous with nuclear envelope | Transports proteins; glycoproteins; transport vesicles; "membrane factory" |
| Smooth ER | Tubular sacs, no ribosomes | Lipids, steroids, phospholipids; carbohydrate metabolism; detoxification; Ca²⁺ store; vesicles |
| Golgi apparatus | Stacked cisternae; cis face (receiving), trans face (shipping) | Packaging and distribution; makes cellulose and pectin; produces lysosomes; glycolipids |
| Lysosome | Single membrane; hydrolytic enzymes | Digests phagocytosed food and worn-out organelles; exocytosis of residues; autolysis |
| Peroxisome | Single membrane; oxidising enzymes | Breaks down H2O2; detoxification; photorespiration. Glyoxysomes convert fatty acids to sugar |
| Mitochondrion | Double membrane; cristae with stalk particles; matrix with 70S ribosomes, circular DNA, phosphate granules | Aerobic respiration (Krebs in matrix, ETC on cristae); photorespiration |
| Chloroplast | Double membrane; thylakoids → grana; stroma with DNA, 70S ribosomes, starch | Photosynthesis |
| Cytoskeleton | Microtubules (tubulin, hollow), microfilaments (actin), intermediate filaments (e.g. keratin) | Shape, organelle movement, chromosome movement (MT), cytoplasmic streaming and cleavage furrow (MF), nuclear lamina (IF) |
| Cilia/flagella | 9+2 microtubules; basal body 9+0 (triplets) | Locomotion; moving fluid (oviduct) |
| Centrioles | 9 triplets (9+0), in pairs at right angles; animals only | Aster and spindle formation |
| Central vacuole | Tonoplast; cell sap | Storage, water balance, turgor, pigments (anthocyanin) |
Cell wall
- Primary wall: thin, flexible, permeable, mainly cellulose
- Middle lamella: Ca and Mg pectates; glues cells together
- Secondary wall (between membrane and primary wall): lignin, suberin; rigid
- Pits and plasmodesmata connect cells
Cell junctions
| Junction | Function | Example |
|---|---|---|
| Tight | Seal; prevent leakage of extracellular fluid | Skin epithelium |
| Desmosome (anchoring) | Attach cytoskeletons via intermediate filaments | Muscle |
| Gap (communicating) | Cytoplasmic channels for ions and small molecules | Heart muscle, embryos |
| Plasmodesmata | Living channels through plant walls | Plants |
Extracellular matrix (animals)
- Glycoproteins: collagen (most abundant) in a proteoglycan network
- Protects; links to cytoskeleton; signalling
Membranes and transport
Past-paper questions (4)
- 2025 P1 Q5 — Plasma membrane protein functions
- 2024 P2 Q5b — Plasma membrane structure
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q15 — Facilitated diffusion
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q2 — Plasma membrane
Passive
- Diffusion: down a concentration gradient
- Facilitated diffusion: via channel or carrier proteins; passive (water and hydrophilic solutes)
- Osmosis: water across a selectively permeable membrane, from high to low water potential
Active and bulk
- Active transport: against a gradient, uses ATP (Na⁺/K⁺ pump, K⁺ uptake by root hairs)
- Endocytosis (phagocytosis, pinocytosis) and exocytosis
Cell cycle, mitosis and meiosis
Past-paper questions (13)
- 2026 P1 Q4 — Chromosome decondensation in meiosis
- 2026 P2 Q1B — Cell cycle phases, meiosis, enzyme practical
- 2025 P1 Q6 — Mitosis phase–event
- 2024 P1 Q4 — Telophase I & II
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q4 — Cell cycle phase–event
- 2022 (2023) P2 Q5a — Meiosis I
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q4 — Meiosis event sequence
- 2020 P1 Q5 — Cell cycle events
- 2019 (New) P1 Q5 — Cell cycle
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q5 — Cell cycle
- 2018 P1 Q1 — Metaphase of mitosis
- 2017 P1 Q33 — Evolutionary advantage of meiosis
- 2017 P1 Q48 — Sources of variation in meiosis
Interphase is about 90% of the cycle. Checkpoints at G1, G2 and M. Cells without a go-ahead at G1 enter G0 (most nerve and muscle cells).
| Mitosis stage | Key events |
|---|---|
| Prophase | Chromatin condenses into chromosomes (2 sister chromatids, cohesins); nucleoli disappear; spindle begins; centrosomes move apart |
| Prometaphase | Nuclear envelope fragments; kinetochores attach to microtubules |
| Metaphase | Centromeres aligned on the metaphase plate |
| Anaphase | Sister chromatids separate; kinetochore MTs shorten; cell elongates |
| Telophase | Envelopes and nucleoli reform; chromosomes decondense; spindle depolymerises |
| Cytokinesis | Animals: cleavage furrow (actin). Plants: cell plate from Golgi vesicles |
Meiosis I (reduction division)
- Prophase I: synaptonemal complex → synapsis → crossing over between non-sister chromatids → chiasmata
- Metaphase I: homologous pairs on the plate, random orientation
- Anaphase I: homologues separate; sister chromatids stay together
- Telophase I: two haploid nuclei, genetically different
- No DNA replication between meiosis I and II
Meiosis II (like mitosis)
- Plate perpendicular to that of meiosis I
- Anaphase II: sister chromatids separate
- Four haploid, genetically different cells
Significance: constant chromosome number across generations; variation through crossing over, independent assortment and random fertilisation.
Mitosis significance
- Genetic stability
- Growth and development
- Repair, replacement, regeneration
- Asexual reproduction
Cancer and galls
- Transformation → benign tumour (stays put) or malignant (invasive) → metastasis
- Galls: uncontrolled division when the auxin:cytokinin balance is upset (viruses, fungi, bacteria, insects, mites)
| Event | Mitosis | Meiosis I | Meiosis II |
|---|---|---|---|
| Chromatids separate | Yes | No | Yes |
| Homologues pair and cross over | No | Yes | No |
| Chromosomes decondense at telophase | Yes | Yes | Yes |
| Products | 2, diploid, identical | 2, haploid, different | 4 haploid in total |
Energy in metabolism and enzymes
Past-paper questions (11)
- 2026 P1 Q5 — Enzyme inhibition / allosteric
- 2025 P1 Q7 — Enzyme properties & cofactors
- 2024 P2 Q1C — Cofactors, allosteric, photosystems, cyclic e- flow, eras
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q5 — Allosteric regulation
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q5 — Enzyme properties
- 2020 P1 Q7 — Enzyme characteristics
- 2019 (New) P2 Q5a — General characteristics of enzymes
- 2019 (New) P2 Q5b — pH, temperature & inhibitors
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q41 — Cofactors
- 2019 (Old) P2 Q1B — Cytokinesis, kinetochore, cofactors, ATP
- 2017 P2 Q5a — Mechanism of enzyme action
Energy relations
- Catabolism: breaks down molecules, releases energy (exergonic)
- Anabolism: builds molecules, absorbs energy (endergonic)
- ATP = ribose + adenine + 3 phosphates; hydrolysis of each terminal phosphate gives −30.5 kJ mol⁻¹
- Phosphorylation types: photo- (light), substrate-level (breakdown of a substrate), oxidative (ETC)
Enzyme properties
- Mostly globular proteins; lower activation energy
- Substrate-specific (active site); induced fit
- Not used up; do not change end products; most reactions reversible
- Heat-sensitive; affected by pH, temperature, substrate and enzyme concentration, inhibitors
- Only a few amino acids form the active site; the rest maintain shape
Cofactors
- Non-protein; bound permanently or temporarily
- Organic = coenzymes (vitamin derivatives: NAD, FAD, biotin)
- Inorganic: Zn²⁺, Fe²⁺, Cu²⁺
Factors
- Temperature: rate rises (more collisions) up to the optimum (~35–40 °C in humans; ~70 °C in hot-spring bacteria), then falls as H-bonds and ionic bonds break and the enzyme denatures
- pH: most 6–8; pepsin 2; trypsin 8
- Substrate concentration: rate rises, then plateaus when the enzyme is saturated
Inhibition
| Competitive | Non-competitive |
|---|---|
| Resembles the substrate; binds the active site | Binds elsewhere; changes the active-site shape |
| Overcome by more substrate | Not overcome by more substrate |
| e.g. HIV protease inhibitor drugs | e.g. many toxins and poisons (some irreversible, covalent) |
Regulation
- Allosteric: regulators bind a regulatory site non-covalently; enzyme has ≥2 subunits; one molecule affects all active sites
- ADP = allosteric activator; ATP = allosteric inhibitor (of catabolism)
- Cooperativity: one substrate binding raises the affinity of other sites (O₂ and haemoglobin)
- Feedback inhibition: the end product inhibits an early enzyme of its pathway
Photosynthesis
Past-paper questions (20)
- 2026 P1 Q6 — C4 pathway
- 2026 P2 Q1C — Photosystems, ATP yield, RQ, protocells
- 2025 P1 Q8 — Photosystems
- 2025 P2 Q5a — Calvin cycle
- 2024 P1 Q5 — Photorespiration organelles
- 2024 P1 Q6 — Calvin cycle product G3P
- 2023 (2024) P2 Q5a — Linear electron flow
- 2023 (2024) P2 Q5b — Efficiency of C4 plants
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q5 — Photosynthetic pigments
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q6 — Light reactions
- 2021 (2022) P2 Q2A — Water, proteins, mitosis vs meiosis, C4, secondary growth, stomata
- 2020 P2 Q1B — Meiotic variation, carotenoids, action spectrum, C4 cells
- 2019 (New) P1 Q6 — Chlorophyll
- 2019 (New) P2 Q1B — Calvin cycle, light reactions, photorespiration
- 2019 (Old) P2 Q5a — Chloroplast structure
- 2019 (Old) P2 Q5b — Photorespiration
- 2017 P1 Q6 — Light reaction events
- 2017 P2 Q5b — C3 & C4 CO2 fixation
- 2017 P2 Q5c — C4 efficiency
- 2016 P1 Q6 — C3 vs C4 comparison
Pigments and spectra
- Chlorophylls absorb violet-blue and red, so leaves look green
- Chlorophyll a: main pigment, directly in the light reactions
- Chlorophyll b and carotenoids (carotenes, xanthophylls) are accessory pigments; carotenoids also give photoprotection (stop reactive oxidative molecules)
- Absorption spectrum = light absorbed by a pigment; action spectrum = effectiveness of each wavelength in driving photosynthesis
Photosystems (in thylakoid membranes)
- Each = reaction-centre complex (special chlorophyll a pair + primary electron acceptor) + light-harvesting complexes
- PS I = P700; PS II = P680
Linear electron flow (thylakoid membrane)
Cyclic flow: PS I only; makes ATP but no NADPH and no O₂.
Calvin cycle (stroma): 3 turns per net G3P
G3P is the precursor for glucose and other carbohydrates.
Photorespiration
- Rubisco acts as an oxygenase: RuBP + O₂ → one 3-PGA + 2-phosphoglycolate (toxic)
- Processed in chloroplast, peroxisome and mitochondrion
- Costs energy and releases CO₂; worse when hot, dry, bright and stomata are closed
C4 pathway
- Mesophyll: CO₂ → HCO₃⁻ (carbonic anhydrase); PEP + HCO₃⁻ → oxaloacetate (PEP carboxylase)
- OAA → malate or aspartate → diffuse to bundle sheath
- Bundle sheath: CO₂ released and re-fixed by Rubisco (Calvin cycle only here)
- Kranz anatomy; many plasmodesmata; bundle-sheath chloroplasts have few or no grana and little PS II
- PEP carboxylase is more efficient: uses HCO₃⁻ (50× more concentrated) and has no affinity for O₂
C3 vs C4
| C3 | C4 | |
|---|---|---|
| Examples | Wheat, rice, barley | Maize, sugarcane, many grasses |
| Optimum T | 15–25 °C | Higher (~35 °C) |
| CO₂ fixation | Once | Twice |
| Acceptor | RuBP | PEP, then RuBP |
| First product | 3-PGA | OAA |
| Yield | Lower | Higher; better water- and N-use efficiency |
Limiting factors (Blackman)
The rate is limited by the factor nearest its minimum value. Light intensity, CO₂ (usually the main limiting factor; greenhouse tomatoes are grown in CO₂-enriched air), temperature, water, pollutants. Very high light intensity bleaches chlorophyll.
Cellular respiration and fermentation
Past-paper questions (19)
- 2026 P1 Q7 — Link reaction
- 2026 P2 Q5a — Two types of fermentation
- 2025 P1 Q41 — Ethanol fermentation
- 2025 P2 Q1C — ATP from NADH/FADH2, link reaction, evolution timeline
- 2024 P1 Q7 — Glycolysis ATP/NADH yield
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q6 — Ethanol fermentation
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q7 — Glycolysis
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q6 — Electron transport chain
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q7 — Aerobic respiration event sequence
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q41 — Ethanol vs lactic fermentation
- 2020 P2 Q5 — Aerobic respiration in liver cells
- 2019 (New) P1 Q41 — Energy relations & ATP
- 2019 (New) P1 Q7 — Compound common to fermentation & respiration
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q6 — Glycolysis
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q7 — Krebs cycle
- 2018 P1 Q3 — Processes requiring ATP
- 2017 P1 Q4 — Energy yield of compounds
- 2016 P1 Q41 — Products of oxidative phosphorylation
- 2016 P1 Q5 — Glycolysis common to all pathways
C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ → 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + energy (ATP + heat)
| Stage | Site | Per glucose |
|---|---|---|
| Glycolysis (no O₂ needed) | Cytosol | Glucose → 2 pyruvate; 2 ATP used, 4 made (net 2 ATP, substrate-level); 2 NADH |
| Link reaction (pyruvate oxidation) | Matrix (pyruvate enters by active transport) | 2 pyruvate → 2 acetyl CoA + 2 CO₂ + 2 NADH |
| Krebs (citric acid / TCA) cycle | Matrix | OAA (4C) + acetyl (2C) → citrate (6C) → OAA; per glucose: 4 CO₂, 2 ATP, 6 NADH, 2 FADH₂ |
| ETC + oxidative phosphorylation | Inner membrane (cristae) | NADH → 2.5 ATP; FADH₂ → 1.5 ATP; 28 ATP; O₂ = final electron acceptor |
NIE ATP total
| Glycolysis: 2 ATP + 2 NADH (5) | 7 |
| Link: 2 NADH | 5 |
| Krebs: 2 ATP + 6 NADH (15) + 2 FADH₂ (3) | 20 |
| Total (liver, heart) | 32 |
|---|---|
| Other cells (2 ATP spent moving cytosolic NADH in) | 30 |
Fermentation (cytosol, no O₂)
| Ethanol (yeast) | Lactic acid (LAB, muscle) |
|---|---|
| Pyruvate → acetaldehyde + CO₂ → ethanol (NADH used) | Pyruvate → lactate (NADH used), no CO₂ |
| Both: glycolysis first; net 2 ATP; regenerates NAD⁺; final H acceptor is organic (acetaldehyde or pyruvate) | |
Respiratory quotient
RQ = volume CO₂ produced ÷ volume O₂ used
| Carbohydrate | 1.0 |
| Protein | 0.8 |
| Fat | 0.7 |
Increasing order: fat < protein < carbohydrate.
Unit 2 — Model MCQs
Pick an answer to check it. Questions follow the past-paper style (five options, one correct).
2.1 Which of the following is a reducing sugar giving a positive Benedict's test? Biomolecules & water
2.2 A peptide bond is formed between Biomolecules & water
2.3 Which organelle is the site of synthesis of ribosomal RNA? Cell organelles & structure
2.4 Uptake of glucose against its concentration gradient coupled with Na⁺ movement down its gradient is Membranes & transport
2.5 In an animal cell, centrosomes are duplicated during Cell cycle, mitosis & meiosis
2.6 A non-competitive inhibitor Enzymes
2.7 In the light-dependent reactions, the final electron acceptor is Photosynthesis
2.8 Using NIE values, how many ATP are produced from the NADH and FADH₂ generated in one turn of the Krebs cycle? Cellular respiration & fermentation
2.9 The resolving power of a light microscope is about Microscopy
Unit 2 — Structured & essay practice
Essay (Q5 style) Describe the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis and explain how their products are used in the Calvin cycle.
Show marking points
- Location: thylakoid membranes; pigments in photosystems II (P680) and I (P700)
- Light excites electrons in PSII; photolysis of water replaces them → H⁺, O₂ released
- Electron transport chain (plastoquinone, cytochrome complex, plastocyanin) pumps H⁺ into lumen
- Chemiosmosis: H⁺ flow through ATP synthase → ATP (photophosphorylation)
- PSI re-excites electrons → ferredoxin → NADP⁺ reductase → NADPH
- Cyclic flow (PSI only) makes ATP but no NADPH/O₂
- Calvin cycle in stroma: RuBisCO fixes CO₂ to RuBP → 2 × 3-PGA
- ATP + NADPH reduce 3-PGA → G3P; ATP regenerates RuBP
- 3 CO₂ → 1 G3P exported, using 9 ATP and 6 NADPH
Structured Compare mitosis and meiosis under: number of divisions, pairing of homologues, crossing over, daughter cells and significance.
Show marking points
- Mitosis 1 division; meiosis 2
- Synapsis/bivalents only in meiosis I (prophase I)
- Crossing over only in meiosis (chiasmata)
- Mitosis: 2 identical diploid cells; meiosis: 4 genetically different haploid cells
- Mitosis: growth, repair, asexual reproduction; meiosis: gametes/spores, keeps chromosome number constant, variation
Evolution & Diversity
The highest-yield unit per page of the textbook. Classification tables (kingdoms, phyla, classes) can be learned quickly and score reliably.
Origin of life and theories of evolution
Past-paper questions (15)
- 2026 P1 Q8 — Lamarck's hypothesis
- 2025 P1 Q2 — Evidence for first living cells
- 2024 P1 Q42 — Timeline of early life
- 2024 P2 Q9a — Darwin–Wallace theory
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q8 — Early-earth event sequence
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q8 — Phanerozoic eras & events
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q7 — Darwin–Wallace theory
- 2020 P1 Q1 — First organisms on earth
- 2020 P1 Q8 — Biochemical evolution
- 2019 (New) P2 Q10a — Natural selection
- 2019 (New) P2 Q1C — Biochemical evolution, polyphyly, zygosporangium, plants, flukes
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q36 — Chronology of organisms
- 2018 P1 Q35 — Stanley Miller experiment
- 2017 P1 Q49 — Geological periods & organisms
- 2016 P1 Q32 — Timeline of organism groups
Early Earth
- Earth formed ~4.6 billion years ago (bya)
- First atmosphere: water vapour, N₂ and its oxides, CO₂, CH₄, NH₃, H₂, H₂S; became reducing; little O₂
- Energy for abiotic synthesis: volcanic eruptions, lightning, intense UV, hydrothermal and alkaline vents
- Other organic sources: meteorites
- Evidence from chemistry, geology and physics; oldest microbial fossils ~3.5 bya
Biochemical evolution: 4 stages
Haldane: "primitive soup". Miller showed organic molecules form from inorganic gases. First genes and enzymes were probably RNA.
Timeline
| Microbial fossils | ~3.5 bya |
| Photosynthetic cyanobacteria | before ~2.7 bya |
| First eukaryotes | ~1.8 bya |
| Oldest protists (small red algae) | ~1.2 bya |
| Sponges | ~700 mya |
| Ancestors of arthropods, chordates | ~670 mya |
| Colonisation of land | after ~500 mya |
| Earliest tetrapods (from lobe-finned fish) | ~365 mya |
| Human lineage splits from other primates | 6–7 mya |
| Homo sapiens | ~195,000 years ago |
| Eon / era | Key events |
|---|---|
| Hadean | Origin of Earth |
| Archaean | Oldest rocks; oldest prokaryote fossils; atmospheric O₂ begins to rise |
| Proterozoic | Oldest eukaryote fossils; diverse algae; soft-bodied invertebrates |
| Phanerozoic: Palaeozoic | Animal phyla diversify (Cambrian); land colonised; vascular plants; bony fish, first tetrapods, insects; amphibians dominate; first seed plants; origin of reptiles; mass extinction |
| Phanerozoic: Mesozoic | Gymnosperms dominate; dinosaurs; origin of mammals; angiosperms appear; mass extinction including dinosaurs |
| Phanerozoic: Cenozoic | Radiation of mammals, birds and pollinating insects; angiosperm dominance; primates; genus Homo |
Lamarck (1809)
- Use and disuse
- Inheritance of acquired characteristics (giraffe neck)
Darwin–Wallace: natural selection
Observations: heritable variation exists; every species produces more offspring than the environment can support.
Favourable traits: escaping predators, tolerating stress, obtaining food, disease resistance, fertilisation success, number of offspring.
Neo-Darwinism
Natural selection + Mendelian genetics + population genetics. Evolution = change in the genetic composition of a population over generations.
Classification, taxonomy and nomenclature
Past-paper questions (14)
- 2026 P1 Q9 — Artificial groups (Protista, viruses)
- 2026 P2 Q2A — Species concepts, archaea, protists, plant/fungal/animal groups
- 2025 P1 Q9 — Why viruses lack a kingdom
- 2024 P2 Q2A — Eukarya vs Archaea, protist walls, ovule, Ascaris
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q9 — Organisms with most common features
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q10 — Pair with most shared features
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q9 — Artificial group (Protista)
- 2021 (2022) P2 Q10a — Rules of nomenclature
- 2021 (2022) P2 Q1B — Classification, arthropods, mammals
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q9 — Natural classification
- 2019 (Old) P2 Q10c — Natural classification
- 2019 (Old) P2 Q1C — Scientific names, nomenclature, Allomyces, symmetry
- 2018 P1 Q8 — Classification history
- 2016 P1 Q8 — History of taxa (Haeckel)
Artificial vs natural
| Artificial | Natural |
|---|---|
| A few pre-selected characters | Many characters |
| Ignores evolution | Reflects phylogeny |
| Cereals vs medicinal plants; number of legs; Linnaeus's stamen count | Phyla; based on morphology, anatomy, cytology, DNA/RNA sequences |
Today's criteria: DNA base sequences of key genes and organelle DNA, rRNA sequences, protein amino-acid sequences, molecular structure of cell components.
History
| Aristotle | Plants vs animals |
| Theophrastus | Plants by habit and life span |
| Linnaeus (1753) | Binomial nomenclature; 2 kingdoms; hierarchy |
| Haeckel (1866) | Kingdom Protista; introduced phylum |
| Whittaker (1969) | 5 kingdoms (cell type, cellularity, nutrition) |
| Woese (1977) | 3 domains: Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya |
Artificial groups today
- Protista: polyphyletic
- Viruses: no cellular organisation, so they belong to no kingdom
Hierarchy
Towards species, shared characteristics increase; towards domain, the number of individuals increases.
Species concepts
- Biological: interbreed → viable, fertile offspring
- Morphological: structural features
- Ecological: niche and interactions
- Phylogenetic: smallest group sharing a common ancestor
Rules of binomial nomenclature
- No two species share a name
- Genus + specific epithet; Latinised, Roman script
- Italics in print, underlined by hand
- Genus capitalised; epithet lower case
- Author added at the end, not Latinised: Cocos nucifera L.
- Third word for subspecies: Panthera pardus kotiya
| Feature | Bacteria | Archaea | Eukarya |
|---|---|---|---|
| Cell wall | Peptidoglycan | Proteins, polysaccharides; no peptidoglycan | Cellulose, hemicellulose, pectin, chitin |
| Membrane lipids | Unbranched | Some branched | Unbranched |
| Histones with DNA | Absent | Present in some | Present |
| Circular chromosome | Present | Present | Absent |
| Introns | Very rare | In some genes | In many genes |
| RNA polymerase | One kind | Several | Several |
| Initiator amino acid | Formyl-methionine | Methionine | Methionine |
| Streptomycin, chloramphenicol | Growth inhibited | Not inhibited | Not inhibited |
| Growth >100 °C | No | Some | No |
| Examples | Nostoc, Anabaena, E. coli, Salmonella | Methanococcus, Thermococcus, Halobacterium | Protists, fungi, plants, animals |
Prokaryotes, protists and fungi
Past-paper questions (17)
- 2026 P1 Q10 — Ulva, Gelidium, Sargassum
- 2025 P1 Q42 — Protist features
- 2025 P2 Q5b — Characteristics of Kingdom Fungi
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q42 — Fungal phyla
- 2022 (2023) P2 Q6a — Bacteria vs Eukarya
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q10 — Protist structures
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q8 — Archaea/eukarya features
- 2020 P1 Q9 — Domain features (Nostoc, Euglena, Mucor)
- 2020 P2 Q10c — Reproduction in Ascomycota / dengue biocontrol
- 2020 P2 Q1C — Eons, evolution sequence, flatworms, gametophytes, protist key
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q8 — Kingdom Protista
- 2018 P1 Q38 — Characteristics of fungi
- 2018 P1 Q7 — Unicellular protists
- 2017 P1 Q11 — Non-heterotrophic genus
- 2017 P1 Q8 — Archaea (branched lipids)
- 2016 P1 Q2 — Prokaryote generalisations
- 2016 P1 Q9 — Glycogen-storing phyla (fungi)
Domain Bacteria
- Uni-, colonial or filamentous; 0.5–5 µm
- Peptidoglycan wall: Gram +/− by amount; often a capsule
- Flagella without membrane and without 9+2
- Diverse nutrition and O₂ needs; some fix N₂ (Rhizobium, cyanobacteria)
- Binary fission; some conjugate
Cyanobacteria: photosynthetic, O₂-producing, solitary or filamentous or colonial, some fix N₂.
Domain Archaea
- Prokaryotic, unicellular, no peptidoglycan
- Extreme halophiles and thermophiles; methanogens (including guts of cattle and termites)
Kingdom Protista (polyphyletic)
- Uni-, colonial or multicellular
- Photoautotrophs, heterotrophs, mixotrophs
- Freshwater, marine, damp soil; some symbionts
| Protist | Key features |
|---|---|
| Euglena | No wall; pellicle; chloroplasts; 1–2 flagella from a pocket; eyespot; contractile vacuole |
| Paramecium | Freshwater; pellicle; cilia; macro- and micronucleus; contractile and food vacuoles; oral groove |
| Amoeba | No wall; pseudopodia; no fixed shape; food vacuoles; free-living or parasitic |
| Ulva | Green alga; marine; multicellular blade + holdfast; cell wall |
| Gelidium | Red alga; marine; thallus with holdfast |
| Sargassum | Brown alga; holdfast, stipe, blade; gas-filled floats |
| Diatoms | Golden-brown; unicellular; silica "glass" wall of two overlapping halves |
Kingdom Fungi
- Eukaryotic; chitin walls; absorptive heterotrophs secreting extracellular enzymes
- Decomposers, parasites, mutualists
- Hyphae → mycelium; septate (pores in septa) or coenocytic
- Haustoria in some; sexual and asexual spores
- Store glycogen
Fungal phyla
| Phylum | Hallmarks | Examples |
|---|---|---|
| Chytridiomycota | Flagellated zoospores; coenocytic when multicellular; some unicellular | Chytridium |
| Zygomycota | Coenocytic; sporangia; zygosporangium (resistant, multinucleate); some commensals | Mucor, Rhizopus |
| Ascomycota | Conidia asexually; asci with 8 ascospores; ascocarps; uni- or multicellular | Aspergillus, Saccharomyces, Penicillium |
| Basidiomycota | Septate, dikaryotic; basidiocarp with gills; exogenous basidiospores | Agaricus, puffballs, shelf fungi |
Kingdom Plantae
Past-paper questions (23)
- 2026 P1 Q14 — Dioecious gametophyte/sporophyte
- 2026 P1 Q42 — Dominant generation & spore type
- 2025 P1 Q10 — Homosporous plant phylum
- 2025 P1 Q16 — Gametophytes of Selaginella
- 2024 P1 Q8 — Vascular plant features
- 2024 P1 Q9 — Plant phyla & gametophytes
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q43 — Evolution of Kingdom Plantae
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q44 — Plant life cycles
- 2023 (2024) P2 Q6a — Monocots vs dicots
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q11 — Seedless vascular plants spores
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q16 — Life cycles (Selaginella, Nephrolepis)
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q9 — Seedless vascular plants
- 2021 (2022) P2 Q1C — Seedless plants, microphylls, domains' cell walls
- 2020 P1 Q11 — Spike vs club mosses (heterospory)
- 2020 P1 Q20 — Homosporous plants
- 2019 (New) P1 Q10 — Relative of Marchantia
- 2019 (New) P1 Q11 — Dicotyledons
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q10 — Kingdom Plantae generalisations
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q29 — Pogonatum life cycle
- 2018 P1 Q6 — Monocot features
- 2017 P1 Q41 — Seedless vascular plants
- 2016 P1 Q49 — Features of vascular plants
- 2016 P1 Q7 — Plant features (Cycas, Marchantia…)
Plants evolved from green algae (chlorophytes), which lack the four land-plant traits: walled spores in sporangia, multicellular gametangia, dependent embryos and apical meristems.
| Group | Phylum (example) | Dominant generation | Spores | Key points |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Non-vascular (bryophytes) | Hepatophyta (Marchantia) | Gametophyte (photosynthetic, independent) | Homosporous | No true roots, stems or leaves; rhizoids. Pogonatum: dioecious gametophyte; flagellated sperm swim in water; sporophyte (foot, seta, capsule) green when young but dependent; sporophytes have stomata |
| Anthocerophyta (Anthoceros) | ||||
| Bryophyta (Pogonatum) | ||||
| Seedless vascular | Lycophyta (Lycopodium club moss, Selaginella spike moss) | Sporophyte | Club mosses homo; spike mosses hetero | Microphylls; strobili; some gametophytes underground, nourished by fungi |
| Pterophyta (Nephrolepis) | Sporophyte | Homosporous → bisexual gametophyte | Rhizome; fronds (megaphylls); sori; closer to seed plants than lycophytes are | |
| Gymnosperms (naked seeds) | Cycadophyta (Cycas) | Sporophyte; gametophyte reduced and dependent | Heterosporous | Palm-like leaves; large cones; flagellated sperm |
| Coniferophyta (Pinus) | Separate male and female cones | |||
| Gnetophyta (Gnetum) | Only gymnosperms with xylem vessels; angiosperm-like leaves | |||
| Angiosperms | Anthophyta | Flowers, carpels, fruits; double fertilisation |
Innovations of vascular plants
- Xylem (tracheids, lignin) and phloem allow height
- Roots replace rhizoids (root tissues resemble stems of early vascular plants)
- Leaves: microphylls (single unbranched vein, small) vs megaphylls (branched veins)
- Sporophylls bear sporangia; heterospory: megaspores → ♀ gametophyte, microspores → ♂
Seed plant innovations
- Seeds: embryo + food + seed coat
- Reduced, protected gametophytes
- Heterospory
- Ovule = megasporangium + megaspore + integument(s)
- Pollen (sporopollenin wall) = male gametophyte; pollen tube delivers sperm, so no water needed
Monocots vs dicots
| Monocot | Dicot |
|---|---|
| 1 cotyledon | 2 cotyledons |
| Fibrous roots | Tap root |
| Parallel veins | Reticulate veins |
| Trimerous; perianth | Penta- or tetramerous; calyx and corolla |
| Pollen 1 aperture | Pollen 3 apertures |
| Scattered bundles, no cambium | Bundles in a ring, with cambium |
| Grasses, coconut, rice | Rose, shoe flower, cucurbits |
Kingdom Animalia and phylum Chordata
Past-paper questions (24)
- 2026 P1 Q11 — Ectothermic bony chordates
- 2025 P1 Q11 — Dioecious animal phyla
- 2025 P2 Q2A — Chordate classes, shark, phyla, algal pigments
- 2024 P1 Q10 — Phyla from body features
- 2024 P1 Q11 — First cephalization
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q10 — Unique animal phylum features
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q12 — Feature unique to one chordate class
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q11 — Features within same phylum
- 2020 P1 Q10 — Protonephridia, mantle, nematocysts
- 2020 P1 Q12 — Features of reptiles/birds/mammals
- 2019 (New) P1 Q42 — Fertilisation types in classes
- 2019 (New) P1 Q8 — First coelom
- 2019 (New) P1 Q9 — Annelids & arthropods shared feature
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q11 — Platyhelminth classes
- 2018 P1 Q44 — Animals excreting urea
- 2018 P1 Q9 — Animal from features (tentacles, coelom)
- 2018 P2 Q1C — Homosporous plants, animal dichotomous key, echinoderms
- 2017 P1 Q10 — Arthropod dichotomous key
- 2017 P1 Q42 — Animals without bony skeleton
- 2017 P1 Q9 — Animal from features
- 2017 P2 Q1C — Molluscs, fish fins, amphibians
- 2016 P1 Q10 — Arthropod class
- 2016 P1 Q43 — Chordates vs molluscs
- 2016 P2 Q3A — Invertebrate key & classes
Multicellular, heterotrophic eukaryotes that ingest food; cells form tissues; mostly sexual reproduction.
| Phylum (examples) | Body plan | Hallmark features |
|---|---|---|
| Cnidaria (Hydra, sea anemone, Obelia, corals, jellyfish) | Diploblastic (mesoglea between); radial; polyp and/or medusa | Gastrovascular cavity with one opening; tentacles with cnidocytes/nematocysts; nerve net; mostly marine |
| Platyhelminthes (Planaria, Taenia, Fasciola) | Triploblastic; acoelomate; dorsoventrally flat | No circulatory, respiratory or skeletal system; signs of cephalization; eyespots (free-living); protonephridia with flame cells; no anus (branched gastrovascular cavity); mostly hermaphrodite |
| Nematoda (round, hook, pin worms) | Triploblastic; pseudocoelom; cylindrical | Tough cuticle, moults; only longitudinal muscles; complete gut; no circulatory or respiratory system; separate sexes, female larger |
| Annelida (earthworm, leech, ragworm) | Segmented; first true coelom | First to show cephalization (NIE); dorsal cerebral ganglia + ventral nerve cord; clitellum, parapodia, setae, suckers; closed circulation; nephridia |
| Mollusca (snail, slug, oyster, clam, squid, octopus, chiton) | Soft, unsegmented; coelomate | Muscular foot, visceral mass, mantle (secretes shell); radula; open circulation (except cephalopods) |
| Arthropoda (insects, spiders, prawns, crabs, scorpions, mites, millipedes, centipedes) | Segmented; jointed legs; chitin exoskeleton | Moult; ventral solid nerve cord; open circulation (haemocoel); gills, tracheae or book lungs; Malpighian tubules (uric acid); dioecious |
| Echinodermata (sea star, sea urchin, sea cucumber, sea lily) | Adults pentaradial, larvae bilateral; deuterostomes | Water vascular system with tube feet; endoskeleton of calcareous plates; no head; reduced circulation with no heart; separate sexes; marine only |
Chordate features (at some stage)
- Notochord
- Dorsal, hollow nerve cord
- Pharyngeal slits
- Muscular post-anal tail
Arthropod classes (keys)
| Insecta | 3 pairs legs, 1 pair antennae, often wings |
| Arachnida | 4 pairs legs, no antennae |
| Crustacea | 2 pairs antennae, gills |
| Chilopoda | 1 pair legs/segment, 1 pair antennae |
| Diplopoda | 2 pairs legs/segment |
| Class | Key features | Examples |
|---|---|---|
| Chondrichthyes | Cartilage skeleton; heterocercal tail; gills without operculum (gill slits visible); placoid scales; internal fertilisation; cloaca | Sharks, skates, rays |
| Osteichthyes | Bony skeleton; operculum; swim bladder; homocercal tail; cycloid/ctenoid scales; mostly external fertilisation | Carp, tuna |
| Amphibia | Moist skin, no scales; ectothermic; first tetrapods; nictitating membrane; tympanum; external fertilisation; no marine species; multiple respiratory surfaces (gills, lungs, skin, buccal cavity) | Frog, toad, Ichthyophis (legless) |
| Reptilia | First fully terrestrial; keratinised scales (stop desiccation and abrasion); lungs; ectothermic; shelled eggs; internal fertilisation | Lizards, snakes, turtles, crocodiles |
| Aves | Keratinised feathers; forelimbs as wings; air-filled bones; toothless beak; endothermic; colour vision | Crow, parrot, eagle |
| Mammalia | Mammary glands; hair; endothermic; differentiated teeth; 4-chambered heart; diaphragm; large brain; parental care | Bat, whale, monkey, cow |
Unit 3 — Model MCQs
Pick an answer to check it. Questions follow the past-paper style (five options, one correct).
3.1 Which of the following provides direct evidence of evolution? Origin of life & evolution
3.2 The three domains of life are Classification & taxonomy
3.3 Which character is common to all fungi? Prokaryotes, protists & fungi
3.4 In which plant group is the gametophyte the dominant generation? Plant diversity
3.5 Seeds without an ovary wall (naked seeds) are found in Plant diversity
3.6 According to the NIE text, the first animal phylum to show cephalization is Animal diversity
3.7 A coelomate animal with a water vascular system and tube feet belongs to Animal diversity
3.8 Which feature is present in all chordates at some stage of life? Animal diversity
Unit 3 — Structured & essay practice
Structured Give the diagnostic features of phylum Arthropoda and name its main classes with one example each.
Show marking points
- Jointed appendages; chitinous exoskeleton, moulting (ecdysis)
- Segmented body with tagmata (head, thorax, abdomen)
- Haemocoel, open circulation; dorsal heart
- Ventral nerve cord; compound eyes
- Classes: Insecta (cockroach), Crustacea (prawn), Arachnida (spider), Chilopoda (centipede), Diplopoda (millipede)
Plant Form & Function
Rising in weight. Transport, hormones and reproduction appear every year, and essay Q6 is nearly always set here.
Meristems, growth and shoot architecture
Past-paper questions (12)
- 2026 P1 Q43 — Light capture (phyllotaxy, branching)
- 2026 P2 Q2B — Meristems, transport, ABA, Mo, alternation of generations
- 2024 P1 Q13 — Plant meristems
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q13 — Meristematic cells
- 2022 (2023) P2 Q5b — Secondary growth in dicot stem
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q13 — Leaves & light capture
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q42 — Primary growth of roots
- 2020 P1 Q14 — Shoot apical meristem
- 2020 P2 Q6b — Design for light capture
- 2020 P2 Q2A — Plant growth, tissues, lenticels, stomata, chilling
- 2019 (New) P1 Q13 — Adaptations for photosynthesis
- 2019 (Old) P2 Q6b — Secondary growth
Meristematic cells
- Living, isodiametric (roughly spherical), undifferentiated
- Central nucleus, dense cytoplasm, able to divide
- Three overlapping zones: division → elongation → differentiation (maturation)
Three meristem types
| Type | Location | Role |
|---|---|---|
| Apical | Root and shoot tips | Primary growth (length) |
| Lateral | Vascular cambium; cork cambium | Secondary growth (girth); cork cambium forms periderm |
| Intercalary | Bases of leaves and nodes in grasses | Regrowth of grazed or damaged leaves |
Root apex vs shoot apex
| Root apex | Shoot apex |
|---|---|
| Protected by root cap | Protected by leaf primordia |
| Cells produced both ways (outward → root cap) | Cells produced only inwards |
Root cells may elongate >10× and push the tip through soil.
Secondary growth (woody dicots, all gymnosperms)
Wood terms
| Heartwood | Central, older; no longer conducts; dark resins protect against fungi and wood-borers |
| Sapwood | Outer; still conducts xylem sap |
| Hardwood | Dicot angiosperm secondary xylem (has vessels) |
| Softwood | Gymnosperm wood: no vessels |
| Spring wood | Wide lumen, thin walls: maximum water flow |
| Summer wood | Narrow lumen, thick walls: support |
Spring + summer wood = one annual ring (temperate trees can be aged).
Bark
All tissues outside the vascular cambium: secondary phloem (and any remaining primary phloem and cortex) + periderm. Only young secondary phloem conducts.
Shoot architecture and light capture
- Stem length and branching pattern are designed to capture maximum light; tall stems avoid shading; vines use supports
- Leaf size: largest in rain forests; smallest in dry or very cold habitats
- Phyllotaxy = arrangement of leaves on the stem
- Horizontal leaves capture light well in dim conditions; vertical leaves (grasses) avoid damage from intense light
Plant tissues and anatomy
Past-paper questions (18)
- 2026 P1 Q12 — Vascular tissue structure–feature
- 2025 P1 Q12 — Types of wood
- 2025 P1 Q13 — Tissues of bark
- 2025 P2 Q6a — Primary structure of dicot root
- 2025 P2 Q2B — Spring/summer wood, phloem sap, plant signalling, fruit, gravity
- 2024 P1 Q12 — Plant cell types & functions
- 2024 P1 Q43 — Monocot leaf anatomy
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q11 — Vascular tissues
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q42 — Tracheids
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q12 — Companion cells
- 2021 (2022) P2 Q6 — Ground tissue structure & function
- 2020 P1 Q13 — Collenchyma vs parenchyma
- 2019 (New) P1 Q12 — Plant epidermis
- 2019 (New) P2 Q6a — Dicot leaf histology
- 2019 (Old) P2 Q6a — Secondary structure of dicot stem
- 2018 P1 Q13 — Vessel element & sclerenchyma
- 2018 P2 Q3B — Plant tissue diagram, gymnosperms, tissue culture uses
- 2016 P2 Q3C — Xylem & phloem elements
| Tissue / cell | Living? | Wall | Function |
|---|---|---|---|
| Epidermis | Yes | Cuticle on aerial parts | Protection; guard cells (gas exchange); root hairs (absorption); trichomes (reduce water loss, reflect light, defence chemicals) |
| Parenchyma | Yes | Thin primary | Metabolism, photosynthesis, storage (leucoplasts with starch), wound repair, totipotent (tissue culture) |
| Collenchyma | Yes | Unevenly thickened primary | Flexible support of growing stems and petioles, just below the epidermis |
| Sclerenchyma: sclereids, fibres | Dead | Thick lignified secondary | Support; sclereids in nut shells, seed coats, gritty fruit; fibres in coir and hemp |
| Tracheid | Dead | Lignified, pitted | Water conduction via pits; all vascular plants; long, thin, tapered |
| Vessel element | Dead | Lignified; perforation plates on end walls; pits on side walls | Fast water flow; wider, shorter, thinner-walled than tracheids; angiosperms and some gymnosperms (Gnetophyta) |
| Sieve-tube element | Living | Sieve plates | Translocation; no nucleus, ribosomes or vacuole; thin peripheral cytoplasm |
| Companion cell | Living | – | Linked by many plasmodesmata; nucleus and ribosomes serve the sieve tube; phloem loading (leaves) and unloading |
Seedless vascular plants and gymnosperms have sieve cells instead of sieve tubes and companion cells.
Primary root (dicot vs monocot)
- Epidermis with root hairs → cortex (parenchyma, intercellular spaces; storage and transport)
- Endodermis: Casparian strip (suberin) in radial and transverse walls; no intercellular spaces
- Pericycle: 2–3 layers; in dicots meristematic (lateral roots, secondary growth); not meristematic in monocots
- Dicot: star-shaped xylem with phloem between arms
- Monocot: central pith with a ring of alternating xylem and phloem
Primary stem
- Dicot: epidermis with stomata; cortex with collenchyma below epidermis; vascular bundles in a ring (phloem outside, xylem inside, cambium between); sclerenchyma cap; large pith
- Monocot: ground tissue not divided into cortex and pith; scattered bundles each with a sclerenchyma sheath; no cambium
Leaf anatomy
| Dicot | Monocot |
|---|---|
| Stomata mainly lower epidermis | Stomata on both surfaces |
| Palisade + spongy mesophyll | Undifferentiated mesophyll, chloroplasts in all cells |
| Reticulate veins with bundle sheath | Parallel veins |
Stomata
- Guard cells: only epidermal cells with chloroplasts; bean-shaped; inner wall thicker and less elastic; radial cellulose microfibrils form hoops
- Gas exchange also via lenticels and a little via cuticle; gases move by diffusion only
Practical: staining a T.S.
- Safranin stains lignified walls (xylem, sclerenchyma) red
- Use thin, even sections; mount in water or glycerol
Water relations, transport and transpiration
Past-paper questions (25)
- 2026 P1 Q13 — Stomatal closing
- 2026 P2 Q6a — Stomatal transpiration
- 2026 P2 Q6b — Root pressure & guttation
- 2025 P1 Q14 — Phloem loading
- 2024 P1 Q14 — Water loss & guttation
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q12 — Lenticels, stomata, hydathodes
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q13 — Imbibition
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q14 — Stomatal opening/closing sequence
- 2023 (2024) P2 Q6b — Apoplastic radial transport
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q14 — Stomatal opening
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q14 — Phloem translocation (pressure flow)
- 2020 P1 Q15 — Water & solute potential
- 2020 P1 Q16 — Osmosis
- 2019 (New) P1 Q14 — Stomatal opening
- 2019 (New) P2 Q6b — Phloem translocation
- 2019 (New) P2 Q2A — Epithelia, meristems, water potential practical, calcium
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q15 — Transport in plants
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q16 — Phloem transport
- 2018 P1 Q12 — Water & mineral transport
- 2017 P1 Q14 — Factors affecting transpiration
- 2017 P1 Q15 — Pressure-flow hypothesis
- 2017 P2 Q6 — Transpiration & potometer
- 2016 P1 Q15 — Guttation in darkness
- 2016 P1 Q16 — Phloem transport
- 2016 P2 Q10c — Stomatal opening & closure
Movement methods
| Diffusion | Down a concentration gradient; passive |
| Osmosis | Free water across a selectively permeable membrane |
| Imbibition | Physical adsorption of water by hydrophilic materials (cellulose walls, seeds) |
| Facilitated diffusion | Passive, through specific transport proteins |
| Active transport | ATP; against gradient (K⁺ into root hairs) |
| Bulk (mass) flow | Whole solution moves by a pressure gradient; long distance; independent of solute gradient |
Water potential Ψ (MPa)
Ψ = Ψs + Ψp
- Pure water at atmospheric pressure: Ψ = 0
- Ψs (solute potential) is always negative; more solute → more negative (0.1 M sucrose ≈ −0.23 MPa)
- Ψp positive in turgid cells; negative (tension) in xylem (< −2 MPa)
- Water moves from higher (less negative) to lower Ψ
- Incipient plasmolysis: Ψp = 0, so Ψ = Ψs
- Full turgor: Ψp = −Ψs, so Ψ = 0
Practical: Ψ of potato tissue
From soil to xylem: radial transport
| Route | Path | Notes |
|---|---|---|
| Apoplastic | Cell walls, intercellular spaces, dead xylem | Least resistance; carries most water; blocked at endodermis by Casparian strip |
| Symplastic | Cytosol connected by plasmodesmata | Crosses a plasma membrane once on entry |
| Transmembrane | Repeatedly out of and into cells | Crosses many membranes |
The endodermis forces all solutes through a selective membrane (keeps toxins out) and stops ions in the stele leaking back. Minerals enter root hairs mostly by active transport (K⁺ is hundreds of times more concentrated inside).
Ascent of sap: cohesion–tension
Root pressure and guttation
- At night (humidity near 100%, little transpiration), roots keep pumping ions into the stele → Ψ falls → water enters → root pressure
- Excess water exudes through hydathodes at leaf tips and margins = guttation (Alocasia, Colocasia)
- Not in daytime, not through stomata, not dew; root pressure lifts water only short distances
Phloem: pressure-flow hypothesis
Phloem sap ≈ 30% sucrose + amino acids, hormones, minerals. Sources: mature leaves. Sinks: growing roots, buds, fruits. Tubers can be either.
Transpiration
- Loss of water vapour from aerial parts: stomatal (~95%), cuticular, lenticular
- Path: xylem → mesophyll (3 routes) → evaporation into substomatal space → diffusion out through stomata → boundary layer ("diffusion shell")
- Importance: distributes water and minerals; drives ascent of sap and uptake by roots; cools leaves
Factors
| Factor ↑ | Transpiration |
|---|---|
| Light | ↑ (stomata open) |
| Temperature | ↑ (greatest effect in light) |
| Humidity | ↓ |
| Wind | ↑ (removes diffusion shell) |
| CO₂ in leaf | ↓ (stomata close) |
| Soil water available | ↑ |
Soil texture itself has little direct effect.
Stomatal opening: K⁺ influx
Closing: K⁺ leaves → water leaves → turgor falls. ABA (drought, from roots and leaves) triggers K⁺ loss and closure, preventing wilting. Low CO₂ in the substomatal cavity opens stomata. Guard cells also have an internal clock.
Practical: potometer
Cut a leafy shoot under water (no air locks) → fit it airtight → introduce an air bubble in the capillary → time how far the bubble moves under controlled conditions → change one factor (light, wind from a fan, humidity with a plastic bag) → reset with the reservoir. Strictly it measures water uptake, which approximates transpiration.
Plant nutrition
Past-paper questions (7)
- 2024 P1 Q15 — Mineral deficiency symptoms
- 2024 P2 Q2B — Trichomes, symplast, sulphur uptake, fertilisation, statoliths
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q15 — Nutrients causing chlorosis
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q16 — Forms of N and B uptake
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q15 — Element sourced only from air
- 2020 P1 Q17 — Chlorosis in older leaves
- 2019 (New) P1 Q15 — Plant mineral nutrition
Modes of nutrition
- Photoautotrophs: all green plants
- Mutualism: legume + Rhizobium; mycorrhizae; coralloid roots of Cycas + Anabaena
- Commensalism: epiphytic orchids
- Parasitism: semi-parasite Loranthus; total parasite Cuscuta (dodder)
- Carnivorous (photosynthetic but take N and minerals from insects, in nutrient-poor soils): Nepenthes, Drosera, Utricularia (aquatic)
17 essential elements
Macronutrients (9): C, H, O, N, P, S, K, Ca, Mg
Micronutrients (8): Cl, Fe, Mn, B, Zn, Cu, Ni, Mo
C and O come from atmospheric CO₂. H comes from water. N is absorbed from soil as NO₃⁻ or NH₄⁺; atmospheric N₂ is not used directly by plants.
| Element (form) | Main roles | Deficiency |
|---|---|---|
| N (NO₃⁻, NH₄⁺) | Amino acids, proteins, nucleic acids, chlorophyll, coenzymes | Stunted growth, chlorosis especially in older leaves |
| P (H₂PO₄⁻) | ATP, nucleic acids, phospholipids | Healthy look but slow growth, thin stems, purple veins, poor flowering and fruiting |
| K (K⁺) | Stomatal operation; enzyme cofactor; osmotic balance | Yellow-brown leaf margins, weak stems, poor roots |
| Ca (Ca²⁺) | Cell wall and middle lamella; membrane permeability; signal transduction | Crinkled young leaves; death of terminal buds |
| Mg (Mg²⁺) | Chlorophyll; activates enzymes | Interveinal chlorosis in older leaves |
| S (SO₄²⁻) | Some amino acids and proteins | Chlorosis in young leaves |
| Fe (Fe²⁺/Fe³⁺) | Chlorophyll synthesis; N₂ fixation | Interveinal chlorosis in young leaves |
| Mn (Mn²⁺) | Enzymes of photosynthesis | Interveinal chlorosis, young leaves |
| Zn (Zn²⁺) | Enzyme activator; chlorophyll formation; transcription | Crinkled leaves; short internodes |
| B (H₂BO₃⁻) | Chlorophyll synthesis cofactor; cell wall; pollen tube growth | Death of meristems; thick, leathery leaves |
| Cu (Cu⁺/Cu²⁺) | Enzyme component | Light-green young leaves, dry tips; stunted roots |
| Mo (MoO₄²⁻) | Nitrogen metabolism | Death of root and shoot tips; chlorosis in older leaves |
| Ni (Ni²⁺) | Nitrogen metabolism | Death of leaf tips; chlorosis in older leaves |
| Cl (Cl⁻) | Osmotic and ionic balance; photosynthesis | Wilting, stubby roots, mottling |
Plant life cycles and reproduction
Past-paper questions (15)
- 2026 P1 Q15 — Seedless fruits (parthenocarpy)
- 2026 P1 Q40 — Vegetative propagation structures
- 2025 P1 Q43 — Adaptations for cross-pollination
- 2024 P1 Q16 — Embryo sac nuclei
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q17 — Diploid structure (ovule)
- 2020 P1 Q18 — Seed develops from ovule
- 2019 (New) P1 Q16 — Sexual reproduction in land plants
- 2019 (New) P2 Q2B — Gametophytes, sori, pollination, cytokinins
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q28 — Sexual reproduction in land plants
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q30 — Fertilisation in angiosperms
- 2019 (Old) P2 Q3C — Plant support tissues, seed dormancy & germination, toxins, immunity
- 2018 P1 Q27 — Male gametophyte
- 2017 P1 Q30 — Vegetative propagation structures
- 2017 P2 Q3B — Collenchyma, parthenocarpy, seed germination
- 2016 P2 Q3B — Ovule & post-fertilisation changes
Alternation of generations (heteromorphic)
Gametangia and sporangia have sterile jackets against desiccation. Seedless plants need external water for sperm; seed plants do not. Trend: sporophyte becomes dominant, gametophyte reduced and dependent.
Four life cycles compared
| Pogonatum | Nephrolepis | Selaginella | Cycas | |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Dominant | Gametophyte | Sporophyte | Sporophyte | Sporophyte |
| Spores | Homo | Homo (sori + indusium) | Hetero (strobilus) | Hetero |
| Gametophyte | Dioecious, photosynthetic | Bisexual heart-shaped prothallus, photosynthetic, independent | ♂ in microspore, non-photosynthetic; ♀ partly photosynthetic, partly dependent | Reduced, dependent, in ovule |
| Sperm | Flagellated, swim | Flagellated, swim | Flagellated, swim | Large, multi-ciliated, via pollen tube |
| Other | Protonema; sporophyte = foot, seta, capsule | Rhizome, fiddleheads, stolons | Heterophyllous; megasporangium → 4 megaspores | Dioecious sporophyte; seeds; ovule = nucellus + integument |
Flower and gametophytes
- Sepals and petals are sterile; stamens are microsporophylls; carpels are megasporophylls
- Pollen grain (male gametophyte): tube nucleus + generative nucleus
- Ovule: 1 functional megaspore → embryo sac = 8 nuclei in 7 cells: 3 antipodals, central cell with 2 polar nuclei, 2 synergids, 1 egg
- The ovule itself is diploid (2n) tissue; megaspore, microspore, pollen and embryo sac are haploid
Double fertilisation (unique to angiosperms)
Ovule → seed; integuments → seed coat; ovary wall → pericarp; ovary → fruit. Significance: endosperm develops only if the egg is fertilised, so no nutrients are wasted.
Cross-pollination adaptations
- Self-incompatibility (self-infertility)
- Heterostyly
- Unisexual flowers
- (also dichogamy)
Monoecy and homostyly are not cross-pollination adaptations. Cross-pollination increases variation and supports evolution.
Parthenocarpy and parthenogenesis
- Parthenocarpy: fruit without fertilisation, so seedless. Natural in banana; induced with growth substances in grapes and oranges
- Parthenogenesis (plants): seed without fertilisation (some grasses)
Seeds, dormancy and germination
- Seed advantages: coat protects; food reserve; dormancy survives bad periods; dispersal
- Dormancy causes: inhibitors, hard seed coat, coat impermeable to water
- Germination needs water, O₂, suitable temperature
- Sequence: imbibition of water → enzymes activated → food mobilised → radicle emerges (positively gravitropic) → plumule (negatively gravitropic)
Natural vegetative propagation
| Rhizome | Ginger, ferns |
| Stem tuber | Potato (Solanum) |
| Corm | Colocasia, Alocasia, gladiolus |
| Runner / stolon | Centella, spider plant, mint |
| Bulbils | Dioscorea |
| Leaf buds | Bryophyllum |
Plant responses, growth regulators and stress
Past-paper questions (17)
- 2026 P1 Q16 — Hormone for lateral expansion (ethylene)
- 2025 P1 Q17 — Ethylene & gibberellins
- 2025 P2 Q6b — Cold stress in plants
- 2024 P1 Q17 — Hormones in seed germination
- 2024 P2 Q6 — Plant defence against pests & pathogens
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q16 — Hormones promoting rooting
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q18 — Hormone functions
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q17 — ABA & water deficit
- 2020 P1 Q19 — Hormones promoting senescence
- 2020 P2 Q6a — Effects of light on plants
- 2019 (New) P1 Q17 — Plant responses to light
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q25 — Plant movements
- 2018 P1 Q20 — Gibberellin functions
- 2018 P1 Q26 — Thigmotropism
- 2017 P1 Q28 — Nyctinastic movement
- 2016 P1 Q27 — Hormone preventing leaf fall
- 2016 P2 Q8 — Plant growth substances
Light (photomorphogenesis)
- Red and blue light matter most
- Blue-light photoreceptors: phototropism, light-induced stomatal opening, slowing of hypocotyl elongation as a seedling emerges
- Phytochromes (mainly red/far-red): seed germination, shade avoidance
- Shade under a canopy is rich in far-red, so plants grow taller. Direct sun (more red relative to far-red) stimulates branching and inhibits vertical growth
- Photoperiod controls flowering
- Phototropism: cells on the shaded side elongate faster
Gravity and touch
- Roots positively, shoots negatively gravitropic
- Statoliths = plastids with dense starch grains, in root-cap cells; settling redistributes Ca²⁺, which moves auxin to the lower side; high auxin inhibits root elongation there, so the root bends down
- Thigmomorphogenesis: wind-exposed trees are shorter and stockier
- Thigmotropism: tendrils coil around supports
- Thigmonasty: Mimosa pudica folds as pulvinus cells lose turgor
- Nyctinasty: flowers opening by day, closing at night
| Regulator | Main effects (NIE list) |
|---|---|
| Auxin (IAA) | Stem elongation (low concentration); lateral and adventitious roots; fruit development; apical dominance; photo- and gravitropism; vascular differentiation; retards leaf abscission (prevents leaf fall) |
| Gibberellins | Stem (internode) elongation; pollen development and tube growth; fruit growth; seed development and germination (activate enzymes); used for seedless grapes |
| Cytokinins | Cell division in shoots and roots; promote lateral bud growth (modify apical dominance); move nutrients to sinks; seed germination; delay leaf senescence |
| Abscisic acid | Inhibits growth; stomatal closure in drought; seed dormancy (inhibits early germination); promotes leaf senescence; desiccation tolerance |
| Ethylene | Fruit ripening; leaf abscission; triple response in seedlings (inhibits stem elongation, promotes lateral expansion, horizontal growth); senescence; roots and root hairs; flowering in the pineapple family |
| Jasmonates | Defence signalling |
Abiotic stress
- Drought: ABA closes stomata; grass leaves roll; leaf shedding
- Cold: membranes lose fluidity below a critical temperature, so plants raise the proportion of unsaturated fatty acids. Freezing: extracellular ice draws water out of cells, so frost-tolerant plants accumulate sugars and other solutes
- Salt: low soil Ψ cuts water uptake; plants make compatible organic solutes; halophytes (mangroves) use salt glands
Biotic stress: defences
| Pre-existing | Induced |
|---|---|
| Wax and cuticle; thick epidermal walls; stomatal size, position and shape; thorns, prickles, trichomes; toxins: alkaloids (nicotine), phenolics (flavonoids, lignin, tannins), terpenoids (azadirachtin), lectins | Cell-wall changes; cork and abscission layers; phenolics; toxic compounds; enzymes that degrade fungal walls or damage insect organs |
Unit 4 — Model MCQs
Pick an answer to check it. Questions follow the past-paper style (five options, one correct).
4.1 Which plant tissue consists of dead cells with lignified walls and provides mechanical support? Plant tissues & anatomy
4.2 Secondary growth in girth of a dicot stem is due to Plant form & growth
4.3 The Casparian strip in the endodermis forces water to move through the Water relations & transport
4.4 Which force is mainly responsible for the ascent of sap in tall trees? Water relations & transport
4.5 Which deficiency causes interveinal chlorosis in OLD leaves first? Plant nutrition
4.6 In a typical angiosperm embryo sac, the number of nuclei and cells are Plant reproduction & life cycles
4.7 Which pair of hormones together promotes seed germination? Plant hormones & responses
4.8 The 'triple response' of seedlings growing towards an obstacle is caused by Plant hormones & responses
Unit 4 — Structured & essay practice
Essay (Q6 style) Explain how water moves from the soil to the atmosphere through a flowering plant.
Show marking points
- Root hairs: large surface; water enters by osmosis (lower ψ in root cells)
- Apoplast, symplast and vacuolar pathways across cortex
- Casparian strip forces water into symplast at endodermis
- Root pressure from active ion pumping into xylem (guttation)
- Xylem vessels/tracheids: dead, lignified, continuous tubes
- Cohesion between water molecules (H-bonds); adhesion to walls
- Transpiration from mesophyll → stomata creates tension (transpiration pull)
- Factors: light, temperature, humidity, wind, soil water
- Stomatal control by guard cells (K⁺ uptake, ABA closes)
Structured State the main effect(s) of each plant hormone: auxin, gibberellin, cytokinin, ethylene, abscisic acid. Name a hormone pair that acts together in (i) seed germination (ii) leaf senescence.
Show marking points
- Auxin: cell elongation, apical dominance, phototropism, rooting of cuttings, prevents leaf fall
- Gibberellin: stem elongation, fruit growth, breaks dormancy
- Cytokinin: cell division, delays senescence, shoot formation
- Ethylene: fruit ripening, triple response, abscission
- ABA: stomatal closure, dormancy, stress hormone
- (i) cytokinin + gibberellin (ii) ABA + ethylene
Animal Form & Function
One third of the whole paper. It fills MCQ positions 18–30, structured Q3 and essays Q7–8. Learn it system by system with numbers and hormones.
Animal tissues
Past-paper questions (12)
- 2026 P1 Q18 — Epithelium–location–function
- 2025 P1 Q44 — Epithelial tissue functions
- 2024 P1 Q18 — Cartilage & bone cells
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q17 — Epithelia
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q19 — Connective tissue
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q18 — Tissue–location
- 2020 P1 Q41 — Respiratory tract tissues
- 2019 (New) P1 Q18 — Connective tissues (blood)
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q24 — Smooth muscle features
- 2017 P1 Q3 — Epithelial tissue functions
- 2017 P1 Q45 — Cardiac muscle
- 2016 P1 Q21 — Smooth muscle
| Epithelium | Cells | Where | Role |
|---|---|---|---|
| Simple squamous | One layer, plate-like | Capillaries, alveoli, Bowman's capsule | Diffusion and exchange |
| Simple cuboidal | One layer, dice-shaped | Kidney tubules, thyroid, salivary glands | Secretion |
| Simple columnar | One layer, brick-shaped | Intestinal lining | Secretion, active absorption |
| Pseudostratified columnar | One layer of unequal heights; ciliated | Nasal passage, trachea | Mucous membrane; sweeps mucus |
| Stratified squamous | Many layers; regenerates | Skin surface, mouth, anus, vagina | Resists abrasion |
Epithelia: closely packed cells, apical and basal surfaces, basement membrane, no blood vessels. Functions: protection, secretion, absorption (not insulation or support).
Connective tissues
Cells scattered in an extracellular matrix with fibres: collagen (strength), reticular (join to adjacent tissues), elastic. Cells include fibroblasts, macrophages, mast cells (heparin, histamine), fat cells and leucocytes.
| Loose (areolar) | Most widespread; all 3 fibres; under skin; holds organs |
| Dense fibrous | Collagen-packed; tendons (muscle–bone), ligaments (bone–bone) |
| Adipose | Fat droplets; insulation, padding, fuel |
| Blood | Liquid matrix (plasma) not secreted by cells; fibres only on clotting |
| Cartilage | Chondroitin sulphate + collagen; chondrocytes secrete both; trachea, intervertebral discs |
| Bone | Collagen + Ca, Mg, phosphate salts; osteoblasts (form bone), osteocytes in lacunae; osteons with central canal |
Muscle tissues
| Smooth | Skeletal | Cardiac | |
|---|---|---|---|
| Shape | Spindle | Long cylinders | Branched |
| Nuclei | One | Many | One |
| Striations | No | Yes (sarcomeres) | Yes |
| Control | Involuntary | Voluntary | Involuntary, myogenic |
| Other | Gut, bladder, arteries | Fatigue quickly | Intercalated discs, gap junctions |
Nervous tissue
- Neurone (structural and functional unit): cell body, dendrites (receive), axon (transmit)
- Neuroglia: nourish, insulate (myelin), replenish neurones, modulate function
Nutrition and the human digestive system
Past-paper questions (26)
- 2026 P1 Q19 — Human digestive system
- 2025 P1 Q18 — Human saliva
- 2025 P1 Q19 — Pancreatectomy & digestion
- 2025 P2 Q2C — Bone tissue, gastritis, vitamins, respiratory pigments, bronchitis
- 2024 P1 Q19 — Digestive enzyme–organ–substrate
- 2024 P1 Q20 — Vitamins
- 2024 P2 Q7a — Liver in nutrition
- 2024 P2 Q7b — Regulation of digestion
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q19 — Regulation of digestion (gastrin etc.)
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q20 — Large intestine functions
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q19 — Digestive hormones
- 2021 (2022) P2 Q7a — Pancreas structure
- 2021 (2022) P2 Q7b — Pancreas in digestion
- 2020 P1 Q21 — Mineral elements in humans
- 2020 P1 Q42 — Digestive substances by region
- 2020 P2 Q2B — Plant life cycle, symbiosis, BMI, vitamins, gut hormones
- 2019 (New) P1 Q19 — Feeding types in animals
- 2019 (New) P1 Q20 — Nucleic acid digestion
- 2019 (New) P2 Q2C — Caecum, gastric glands, absorption, circulation, hypertension
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q12 — Duodenum histology
- 2019 (Old) P2 Q2A — Vitamin B, dentition, enterogastrone, gas exchange, excretion
- 2018 P1 Q10 — Human digestive system
- 2018 P1 Q45 — Absorption of digestion products
- 2017 P1 Q12 — Pancreatic & intestinal enzymes
- 2016 P1 Q11 — Vitamins & anaemia
- 2016 P2 Q10a — Human pancreas
Holozoic nutrition
| Filter feeders | Clams, oysters |
| Fluid feeders | Mosquitoes, aphids, bees, hummingbirds |
| Substrate feeders | Leaf-miner caterpillars, maggots |
| Bulk feeders | Most animals including humans |
Symbiosis: mutualism (cellulose digesters in ruminants and termites), parasitism (tapeworm, lice), commensalism (barnacles on whales).
Mouth
- Teeth: incisors, canines, premolars, molars (adult dental formula 2.1.2.3 per quadrant)
- Saliva: water (dissolves, aids taste), salivary amylase (starch → smaller polysaccharides + maltose), mucus (lubricates, cleans, protects), lysozyme and immunoglobulins (antimicrobial), buffers (neutralise acid, prevent tooth decay)
- Tongue (skeletal muscle) mixes and forms the bolus
Stomach
- Gastric glands: mucous cells (mucus), chief cells (pepsinogen), parietal cells (H⁺ and Cl⁻ separately → HCl)
- HCl activates pepsinogen → pepsin, which activates more (autocatalysis); pepsin: proteins → small polypeptides
- HCl kills microbes (non-specific defence)
- Self-protection: inactive enzyme secretion, mucus, new epithelium every 3 days
- Absorbs some water, alcohol, drugs; secretes gastrin; chyme leaves via pyloric sphincter
| Substrate | Enzyme (source) | Product |
|---|---|---|
| Starch | Salivary and pancreatic amylase | Disaccharides |
| Disaccharides | Disaccharidases (intestinal: maltase, sucrase, lactase) | Monosaccharides |
| Proteins | Pepsin (stomach) | Small polypeptides |
| Polypeptides | Trypsin, chymotrypsin (pancreas; secreted as trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen) | Smaller polypeptides |
| Smaller polypeptides | Pancreatic carboxypeptidase | Small peptides, amino acids |
| Small peptides | Dipeptidases, carboxy- and aminopeptidases (intestinal) | Amino acids |
| Fats (emulsified by bile salts) | Pancreatic lipase | Fatty acids, glycerol, monoglycerides |
| DNA, RNA | Pancreatic nucleases | Nucleotides |
| Nucleotides | Nucleotidases, nucleosidases, phosphatases (intestinal) | N-bases, sugars, phosphates |
Fat and nucleic acid digestion start in the small intestine. Duodenum completes most digestion; jejunum and ileum absorb.
Absorption
- Surface area: circular folds → villi → microvilli (brush border)
- Glucose (mostly), amino acids, small peptides, vitamins: active; fructose: facilitated diffusion
- Into villus capillaries → hepatic portal vein → liver
- Fatty acids + monoglycerides → triglycerides re-formed in cells → chylomicrons → lacteal → lymph → blood
- ~2 L water drunk + ~7 L in juices; most reabsorbed in small intestine
Large intestine
- Caecum (with appendix): fermentation of undigested plant matter
- Colon: completes water and ion reabsorption; bacteria make vitamin K, some B vitamins and folic acid
- Rectum stores faeces; two anal sphincters
Pancreas and liver
- Pancreas: exocrine acini (juice: bicarbonate, amylase, lipase, nucleases, trypsinogen) + endocrine islets of Langerhans (insulin, glucagon); pancreatic + bile duct → hepatopancreatic duct
- Liver lobule (hexagonal): hepatocytes in columns radiating from a central vein; sinusoids with mixed portal and arterial blood; Kupffer cells; bile canaliculi; portal triad at corners
Hormonal regulation
| Trigger | Hormone (source) | Effect |
|---|---|---|
| Stomach stretch | Gastrin (stomach) | ↑ gastric juice |
| Fatty and amino acids in chyme | Cholecystokinin (duodenum) | Bile from gall bladder; pancreatic enzymes |
| Acid chyme | Secretin (duodenum) | Bicarbonate from pancreas |
| Fat-rich chyme | CCK + secretin (enterogastrones) | Inhibit gastric peristalsis and secretion |
Balanced diet
- Carbohydrates: energy, heat, stores, protein sparing
- Proteins: growth, repair, enzymes, antibodies, hormones. 8 essential amino acids (e.g. leucine, methionine, lysine); animal proteins are complete
- Lipids: most energy per gram; fat-soluble vitamins; steroid hormones; insulation, myelin; essential fatty acids
- Fibre: bulk, prevents constipation, protects against colorectal cancer
- Water ≈ 60% of body mass
Vitamins
| Vitamin | Role | Deficiency |
|---|---|---|
| A | Visual pigment, epithelia, immunity | Blindness, skin disorders, low immunity |
| D | Ca and P absorption | Rickets; bone softening |
| E | Antioxidant | Nervous degeneration |
| K | Clotting; made by colon bacteria | Defective clotting |
| B1 | Coenzymes | Beriberi |
| B2 | FAD | Cracks at mouth corners |
| B3 | NAD | Pellagra |
| B6, B9, B12 | RBC production | Anaemia (B9: birth defects) |
| C | Antioxidant; collagen | Scurvy; slow wound healing |
Minerals
| Ca | Bones, teeth, clotting, nerves, muscles |
| P | Bones, teeth, acid–base balance |
| Na, K, Cl | Acid–base, water balance, nerve function |
| Fe | Haemoglobin, electron carriers |
| I | Thyroid hormone (goitre) |
| F | Teeth (decay) |
| Mg | Enzyme cofactor |
Energy and body mass
- BMR: minimum rate at rest, post-absorptive (≥12 h fast), no stress; ~1600–1800 kcal/day (men), 1300–1500 (women)
- Energy budget: C = M + U + F + P (food = metabolism + urine + faeces + production)
- BMI = mass (kg) ÷ height² (m²). <18.5 malnutrition; ≥30 obesity
Example: 50 kg, 1.53 m → 50 ÷ 2.3409 = 21.4. Minimum non-malnourished mass at 1.53 m = 18.5 × 2.3409 = 43.3 kg.
Disorders
- Gastritis: excess HCl damages mucosa; causes: prolonged starvation, mental stress, aspirin, Helicobacter pylori
- Constipation: slow faecal movement, too much water reabsorbed; prevent with fibre and regular habits
Circulation, blood and lymph
Past-paper questions (34)
- 2026 P1 Q20 — Circulatory system types
- 2026 P1 Q21 — Human heart & vessels
- 2026 P2 Q7a — Lymphatic system
- 2026 P2 Q7b — Hypertension risk factors
- 2026 P2 Q2C — Villus, cardiac cycle, clotting, mucus escalator, autoimmunity
- 2025 P1 Q20 — Human heart conduction
- 2024 P1 Q21 — Heart conduction & atrial emptying
- 2024 P1 Q44 — Blood transfusion compatibility
- 2024 P2 Q2C — Skeletal muscle, tongue, fish circulation, lymph, blood pathway
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q20 — Blood route through heart
- 2023 (2024) P2 Q7a — Structure of heart wall
- 2023 (2024) P2 Q7b — Coronary circulation & blockage
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q21 — ABO antibodies
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q22 — Lymphatic system
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q43 — Blood clotting
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q20 — Tricuspid valve failure
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q43 — Single vs double circulation
- 2021 (2022) P2 Q2B — Cartilage, nutrition terms, blood values, cardiac cycle
- 2020 P1 Q22 — Lymph, gas exchange, clotting, CO2 transport
- 2020 P1 Q43 — Circulatory features in animals
- 2020 P2 Q2C — Tissues, SA/AV node, ECG, Hb equation
- 2019 (New) P1 Q21 — Hypotension consequences
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q13 — Hepatic circulation pathway
- 2019 (Old) P2 Q7a — Structure of human heart
- 2019 (Old) P2 Q7b — Coronary circulation
- 2019 (Old) P2 Q2B — Double circulation, ECG, bypass, Hb, xylem transport
- 2018 P1 Q14 — Animal circulatory systems
- 2018 P1 Q46 — Erythrocytes
- 2018 P2 Q3A — Pacemaker, coronary arteries, thermoregulation, blood groups
- 2017 P1 Q16 — Human blood cells
- 2017 P1 Q17 — Animal circulatory systems
- 2017 P2 Q2C — Circulation, plasma proteins, cardiac cycle, water potential
- 2016 P1 Q13 — Human blood
- 2016 P1 Q14 — Heart conducting system
Open vs closed
| Open | Closed |
|---|---|
| Haemolymph bathes organs; no distinction from interstitial fluid | Blood confined to vessels |
| Returns via ostia (pores with valves) in the heart | Higher pressure; suits larger, more active animals |
| Arthropods, most molluscs | Annelids, cephalopods, vertebrates |
No circulatory system: cnidarians, flatworms, nematodes (diffusion suffices).
Single vs double circulation
- Single (fish, including rays and sharks): 2-chambered heart; heart → gills → body; blood reaches organs at reduced pressure
- Double: pulmonary + systemic circuits. Amphibians and most reptiles: 3 chambers. Birds and mammals: 4 chambers, complete separation
- Double is better because systemic blood is re-pressurised, giving more efficient supply (brain, muscles)
Lymphatic system
- Lymph vessels (with valves), nodes (connective tissue + WBCs), tonsils, spleen, thymus
- Lymph composition = interstitial fluid
- Drains into veins at the base of the neck via two ducts
- Moved by vessel contraction and skeletal muscles
- Roles: return lost fluid and proteins; absorb fats and fat-soluble vitamins; immunity
Heart structure
- Wall: pericardium (fibrous + serous), myocardium (cardiac muscle + conducting fibres), endocardium (flat epithelium, continuous with endothelium)
- Left ventricle wall thickest (pumps to whole body)
- Tricuspid (right AV, 3 flaps); bicuspid/mitral (left AV, 2 flaps); chordae tendineae + papillary muscles stop inversion; semilunar valves at aorta and pulmonary artery
- Coronary arteries branch from the aorta just after the aortic valve; cardiac veins → coronary sinus → right atrium
Blood route
Head, neck, forelimbs → superior vena cava. Trunk and hind limbs → inferior vena cava. Hepatic artery → liver → hepatic vein → IVC.
Conducting system
- SA node (right atrium wall near SVC) = pacemaker: initiates and sets rhythm
- AV node (between atria) relays to ventricles
- AV bundle (bundle of His) → bundle branches → Purkinje fibres → contraction from apex upwards
- Heart is myogenic; rate modified by sympathetic (↑), parasympathetic (↓), adrenaline, thyroxine, temperature
Cardiac cycle (0.8 s at ~75 beats/min)
| Complete diastole | 0.4 s | All relaxed; AV valves open; ventricles fill passively |
| Atrial systole | 0.1 s | SA node fires; atria empty into ventricles |
| Ventricular systole | 0.3 s | AV node → Purkinje; AV valves shut; semilunar open |
Resting rate 60–80 bpm. Stroke volume = blood pumped per ventricle per beat.
ECG
- P: atrial depolarisation (SA node impulse)
- QRS: ventricular depolarisation (spread from AV node)
- T: ventricular repolarisation
- Atrial repolarisation is hidden in QRS
Blood pressure
- Normal ~120/80 mmHg (systolic/diastolic); measured with a sphygmomanometer
- Hypertension risks: obesity, diabetes, family history, smoking, inactivity, salt, alcohol, stress, LDL deposits. Consequences: kidney damage, heart attack, stroke, vessel damage
- Hypotension: shock, dengue haemorrhagic fever, sudden standing, bleeding, fasting → fainting
- Atherosclerosis → angina (narrowing) or myocardial infarction (complete block) ± thrombosis; brain → stroke
Respiratory pigments
| Haemoglobin | Vertebrates, annelids |
| Haemocyanin (Cu) | Arthropods, molluscs |
| Chlorocruorin | Many annelids |
| Haemerythrin | Some annelids (marine) |
| Myoglobin | Vertebrate muscle: O₂ storage |
Pigments evolved because O₂ is poorly soluble in water.
Gas transport
Hb + 4O₂ ⇌ HbO₈ (lung capillaries, inside RBCs)
| CO₂ form | % |
|---|---|
| HCO₃⁻ in plasma (carbonic anhydrase in RBC) | ~70 |
| Carbaminohaemoglobin (binds globin, not haem) | ~23 |
| Dissolved | ~7 |
Blood components
- RBCs: biconcave, no nucleus, no mitochondria (anaerobic), ~120-day life, 4–6 million µL⁻¹; erythropoietin from kidney
- WBCs: neutrophils (phagocytes, first to arrive), monocytes → macrophages, lymphocytes (B, T, NK), eosinophils (parasites), basophils (histamine, heparin)
- Platelets: no nucleus; clotting
- Plasma: ions, albumin (buffer, osmotic), antibodies, fibrinogen; pH 7.4; serum = plasma without clotting factors
Heparin prevents prothrombin → thrombin and fibrinogen → fibrin. Vitamin K and Ca²⁺ are needed for clotting.
ABO groups
| Group | Antigen on RBC | Antibody in plasma |
|---|---|---|
| A | A | anti-B |
| B | B | anti-A |
| AB | A + B | none (universal recipient) |
| O | none | anti-A + anti-B (universal donor) |
Anti-B is present in groups A and O.
Rhesus
- Rh⁺ = has Rh antigen on RBCs
- Rh⁻ people make anti-Rh antibodies only after exposure
- Rh⁻ mother, Rh⁺ first baby: sensitised at delivery; second Rh⁺ fetus: antibodies cross the placenta and destroy fetal RBCs
- B Rh⁺ can safely receive B or O, Rh⁺ or Rh⁻
Gas exchange
Past-paper questions (16)
- 2026 P1 Q22 — Human breathing
- 2025 P1 Q21 — Human lungs
- 2024 P1 Q22 — Control of breathing
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q21 — CO2 transport forms
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q22 — Vital capacity calculation
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q21 — Homeostatic control of breathing
- 2020 P1 Q23 — Lung capacities calculation
- 2019 (New) P1 Q43 — Respiratory pigments
- 2019 (New) P1 Q44 — Effects of smoking
- 2019 (New) P2 Q7a — Ventilation of lungs
- 2019 (New) P2 Q7b — Control of breathing
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q43 — Brain control of breathing
- 2018 P1 Q11 — Regulation of breathing
- 2018 P2 Q2A — Alimentary canals, radula, insectivorous plants, airway
- 2017 P1 Q13 — Inspiration mechanics
- 2016 P1 Q12 — Human respiratory system
Respiratory surfaces
- Needed because surface area to volume ratio falls as size increases. Animals with high SA:V (e.g. 8.3 cm⁻¹) can rely on the body surface
- Properties: moist, thin, permeable, large area, good blood supply
- Body surface: cnidarians, flatworms, earthworms
- External gills: marine annelids. Internal gills: fish, prawns
- Tracheae: insects. Book lungs: spiders, scorpions
- Lungs: reptiles, birds, mammals. Skin: amphibians
Human airway
Lungs
- Right lung 3 lobes; left lung 2 lobes and slightly smaller (heart apex)
- Visceral pleura (inner, on lung) and parietal pleura (outer, on thoracic wall) with fluid between
- Mucus escalator: goblet-cell mucus traps dust; cilia sweep it up to the pharynx to be swallowed
- Alveoli: single flattened, non-ciliated cells; moisture film; macrophages; surfactant lowers surface tension and prevents collapse
Ventilation (negative-pressure breathing)
| Inspiration (active) | Expiration (normally passive) |
|---|---|
| External intercostals and diaphragm contract; ribs up and out, sternum forward | Muscles relax |
| Thoracic volume ↑ → lung pressure ↓ below atmosphere | Volume ↓ → pressure ↑ → air out |
Exercise recruits neck, back and chest muscles. The first pair of ribs is fixed to the sternum (manubrium) and barely moves.
Control of breathing (negative feedback)
O₂ has little effect unless very low (aortic and carotid sensors). Stretch receptors in lungs stop over-inflation. The pons modulates rhythm.
Lung volumes
| Tidal volume (TV) | ~500 mL |
| Residual volume (RV) | ~1200 mL |
| IC = TV + IRV | |
| FRC = RV + ERV | |
| VC = TV + IRV + ERV | ♀ ~3100, ♂ ~4800 mL |
| TLC = VC + RV | ~6000 mL |
| Anatomical dead space | ~150 mL |
TV 500, RV 1200, IRV 3100, ERV 1100 → VC = 4700 mL. TLC − VC = RV.
Smoking
- Nicotine: addictive; ↑ heart rate; vasoconstriction; temporary ↑ BP
- ↑ goblet-cell mucus; paralyses cilia (hydrogen cyanide) → bronchitis
- Phagocyte enzymes destroy alveoli (emphysema), so less gas-exchange area
- CO binds Hb irreversibly, so less O₂ carried
- Carcinogens: ~90% of lung cancers
Occupational and other disorders
- Silicosis: silica (quarrying, mining, masonry, glass, pottery) → fibrosis
- Asbestosis: asbestos fibres → fibrosis, pulmonary hypertension
- TB: Mycobacterium tuberculosis, airborne; weight loss, sweats, fever, cough, blood in sputum
- Asthma: bronchiolar smooth muscle contracts (immune over-reaction to pollen, dust, mites, cold air)
Immunity
Past-paper questions (14)
- 2026 P1 Q23 — Human immunity
- 2025 P1 Q37 — Vaccine types (measles, cholera)
- 2025 P1 Q45 — Leucocytes
- 2025 P2 Q7a — Natural killer cells
- 2025 P2 Q7b — Active immunity
- 2024 P1 Q36 — Chickenpox vaccine
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q23 — Antibodies
- 2022 (2023) P2 Q6b — Vaccines for microbial diseases
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q22 — B lymphocytes
- 2021 (2022) P2 Q8 — Innate immunity
- 2020 P1 Q44 — Antibodies
- 2019 (New) P1 Q22 — Innate immunity cells
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q14 — White blood cells
- 2016 P1 Q38 — GM hepatitis B vaccine
Innate (non-specific, vertebrates and invertebrates)
External barriers
- Keratinised skin; shedding
- Mucous membranes; mucus; cilia; coughing and sneezing
- Tears, saliva, mucus (washing); lysozyme
- Gastric acid; acidic skin (sweat and sebaceous secretions)
Internal defences
- Phagocytes: neutrophils (first), macrophages (larger)
- Natural killer cells: lymphocytes that release chemicals to kill virus-infected and cancer cells (no engulfing)
- Antimicrobial proteins: interferons (from virus-infected cells; neighbours make antiviral proteins), complement (cascade → lysis, phagocytosis, inflammation)
- Inflammation: mast cells release histamine → vasodilation (redness, heat) + permeability (swelling) → phagocytes and cytokines; pain; pus; fever if systemic
Acquired (specific, vertebrates only)
- Specificity, self/non-self recognition, memory
- B and T cells both arise in bone marrow; T cells mature in the thymus, B cells in bone marrow
- Antigen receptors on membrane (~100,000 per cell)
- Antigen: provokes a response. Epitope: small part bound by a receptor; one antigen has several epitopes
- T cells recognise antigen fragments only on antigen-presenting cells (macrophages, dendritic cells, B cells); B cells bind free antigen
| Cell-mediated | Humoral (antibody-mediated) | |
|---|---|---|
| Cells | T cells → cytotoxic T + memory T | B cells → plasma cells (antibodies) + memory B |
| Targets | Infected cells (viruses, fungi, parasites inside cells), cancer, transplants | Antigens and pathogens in body fluids (mainly extracellular bacteria, toxins) |
| Helper T cells | Activate cytotoxic T cells and B cells | |
Antibodies (immunoglobulins)
- Proteins secreted by plasma cells
- Same Y shape as B-cell receptors, but soluble
- Neutralise, mark for destruction, activate complement and phagocytosis; do not kill directly
Types of acquired immunity
| Natural | Artificial | |
|---|---|---|
| Active (memory, long-lasting) | Infection (chickenpox) | Vaccination (BCG, oral polio: live attenuated) |
| Passive (immediate, short, no memory) | Placenta; colostrum and breast milk | Immunoglobulin injections, antiserum, antivenom, anti-tetanus Ig |
Disorders
- Allergy: allergen → antibodies on mast cells → histamine release on re-exposure (sneezing, bronchoconstriction, anaphylaxis)
- Autoimmune: attack on self. Type 1 diabetes (T cells destroy β cells), multiple sclerosis (T cells attack myelin), rheumatoid arthritis (antibodies attack joint lining)
- Immunodeficiency: inborn or acquired (drugs, HIV/AIDS)
Osmoregulation and excretion
Past-paper questions (30)
- 2026 P1 Q24 — Aldosterone/angiotensin/ADH
- 2026 P2 Q3A — N-excretion, nervous systems, pons, receptors, hormones
- 2025 P1 Q22 — Nephron segment–process
- 2025 P1 Q25 — ADH and blood osmolarity
- 2024 P1 Q23 — Human kidney functions
- 2024 P2 Q3A — Lung capacity, APCs, N-excretion, nephron, CKD, nervous systems
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q45 — Nitrogenous excretory products
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q44 — Nitrogenous excretory products
- 2022 (2023) P2 Q8a — Nephron diagram
- 2022 (2023) P2 Q8b — Urine formation
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q23 — Excretory structures of invertebrates
- 2021 (2022) P2 Q3A — Hydroskeleton, skull, vertebrae, salt glands, nephron, helper T
- 2020 P1 Q24 — Malpighian tubules
- 2020 P2 Q3A — Interferons, nephron capillaries, dialysis, coordination
- 2019 (New) P1 Q23 — Nitrogenous excretory products
- 2019 (New) P2 Q3A — Immunity types, nephrons, urinary disorders, brain parts
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q20 — ADH
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q21 — Ultrafiltration
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q45 — Nitrogenous wastes compared
- 2019 (Old) P2 Q8a — Nephron structure
- 2019 (Old) P2 Q8b — Urine formation
- 2018 P1 Q21 — Excretion in animals
- 2018 P1 Q47 — PCT reabsorption
- 2018 P2 Q2B — Ultrafiltration, kidney, thermoreceptors, liver
- 2017 P1 Q22 — Excretion
- 2017 P1 Q44 — Normal urine composition
- 2017 P2 Q2A — Intestine histology, HCl, kidney hormones, renal calculi
- 2016 P1 Q20 — Excretion
- 2016 P1 Q46 — Factors affecting urine output
- 2016 P2 Q6 — Kidney, nephron & osmoregulation
Nitrogenous wastes
| Ammonia | Urea | Uric acid | |
|---|---|---|---|
| Toxicity | Highest | Lower | Least |
| Water needed | Most | Moderate | Least (semi-solid) |
| Energy to make | Lowest | More | Most |
| Animals | Bony fish, many aquatic invertebrates, tadpoles | Mammals, adult amphibians, sharks (osmoregulation) | Birds, many reptiles, land snails, insects |
Excretory products depend on the substrate, enzymes, O₂ availability and habitat. Defecation is not excretion.
Excretory structures
| Body surface | Cnidarians |
| Flame cells (protonephridia) | Flatworms |
| Nephridia (open to coelom internally) | Annelids |
| Malpighian tubules (open into gut) | Insects |
| Green (antennal) glands | Crustaceans |
| Salt glands (near eyes) | Marine birds and reptiles |
| Sweat glands | Human skin |
| Kidneys | All vertebrates |
Kidney and nephron
- Posterior abdominal wall, behind peritoneum; right kidney slightly lower
- Renal artery from aorta; renal vein to IVC
- Cortex (granular, glomeruli), medulla (pyramids), pelvis → ureter
- Nephrons: cortical (majority) and juxtamedullary (deep loops)
- Afferent arteriole wider than efferent, so high glomerular pressure
- Efferent arteriole → peritubular capillaries (around convoluted tubules) and vasa recta (around loop)
Urine formation
Hormones and homeostasis
- ADH (hypothalamus, released from posterior pituitary): blood osmolarity ↑ → ADH ↑ → DCT and collecting duct more permeable → less, concentrated urine
- Aldosterone (adrenal cortex): ↑ Na⁺ and water reabsorption, ↑ K⁺ excretion; driven by renin → angiotensin (↑ BP)
- Kidney roles: water and electrolyte balance, excretion, pH, blood volume and pressure, erythropoietin, renin
Disorders
- Renal calculi (oxalates, phosphates): dehydration, alkaline urine, infection, metabolism, family history; prevent by drinking water
- Kidney failure / CKD: diabetes, hypertension, family history, age; prevent with low-salt, low-fat diet, exercise, check-ups, no smoking
- Dialysis: artificial removal of wastes, solutes and toxins
- CKDu (Sri Lanka: NCP, Uva, Eastern and other provinces): suspected As, Cd, fluoride, pesticides, poor utensils, genetics, dehydration
Coordination and the nervous system
Past-paper questions (36)
- 2026 P1 Q25 — Neurotransmitter & schizophrenia
- 2026 P1 Q44 — Hypothalamus functions
- 2025 P1 Q23 — Sympathetic nervous system
- 2025 P1 Q46 — Cerebral association areas
- 2025 P2 Q8a — Synapse & chemical transmission
- 2025 P2 Q8b — Parkinson disease
- 2025 P2 Q3A — Excretion, coordination, PNS, brain, receptors, eye
- 2024 P1 Q24 — Synaptic transmission (Ca2+)
- 2024 P1 Q45 — Brain structure–function
- 2024 P2 Q3B — Cerebrum, reflex arc, retina, hearing, hypothyroidism, uterine cycle
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q23 — Parasympathetic effects
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q46 — Human brain structure
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q24 — Cardiovascular centre
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q25 — Parasympathetic actions
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q24 — Human brain
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q25 — Action potential sequence
- 2021 (2022) P2 Q2C — Dead space, nervous vs endocrine, cortex, ANS, vision
- 2020 P1 Q25 — Brain part–function
- 2020 P1 Q27 — Sympathetic effects
- 2020 P2 Q3B — Brain ventricles, spinal cord, refractory period, Parkinson's
- 2019 (New) P1 Q24 — Cerebellum function
- 2019 (New) P1 Q45 — Resting membrane potential
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q17 — Spinal nerves
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q18 — Autonomic nervous system
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q44 — Medulla oblongata
- 2019 (Old) P2 Q2C — Neurone, resting potential, brain, vision, ear, thyroid
- 2018 P1 Q15 — Pons Varolii
- 2018 P1 Q17 — Parasympathetic effects
- 2018 P1 Q18 — Action potential
- 2017 P1 Q18 — Human brain
- 2017 P1 Q19 — Neurone physiology
- 2017 P2 Q2B — Neurones, impulses, hypothalamus, trophic hormones
- 2016 P1 Q18 — Human brain
- 2016 P1 Q19 — Action potential
- 2016 P1 Q45 — Sodium–potassium pump
- 2016 P2 Q2C — Nervous system, receptors
Nervous vs hormonal coordination
| Nervous | Hormonal | |
|---|---|---|
| Transmission | Neurones | Blood |
| Signal | Electrical + chemical | Chemical |
| Response | Localised | Diffuse |
| Onset | Fast | Slower |
| Duration | Short | Long |
Shared: both use chemical signals and coordinate responses for homeostasis.
Nervous organisation in phyla
| Cnidaria | Diffuse nerve net |
| Platyhelminthes | Anterior ganglia ("brain") + longitudinal nerve cords; eyespots |
| Annelida, Arthropoda | Brain + ventral nerve cord with segmental ganglia |
| Echinodermata | Nerve ring + radial nerves |
| Chordata | Brain + dorsal spinal cord (CNS) + PNS |
CNS protection
- Skull and vertebrae
- Meninges: dura mater (outer), arachnoid, pia mater (inner)
- CSF in 4 ventricles (3 in forebrain, 1 in hindbrain) and central canal: uniform pressure, shock absorber, nutrients and wastes
| Brain part (embryonic origin) | Functions |
|---|---|
| Cerebrum (forebrain) | Grey matter cortex, white matter inside; hemispheres joined by corpus callosum; 4 lobes (frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital). Sensory areas (pain, temperature, touch, sight, hearing, taste, smell); association areas (recognition and interpretation; memory, intelligence, reasoning, judgement, emotion); motor areas (voluntary skeletal muscle) |
| Thalamus (forebrain) | Main sensory input centre; sorts and relays to the cortex |
| Hypothalamus (forebrain) | Body temperature, thirst and water balance, sleep–wake cycles, autonomic control, fight-or-flight, makes posterior pituitary hormones and releasing hormones, sexual behaviour; linked to posterior pituitary by nerves, to anterior by portal vessels |
| Pineal body (forebrain) | Melatonin |
| Midbrain | Relay; integrates visual and auditory information; visual and auditory reflexes |
| Pons Varolii (hindbrain) | Bridge between cerebellar hemispheres; relay; large-scale movements (running, climbing); with medulla regulates respiration |
| Medulla oblongata (hindbrain) | Cardiovascular and respiratory centres; reflexes (vomiting, swallowing, coughing, sneezing); relay |
| Cerebellum (hindbrain) | Coordinates voluntary movement; posture and balance; motor learning |
Brain stem = midbrain + pons + medulla. Spinal cord: central canal, grey matter inside (H-shaped), white outside; links CNS with body; reflex centre.
Peripheral nervous system
- Cranial and spinal nerves + autonomic ganglia
- Afferent (sensory) → CNS → efferent (motor)
- Spinal nerves carry axons of both sensory and motor neurones
- Somatic (motor) system: skeletal muscle, voluntary
- Autonomic: smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, glands
Sympathetic vs parasympathetic
| Organ | Sympathetic ("fight or flight") | Parasympathetic ("rest and digest") |
|---|---|---|
| Pupil | Dilates | Constricts |
| Saliva | Inhibits | Stimulates |
| Heart | Accelerates | Slows |
| Bronchi | Relax (dilate) | Constrict |
| Digestion, pancreas, gall bladder | Inhibits | Stimulates |
| Liver | Glucose release | Glycogen storage |
| Adrenal medulla | Stimulates | – |
| Bladder | Inhibits emptying | Promotes emptying |
| Genitalia | Ejaculation | Erection |
Sympathetic nerves leave the spinal cord only and release noradrenaline. Parasympathetic nerves leave brain and sacral cord and release acetylcholine.
Resting potential (≈ −70 mV)
- Unequal ion distribution: K⁺ high inside, Na⁺ high outside; Cl⁻ and large anions inside
- More K⁺ channels than Na⁺ channels open
- Na⁺/K⁺ pump (ATP): 3 Na⁺ out for every 2 K⁺ in
Action potential
Duration ~2 ms. Speed ↑ with axon diameter and myelin (saltatory conduction between nodes of Ranvier).
Chemical synapse
Transmitters: acetylcholine (motor neurones), biogenic amines (noradrenaline, dopamine, serotonin), amino acids, neuropeptides.
Reflex arc
Disorders
| Schizophrenia | Distorted reality, hallucinated voices; dopamine pathways |
| Depression | Neurotransmitter, genetic, social factors |
| Alzheimer's | Dementia; confusion and memory loss; cortical neurone degeneration |
| Parkinson's | Progressive motor disorder: slowness, tremor, poor balance; loss of dopamine neurones (midbrain, basal ganglia) |
| Multiple sclerosis | Autoimmune attack on myelin |
Sense organs and skin
Past-paper questions (12)
- 2026 P1 Q26 — Eustachian tube
- 2025 P1 Q24 — Endolymph in ear
- 2024 P1 Q25 — Skin mechanoreceptors
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q24 — Human vision
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q26 — Sensory receptors
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q44 — Sensory receptors
- 2020 P1 Q26 — Retina cell layers
- 2020 P2 Q7a — Structure of eye
- 2020 P2 Q7b — Eye & brain in vision
- 2019 (New) P1 Q25 — Visual pathway
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q19 — Sensory receptors
- 2018 P1 Q16 — Human ear
Sensory receptors
- Specialised cell, organ or subcellular structure; always connected to the nervous system
- Respond at or above threshold; transduce stimulus to membrane potential
- Amplification and sensory adaptation (e.g. smell fades)
- Detect both external and internal stimuli
| Chemo- | Taste buds (modified epithelial cells; 5 tastes incl. umami), olfactory cells (neurones), CO₂ sensors |
| Thermo- | Krause end bulbs (cold), Ruffini (warmth), free nerve endings (both); hypothalamic neurones |
| Photo- | Rods, cones |
| Mechano- | Meissner (light pressure), Merkel discs (light touch), free endings (near surface); Pacinian (deep pressure); hair cells of ear |
| Pain | Free nerve endings |
Eye structure
| Fibrous layer | Sclera (shape, muscle attachment), cornea (avascular, refracts) |
| Vascular layer | Choroid (pigmented, blood-rich; absorbs stray light), ciliary body (ciliary muscle; suspensory ligaments; secretes aqueous humour), iris (circular + radial muscles; pupil) |
| Nervous layer | Retina: pigmented epithelium → photoreceptors → bipolar → ganglion cells (choroid side → vitreous side); fovea (cones only); blind spot |
Rods: rhodopsin, sensitive, night vision, no colour. Cones: photopsin, three types (red, green, blue), colour, need bright light.
Vision
- Accommodation (near): ciliary muscle contracts → ligaments slacken → lens more convex (parasympathetic)
- Distant: ciliary muscle relaxes → lens flatter
- Pupil constricts in bright light and for near vision; convergence for near objects
- Binocular vision: overlapping fields fused in occipital lobe → 3-D, judging speed and distance
- Blocked aqueous drainage → glaucoma
Ear
- Outer: pinna, auditory canal (wax), tympanic membrane
- Middle (air, temporal bone): malleus → incus → stapes (on oval window); round window; Eustachian tube to pharynx equalises pressure
- Inner: vestibule (utricle, saccule), 3 semicircular canals, cochlea
- Cochlea: vestibular canal and tympanic canal (perilymph) + cochlear duct (endolymph) with basilar membrane and organ of Corti; tectorial membrane
Hearing and balance
Utricle and saccule (otoliths of CaCO₃) sense gravity, tilt and linear movement. Semicircular canals sense angular movement. Endolymph-filled: cochlear duct, utricle, saccule (membranous labyrinth).
Skin
- Epidermis: keratinised stratified squamous; germinative layer; melanocytes (melanin vs UV); no blood vessels
- Dermis: areolar tissue, collagen and elastic fibres; hair, arrector pili, sweat and sebaceous glands, blood vessels, receptors
- Subcutaneous layer: adipose + areolar
- Functions: protection, temperature regulation, sensation, vitamin D synthesis, minor excretion (NaCl, urea)
Endocrine system
Past-paper questions (13)
- 2026 P1 Q27 — Hypothyroidism symptoms
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q25 — Hormone–function
- 2023 (2024) P2 Q8b — Type 1 diabetes
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q27 — Non-tropic pituitary hormone
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q26 — Hormone–function
- 2020 P1 Q28 — Tropic & non-tropic hormone (GH)
- 2019 (New) P1 Q26 — Hormone–function
- 2019 (New) P2 Q3B — Receptors, ear, tropic hormones, positive feedback, type 2 diabetes
- 2018 P1 Q19 — Human hormones
- 2018 P2 Q2C — Resting potential, hormones, nervous vs endocrine, sinuses
- 2017 P1 Q20 — Calcitonin
- 2017 P1 Q21 — Human hormones
- 2016 P1 Q17 — Growth hormone
Ductless glands secrete hormones into blood; only target cells with matching receptors respond. Endocrine control is slower but more precise than nervous control.
| Gland | Hormone | Main action |
|---|---|---|
| Hypothalamus | Releasing hormones: GHRH, TRH, CRH, GnRH, PRH; inhibiting: PIH, GHIH | Control anterior pituitary (via portal vessels) |
| Makes ADH and oxytocin (stored and released by posterior pituitary) | See posterior pituitary | |
| Anterior pituitary | GH | Growth (bone, muscle) by protein synthesis; ↑ blood glucose; tropic and non-tropic effects |
| TSH (tropic) | Thyroid hormone secretion; thyroid growth | |
| ACTH (tropic) | Adrenal cortex hormones (glucocorticoids) | |
| FSH, LH (tropic, gonadotropins) | Follicle growth, ovulation, corpus luteum; Sertoli cells (FSH); Leydig cells → testosterone (LH) | |
| Prolactin (non-tropic only) | Milk production | |
| Posterior pituitary | ADH | Water reabsorption in DCT and collecting duct |
| Oxytocin | Uterine contraction (birth); milk ejection | |
| Thyroid (follicular cells) | T3, T4 | ↑ BMR and heat; metabolism; growth of skeleton and nervous system; BP, heart rate |
| Calcitonin | Lowers blood Ca²⁺: bone storage, less kidney reabsorption | |
| Parathyroids (4) | PTH | Raises blood Ca²⁺: targets kidney tubules, small intestine, bone |
| Thymus | Thymosin | T-lymphocyte maturation |
| Pineal | Melatonin | Biological (circadian) rhythms; inhibits sex-organ development before puberty |
| Adrenal cortex | Cortisol (glucocorticoid); aldosterone (mineralocorticoid) | Long-term stress: gluconeogenesis from protein and fat. Aldosterone: Na⁺ in, K⁺ out, ↑ blood volume and pressure |
| Adrenal medulla | Adrenaline, noradrenaline | Short-term stress (fight-or-flight); ↑ heart rate, BP, glycogen breakdown |
| Islets of Langerhans | Glucagon (α cells), insulin (β cells) | Raise / lower blood glucose |
| Ovary | Oestrogen (follicle), progesterone (corpus luteum), inhibin | Cycles, pregnancy, female characteristics; inhibin ↓ FSH |
| Testis | Testosterone (Leydig), inhibin (Sertoli) | Spermatogenesis; male characteristics |
| Gut, kidney | Gastrin, secretin, CCK; erythropoietin | Digestion; RBC production |
Feedback
- Negative (most): response reduces stimulus (insulin and glucose)
- Positive: oxytocin in labour (cervix stretch → more oxytocin) and in milk ejection (suckling → oxytocin → milk → more suckling); oestradiol → LH surge
Disorders
| Type 1 diabetes | Autoimmune destruction of β cells; young; insulin injections, diet, monitoring |
| Type 2 diabetes | Insulin present but cells don't take up glucose; obesity, inactivity, age, genetics |
| Hyperthyroidism | ↑ BMR, weight loss, warm sweaty skin, diarrhoea, exophthalmos, goitre |
| Hypothyroidism | ↓ BMR, weight gain, lethargy, cold dry skin, constipation; lack of TSH or iodine |
Homeostasis and the liver
Past-paper questions (7)
- 2026 P2 Q8a — Liver lobule histology
- 2026 P2 Q8b — Liver in homeostasis
- 2024 P1 Q26 — Thermoregulation response to cold
- 2023 (2024) P2 Q8a — Blood glucose regulation
- 2019 (New) P2 Q10b — Energy budget of animals
- 2017 P1 Q43 — Blood glucose regulation
- 2016 P2 Q2A — Homeostasis, liver, positive feedback
Body temperature (36.5–37.5 °C)
| Too hot | Too cold |
|---|---|
| Skin warm receptors + hypothalamic sensors → hypothalamic "thermostat" | Cold receptors + hypothalamic sensors |
| Skin arterioles dilate; sweating | Arterioles constrict; shivering; hair erector muscles contract; ↑ thyroxine and adrenaline → ↑ metabolism |
Blood glucose (70–110 mg/100 mL fasting)
| High glucose → insulin (β) | Low glucose → glucagon (α) |
|---|---|
| Cells take up and use glucose; glycogen made in liver and muscle; fat stored | Glycogen broken down in liver; glucose released |
Osmoregulation
Hypothalamic osmoreceptors detect ↑ osmolarity → thirst + ADH release (posterior pituitary) → more water reabsorbed → concentrated urine. Low volume or Na⁺ → angiotensin II → aldosterone → Na⁺ and water retained.
Liver in homeostasis
- Carbohydrate metabolism (glycogen ↔ glucose)
- Fat metabolism for energy
- Deamination (amino group → urea) and transamination (non-essential amino acids)
- Plasma proteins (albumin, globulins)
- RBC breakdown; Kupffer-cell defence
- Detoxification of drugs and toxins
- Major heat producer
- Stores glycogen, vitamins A, D, E, K, B12, iron, copper
- Hormone inactivation
- Bile (fat emulsification; bilirubin excretion)
Reproduction and development
Past-paper questions (54)
- 2026 P1 Q28 — ICSI sequence
- 2026 P1 Q29 — Testosterone feedback
- 2026 P1 Q45 — Fetal membranes
- 2026 P2 Q3B — Positive feedback, sperm pathway, FSH/LH, blastocyst
- 2025 P1 Q26 — Menstrual/ovarian cycle
- 2025 P1 Q27 — Yolk sac functions
- 2025 P1 Q47 — Human sperm
- 2025 P2 Q3B — Parathyroid, parthenogenesis, spermatogenesis, ovary, lactation
- 2024 P1 Q27 — Asexual reproduction in animals
- 2024 P1 Q28 — Male accessory glands
- 2024 P1 Q46 — Oogenesis
- 2024 P2 Q8a — Fetal changes in 2nd/3rd trimester
- 2024 P2 Q8b — Reproductive technology for infertility
- 2024 P2 Q3C — Uterine hormones, allantois, STI, Ca2+ in sarcomere, skull, gene
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q26 — Spermatogenesis
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q27 — Early human development
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q47 — Fetal membrane (amnion)
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q28 — Sperm storage
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q29 — Female reproductive cycle
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q30 — Breast milk
- 2022 (2023) P2 Q9a — Sperm structure
- 2022 (2023) P2 Q9b — Hormonal control of spermatogenesis
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q27 — Oocyte arrest at metaphase II
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q28 — Amnion
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q45 — Leydig cells
- 2021 (2022) P2 Q3B — Type 1 diabetes, oxytocin feedback, spermatogenesis, ovarian hormones
- 2020 P1 Q29 — Asexual reproduction in animals
- 2020 P1 Q45 — Diploid cells in testis
- 2020 P2 Q8 — Menstrual cycle & hormones
- 2020 P2 Q3C — Sertoli cells, prenatal diagnosis, fetal circulation, skeleton
- 2019 (New) P1 Q27 — Spermatogenesis meiosis stage
- 2019 (New) P1 Q28 — Ovarian/pituitary hormone graph
- 2019 (New) P1 Q46 — Parthenogenesis
- 2019 (New) P2 Q10c — Fetal membranes
- 2019 (New) P2 Q3C — Testes, sperm path, ovary, pregnancy tests, ART, skeleton, sarcomere
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q26 — Modes of asexual reproduction
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q27 — Sperm maturation site
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q46 — Female reproductive cycle
- 2019 (Old) P2 Q3B — Asexual vs sexual, semen, ovary, pregnancy, STD
- 2018 P1 Q22 — Composition of human milk
- 2018 P1 Q25 — Inhibin secretion
- 2018 P1 Q49 — Human uterus
- 2018 P2 Q4A — Placenta, lactation, menopause
- 2017 P1 Q24 — Menstrual cycle
- 2017 P1 Q25 — Fallopian tube
- 2017 P1 Q26 — Epididymis
- 2017 P1 Q27 — Fetal development & infant growth
- 2017 P2 Q7 — Human testes & spermatogenesis
- 2017 P2 Q3C — Gametes, inhibin, acrosome, ovulation, hormones
- 2016 P1 Q25 — Male reproduction
- 2016 P1 Q26 — Unpaired reproductive structure
- 2016 P1 Q47 — Human placenta
- 2016 P1 Q48 — Human uterus
- 2016 P2 Q2B — Lactation & breast milk
Asexual reproduction in animals
- Mitosis only; rapid; no mate needed; identical offspring; good in stable environments; risky when conditions change
- Budding: Hydra
- Fragmentation and regeneration: some annelids, sponges, cnidarians, flatworms
- Parthenogenesis: bees, ants, aphids, wasps; rarely some lizards and fish. Honey-bee drones are haploid parthenogenetic males; queens and workers come from fertilised eggs
Sexual reproduction
- Hermaphrodite (earthworm) vs dioecious
- External fertilisation: water needed (many invertebrates, amphibians, most bony fish)
- Internal: insects, reptiles, birds, mammals; fewer gametes, higher zygote survival, more protection
- Variation gives an advantage when conditions change
Male system
- Testes in scrotum, ~2 °C below core temperature
- Seminiferous tubules: Sertoli cells (nourish and attach developing sperm; inhibin). Leydig cells between tubules (testosterone)
- Epididymis (~6 m, ~3 weeks): sperm mature, become motile and are stored
- Pathway: seminiferous tubules → epididymis → vas deferens → ejaculatory duct → urethra
- Semen 2–5 mL; 40–100 million sperm per mL; sperm <10% of volume; sperm survive 48–72 h
Accessory glands
| Gland | Secretion |
|---|---|
| Seminal vesicles (~60%) | Thick, alkaline, mucus, fructose (energy), coagulating enzyme, vitamin C, prostaglandins |
| Prostate (~30%) | Thin, milky; coagulants, anticoagulant enzymes, citrate |
| Bulbourethral (Cowper's) | Clear alkaline mucus; neutralises urine acid; lubricates |
Spermatogenesis (~7 weeks; from puberty)
Sperm: head (nucleus + acrosome with trypsin and hyaluronidase), midpiece (mitochondria), tail (9+2 flagellum). Diploid cells in testis: spermatogonia, primary spermatocytes, Leydig and Sertoli cells.
Male hormonal control
Female system
- Ovary: cortex (follicles at various stages; germinal epithelium) and medulla
- Oviduct: ciliated; fertilisation in the upper part
- Uterus: muscular; vascular endometrium; cervix
- Vagina: muscular, elastic, stratified epithelium
Oogenesis
Ruptured follicle → corpus luteum (oestradiol + progesterone) → corpus albicans if no pregnancy. Primordial germ cells come from the yolk sac.
| Ovarian cycle | Hormones | Uterine cycle |
|---|---|---|
| Follicular phase: FSH (+LH) grows follicles | Rising oestradiol; low levels inhibit FSH and LH (negative feedback); high oestradiol → GnRH ↑ → LH surge (positive feedback) | Menstrual flow (days 1–5) then proliferative phase: oestradiol thickens endometrium |
| Ovulation ~day 14, a day after LH peak | LH (+FSH) peak | – |
| Luteal phase: LH forms corpus luteum | Progesterone + oestradiol; negative feedback keeps FSH and LH low | Secretory phase: arteries enlarge, glands secrete; ready for implantation |
| No pregnancy: corpus luteum degenerates | Hormones fall; FSH rises again | Arteries constrict; lining sheds (menstruation) |
Menopause: 45–55 years; oocytes run out, ovaries stop responding to FSH and LH.
Early development
Extra-embryonic membranes
| Chorion | Main fetal part of placenta; protects from maternal immune responses; produces hCG |
| Amnion | Fluid-filled sac; shock absorber; prevents desiccation |
| Yolk sac | Early blood cells; source of primordial germ cells |
| Allantois | Early blood formation; development of urinary bladder |
Placenta and pregnancy
- Fetal chorionic villi + maternal endometrium; blood does not mix
- Exchange; immune protection; hormones (hCG, progesterone, oestrogen)
- Umbilical cord: 2 arteries (O₂-poor, to placenta), 1 vein (O₂-rich, to fetus)
- ~38 weeks from fertilisation (40 from last period); embryo for the first 8 weeks, then fetus
- T1: organogenesis; heart beats by week 4 (detectable at 8–10 weeks); hCG pregnancy test; morning sickness
- T2: hCG falls, placenta takes over progesterone; fetus ~30 cm, movements felt
- T3: rapid growth to ~50 cm, 3–4 kg
Birth and lactation
- Labour: prostaglandins, oestradiol, oxytocin (positive feedback); stages: cervical dilation → delivery of baby → delivery of placenta
- Prolactin (milk synthesis) after oestradiol and progesterone fall; oxytocin ejection via suckling (positive feedback)
- Colostrum: less lactose, no fat, rich in antibodies
- Breast milk: lactose, fatty acids, casein, lactalbumin, antibodies, WBCs, lower Na⁺ than cow's milk; fewer allergies; bonding
Birth control
| Combined pill | Synthetic oestrogen + progesterone → ↓ GnRH, FSH, LH → no ovulation |
| Progestin-only / Depo-Provera | Thickens cervical mucus; thins endometrium (no implantation) |
| IUD | Interferes with fertilisation and implantation |
| Condom | Barrier |
| Vasectomy; tubal ligation | Permanent |
| Non-surgical abortion (<7 weeks) | Drugs block progesterone receptors |
Prenatal diagnosis and ART
- Ultrasound; amniocentesis; chorionic villus sampling; fetal DNA in maternal blood
- Infertility treatments: hormone therapy; surgery; ART
- IVF: oocytes + 50,000–100,000 sperm per oocyte in the lab → culture to ≥8 cells → transfer to uterus
- ICSI: a single selected sperm (or spermatid nucleus) injected into the oocyte cytoplasm → transfer; for male infertility
Skeleton, muscle and movement
Past-paper questions (31)
- 2026 P1 Q30 — Human vertebrae
- 2026 P1 Q31 — Hinge joint movement
- 2026 P2 Q3C — Skeletal functions, vertebral curves, codominance, pleiotropy
- 2025 P1 Q28 — Vertebral column
- 2025 P1 Q29 — Appendicular skeleton & joints
- 2025 P2 Q3C — Hydroskeleton, cranium, sternum, osteoarthritis, cross-bridges, pedigree
- 2024 P1 Q29 — Vertebra identification
- 2024 P1 Q30 — Temporal bone processes
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q28 — Axial skeleton
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q29 — Bones of lower limb
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q31 — Cross-bridge cycle
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q45 — Human skeleton
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q29 — Vertebral curvatures
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q30 — Human skeleton & joints
- 2020 P1 Q30 — Human skull
- 2020 P1 Q46 — Vertebral column
- 2019 (New) P1 Q29 — Human skeleton & joints
- 2019 (New) P1 Q47 — Animal skeleton types
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q22 — Human skull
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q23 — Upper limb
- 2019 (Old) P2 Q3A — Hydroskeleton, skull, vertebral column, pelvis, muscle
- 2018 P1 Q23 — Human ribs
- 2018 P1 Q24 — Upper limb
- 2018 P1 Q48 — Skeletal muscle
- 2017 P1 Q23 — Human vertebrae
- 2017 P1 Q46 — Animal skeletons
- 2017 P2 Q10a — Human vertebral column
- 2017 P2 Q3A — CO2 transport, locomotion, muscle, limbs, hydroskeleton
- 2016 P1 Q22 — Skeletal muscle contraction
- 2016 P1 Q23 — Scapula
- 2016 P1 Q24 — Lower limb
Skeleton types
| Hydrostatic | Cnidarians (gastrovascular cavity); nematodes (pseudocoelom); annelids (coelom); antagonistic circular and longitudinal muscles. Disadvantage: little protection and poor support on land |
| Exoskeleton | Chitin (arthropods, moult); CaCO₃ (molluscs); bony plates (some reptiles) |
| Endoskeleton | CaCO₃ plates (echinoderms); bone and cartilage (chordates) |
Common functions: support, protection, movement. Human extras: Ca and phosphate storage and release; blood-cell production.
Moving through water and air
- Legs as oars (insects, tetrapods); jet propulsion (squid); side-to-side body and tail (fish); up-and-down undulation (whales)
- Fusiform shape reduces drag in water and air; wings act as aerofoils
Skull (21 bones: 8 cranial + 13 facial)
- Cranium (8): frontal, 2 parietal, occipital, 2 temporal, ethmoid, sphenoid
- Face: 2 zygomatic, maxilla, 2 nasal, 2 lacrimal, vomer, 2 palatine, 2 inferior conchae, mandible (only movable bone); the frontal also contributes to the face
- Fontanelles: soft areas allowing compression at birth; ossify in 1–2 years
- Sutures: immovable joints
- Sinuses (sphenoid, ethmoid, maxillary, frontal): voice resonance, lighter skull
- Mandible: condyloid process (temporomandibular joint), coronoid process (muscle attachment)
- Temporal bone: zygomatic, mastoid and styloid processes
- Zygomatic arch: zygomatic + temporal bones; muscle attachment for lower jaw
- Occipital condyles + atlas: nodding
Vertebral column: 26 bones
| Cervical | 7; small body; transverse foramina (vertebral artery); bifid spinous process. Atlas: ring, no body or spine (nodding). Axis: odontoid process (pivot, turns head) |
| Thoracic | 12; facets on body and transverse processes for ribs |
| Lumbar | 5; largest bodies; large spinous processes |
| Sacrum | 5 fused; foramina for nerves; articulates with pelvis |
| Coccyx | 4 fused |
24 separate vertebrae + sacrum + coccyx. Curvatures: primary (thoracic, sacral; concave anteriorly) and secondary (cervical ~3 months, lumbar ~7–8 months; convex anteriorly) maintain upright posture.
Thorax
- Sternum: manubrium (clavicles + first 2 rib pairs), body, xiphoid (diaphragm); red marrow
- 12 rib pairs: 7 true, 3 false (indirect), 2 floating
- First rib fixed, so it does not move in inspiration
Upright posture
- Secondary curvatures
- Vertebrae enlarge downwards
- Large fused sacrum
- Occipital condyles and foramen magnum centred under the skull
- Foot arches
Upper limb (30 bones per limb)
- Pectoral girdle: scapula + clavicle
- Humerus, radius, ulna, 8 carpals, 5 metacarpals, 14 phalanges
- Shoulder: shallow ball-and-socket (head of humerus in glenoid cavity of scapula): widest range
- Elbow: hinge (humerus with radius and ulna; two articular surfaces); flexion and extension only
- Wrist: radius + 3 proximal carpals; pronation and supination
- Metacarpal–phalangeal joints: power grip. Joint between carpal and first metacarpal: opposable thumb, precision grip
Lower limb (30 bones per limb)
- Pelvic girdle: 2 hip bones
- Femur (longest, strongest), tibia, fibula, patella, 7 tarsals, 5 metatarsals, 14 phalanges (excluding patella = 29)
- Hip: ball-and-socket in acetabulum; sturdy, bears weight when standing
- Knee: femur + tibia + patella; flexion, extension and a locking rotation for long standing
- Ankle: tibia and fibula with a tarsal
- Arches (2 longitudinal, 1 transverse) spread weight whether stationary or moving
Joints and disorders
| Ball and socket | Shoulder, hip |
| Hinge | Elbow, knee, ankle, phalanges |
| Pivot | Atlas around odontoid process of axis |
- Osteoporosis: ↓ bone density (menopause, low Ca)
- Osteoarthritis: degenerative, non-inflammatory; cartilage thins
- Slipped disc: disc core protrudes; may press on a nerve
Skeletal muscle structure
- Muscle → bundles → fibres (multinucleate cells) → myofibrils → sarcomeres (Z line to Z line)
- Thin (actin) and thick (myosin) filaments; A band (myosin length) stays constant; I band and H zone shorten
- Properties of all muscle: contractility, excitability, extensibility, elasticity
- Accepted model: sliding filament theory
Contraction
Cross-bridge order: ATP hydrolysed (high-energy head) → binds actin → power stroke (ADP, Pi released) → new ATP detaches.
Unit 5 — Model MCQs
Pick an answer to check it. Questions follow the past-paper style (five options, one correct).
5.1 Which enzyme is secreted in an inactive form and activated by enterokinase? Digestion & nutrition
5.2 The pacemaker of the human heart is the Circulation & blood
5.3 Vital capacity is equal to Gas exchange
5.4 Antibodies are produced by Immunity
5.5 Which hormone increases water reabsorption by the collecting duct? Excretion & osmoregulation
5.6 During the depolarisation phase of an action potential Nervous system
5.7 How many bones are there in the human skull according to the NIE text? Skeleton, muscle & movement
5.8 Ovulation is triggered by a surge of Reproduction & development
5.9 Which part of the eye contains only cones and gives the sharpest vision? Sense organs
5.10 Which hormone is NOT secreted by the anterior pituitary? Endocrine system
Unit 5 — Structured & essay practice
Essay (Q7/8 style) Describe the transmission of a nerve impulse along a myelinated neurone and across a cholinergic synapse.
Show marking points
- Resting potential ~ −70 mV: Na⁺/K⁺ pump, more K⁺ leak channels
- Stimulus → threshold → voltage-gated Na⁺ channels open → depolarisation (+40 mV)
- K⁺ channels open → repolarisation; hyperpolarisation; refractory period ensures one direction
- Saltatory conduction: impulse jumps node of Ranvier to node → faster
- Arrival at terminal: Ca²⁺ channels open, Ca²⁺ enters
- Vesicles fuse, release acetylcholine by exocytosis into cleft
- ACh binds receptors on post-synaptic membrane → Na⁺ channels open → EPSP
- Acetylcholinesterase hydrolyses ACh; choline recycled
- Synapses: one-way transmission, summation, integration
Structured Outline the formation of urine in a nephron.
Show marking points
- Ultrafiltration in Bowman's capsule: high pressure (afferent wider than efferent); podocytes, basement membrane
- Filtrate: water, glucose, amino acids, urea, salts; no cells/large proteins
- PCT: reabsorption of all glucose, amino acids, most Na⁺ and water (microvilli, mitochondria)
- Loop of Henle: counter-current multiplier, medullary hypertonicity
- DCT: secretion of H⁺, K⁺; aldosterone-controlled Na⁺ reabsorption
- Collecting duct: ADH-controlled water reabsorption → concentrated urine
Genetics
Calculation-driven. Practise ratios, pedigrees and Hardy–Weinberg until they are automatic. These are quick marks in Paper I.
Mendelian genetics: the foundations
Past-paper questions (12)
- 2026 P1 Q32 — Dihybrid test cross
- 2025 P2 Q10a — Mendelian human traits
- 2024 P1 Q32 — Trihybrid probability
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q30 — Genotypes from AaBb cross
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q31 — Monohybrid vs dihybrid cross
- 2020 P1 Q47 — Mendel's results
- 2019 (New) P1 Q31 — Monohybrid cross probabilities
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q31 — Test cross
- 2017 P1 Q32 — Homozygous genotype
- 2017 P2 Q4A — Test cross, back cross, pedigree charts
- 2016 P1 Q30 — Dihybrid F2 numbers
- 2016 P1 Q50 — Genetic terminology
Key terms
| Term | Meaning |
|---|---|
| Gene | Unit of heredity; a segment of DNA at a fixed locus |
| Allele | Alternative form of a gene at the same locus |
| Genotype / phenotype | Allele combination / observable trait (genotype + environment) |
| Homozygous / heterozygous | Identical alleles (true-breeding) / different alleles |
| Dominant / recessive | Expressed in heterozygote / masked in heterozygote |
| P, F1, F2 | Parental, first filial, second filial generations |
Why Mendel succeeded (garden pea, Pisum sativum)
- Short generation time, many seeds per cross
- Naturally self-pollinating, yet easy to cross artificially (emasculation)
- Seven clear-cut contrasting characters
- Started with true-breeding lines; studied one character at a time
- Large samples, counted offspring, applied statistics; kept careful records
Mendel's two laws
- Law of segregation: the two alleles of a gene separate during gamete formation, so each gamete carries one allele (basis: separation of homologues in anaphase I)
- Law of independent assortment: alleles of different genes segregate independently (basis: random orientation of bivalents in metaphase I) — true only for genes on different chromosomes or far apart
Cross ratios you must recognise instantly
| Cross | Phenotype ratio | Genotype ratio |
|---|---|---|
| Monohybrid Aa × Aa | 3 : 1 | 1 AA : 2 Aa : 1 aa |
| Test cross Aa × aa | 1 : 1 | 1 Aa : 1 aa |
| Dihybrid AaBb × AaBb | 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 | 9 genotypes (1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1) |
| Dihybrid test cross AaBb × aabb | 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 | 4 genotypes |
| Incomplete dominance Rr × Rr | 1 : 2 : 1 | same as phenotype |
| Dominant epistasis | 12 : 3 : 1 or 13 : 3 | — |
| Recessive epistasis / complementary genes | 9 : 3 : 4 or 9 : 7 | — |
Test cross vs back cross
- Test cross: unknown dominant phenotype × homozygous recessive → reveals genotype (all dominant ⇒ AA; 1:1 ⇒ Aa)
- Back cross: F1 × either parent (a test cross is a special back cross to the recessive parent)
Probability rules
- Product rule (AND, independent events): P(A and B) = P(A) × P(B)
- Sum rule (OR, mutually exclusive): P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B)
- e.g. P(aabbcc) from AaBbCc × AaBbCc = (¼)³ = 1/64
Human Mendelian traits & pedigrees
Single-gene human traits
| Dominant | Recessive |
|---|---|
| Widow's peak | Straight hairline |
| Free earlobe | Attached earlobe |
| Dimples | No dimples |
| Straight thumb | Hitchhiker's thumb |
| Tongue rolling | Non-roller |
Reading a pedigree
- □ male, ○ female; shaded = affected; horizontal line = mating; vertical = offspring
- Autosomal recessive: skips generations; two unaffected parents can have an affected child
- Autosomal dominant: every affected child has an affected parent; no skipping
- X-linked recessive: mostly males; passed from carrier mothers; never father → son
Extensions of Mendelian inheritance
Past-paper questions (10)
- 2026 P1 Q33 — Polyallelism (ABO)
- 2026 P2 Q10a — Dominant epistasis
- 2024 P1 Q31 — Recessive epistasis 9:7
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q31 — ABO blood group cross
- 2023 (2024) P2 Q10a — Polygenic inheritance
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q33 — Incomplete dominance vs codominance
- 2019 (New) P1 Q30 — Sickle cell (pleiotropy)
- 2019 (Old) P2 Q4A — Test/back cross, inheritance types, allele frequency, GM traits
- 2018 P1 Q28 — Incomplete dominance
- 2016 P1 Q28 — Incomplete dominance
Incomplete dominance
Heterozygote is intermediate. Mirabilis jalapa (four o'clock): red × white → all pink F1; F2 1 red : 2 pink : 1 white. Phenotype ratio = genotype ratio.
Codominance
Both alleles fully expressed in the heterozygote. ABO blood group: IAIB → group AB (both A and B antigens).
Multiple alleles (polyallelism)
More than two alleles in the population (each person still has two). ABO: IA, IB, i. IA = IB (codominant) > i.
| Group | Genotypes |
|---|---|
| A | IAIA, IAi |
| B | IBIB, IBi |
| AB | IAIB |
| O | ii |
Epistasis
One gene masks/modifies the expression of another (non-allelic) gene.
- Dominant epistasis — fowl plumage: dominant inhibitor allele suppresses colour → 13 : 3 (white : coloured)
- Recessive (complementary) epistasis — sweet pea flower colour: purple needs at least one dominant allele of both genes → 9 : 7 (purple : white)
Polygenic inheritance
Many genes with additive small effects → continuous variation, normal (bell-shaped) distribution. Examples: human skin colour, height. Environment adds further spread.
Pleiotropy
One gene → multiple phenotypic effects.
- Sickle-cell: one Hb mutation → anaemia, pain, organ damage, malaria resistance in carriers
- Cystic fibrosis: autosomal recessive, defective CFTR chloride channel → thick mucus in lungs, pancreas, sterility
Epigenetics & environment
- Heritable change in gene expression without change in DNA sequence — DNA methylation (silences), histone modification
- Identical twins can differ (e.g. only one develops schizophrenia)
- Environment shapes phenotype: Hydrangea colour with soil pH; Himalayan rabbit fur with temperature
Linkage, crossing over and sex-linked inheritance
Past-paper questions (5)
- 2024 P2 Q10a — Human sex-linked traits
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q32 — Sex-linked inheritance
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q33 — Gene linkage 3:1
- 2019 (Old) P2 Q9b — Sex-linked traits in males
- 2016 P1 Q31 — Haemophilia inheritance
Linkage
- Genes on the same chromosome tend to be inherited together → violate independent assortment
- Morgan's Drosophila: body colour (grey G / black g) and wing size (normal N / vestigial n)
- Test cross GgNn × ggnn gives mostly parental types plus few recombinants
Crossing over & maps
- Exchange between non-sister chromatids at chiasmata (prophase I) → recombinants
- Recombination frequency = recombinants ÷ total offspring × 100
- 1% recombination = 1 map unit (centimorgan); farther apart → more crossing over (max ≈ 50%)
Sex determination (humans)
- XX female, XY male — the male is heterogametic; father's sperm decides the sex
- SRY gene on Y triggers testis development
- Other systems: ZW (birds — female ZW), XO (grasshopper), haplodiploidy (bees)
X-linked recessive disorders
- Red–green colour blindness, haemophilia
- Males hemizygous (XhY affected); females need two copies
- Carrier mother × normal father → ½ sons affected, ½ daughters carriers
- Affected father → all daughters carriers, no sons affected
Population genetics: Hardy–Weinberg
Past-paper questions (3)
- 2025 P1 Q30 — Hardy–Weinberg heterozygote frequency
- 2021 (2022) P2 Q10b — Hardy–Weinberg & evolution
- 2019 (New) P2 Q4A — Pedigree charts, Hardy–Weinberg calculation
p = dominant allele frequency, q = recessive allele frequency, q² = homozygous recessive phenotype frequency
Five conditions for equilibrium
- No mutation
- Random mating
- No natural selection
- Very large population (no genetic drift)
- No migration (gene flow)
Any violation → allele frequencies change = microevolution.
Worked example
If p = 0.8, q = 0.2:
AA = p² = 0.64 · Aa = 2pq = 0.32 · aa = q² = 0.04
Typical question: 1 in 100 people is affected by a recessive trait → q² = 0.01, q = 0.1, p = 0.9, carriers = 2pq = 0.18 (18%).
Agents of change
- Natural selection — peppered moth (Biston betularia): dark form rose during industrial soot pollution
- Genetic drift — bottleneck, founder effect (small populations)
- Gene flow — migration
- Mutation — the ultimate source of new alleles
- Non-random mating — changes genotype, not allele, frequencies
Plant and animal breeding
Past-paper questions (4)
- 2022 (2023) P2 Q10a — Disadvantages of artificial plant breeding
- 2020 P1 Q31 — Hybrid vigour
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q32 — Inbreeding
- 2017 P2 Q8 — Traditional selective breeding
| Method | How | Key outcome / examples |
|---|---|---|
| Artificial selection | Humans choose parents with desired traits over generations | Brassica crops (cabbage, cauliflower, broccoli, kale) from wild mustard; dog breeds |
| Inbreeding | Mating close relatives / selfing | Pure (homozygous) lines; risk of inbreeding depression (harmful recessives expressed) |
| Outbreeding / hybridization | Crossing unrelated lines | Heterosis (hybrid vigour) — hybrid maize, F1 hybrid vegetables |
| Interspecific hybridization | Crossing two species | Mule (♂ donkey × ♀ horse), hinny, liger — usually sterile; bread wheat (hexaploid) arose this way |
| Polyploidy | Colchicine blocks spindle formation → chromosome doubling | Gigas effect (larger organs); triploid seedless watermelon, banana |
| Mutation breeding | Physical (gamma rays, X-rays) or chemical (sodium azide, EMS) mutagens | New variation, e.g. disease-resistant or early-maturing varieties |
| Genetic modification | Transfer of specific genes (Unit 7) | Bt crops, Golden rice |
Disadvantages of artificial breeding
- Loss of genetic diversity → vulnerability to new diseases
- Inbreeding depression
- Negative correlated responses: bulldog skull (breathing problems), Texel sheep and Belgian Blue cattle (double muscling → calving difficulty)
Unit 6 — Model MCQs
Pick an answer to check it. Questions follow the past-paper style (five options, one correct).
6.1 In a dihybrid cross AaBb × aabb (genes unlinked), the proportion of offspring with the aabb genotype is Mendelian inheritance
6.2 Red-flowered Mirabilis jalapa crossed with white gives pink F₁. The F₂ phenotype ratio is Extensions of Mendelian genetics
6.3 A man of blood group A and a woman of group B have a child of group O. The parents' genotypes are Extensions of Mendelian genetics
6.4 An F₂ ratio of 9 purple : 7 white in sweet pea is an example of Extensions of Mendelian genetics
6.5 A carrier woman for haemophilia marries a normal man. The probability that their SON will be haemophiliac is Linkage & sex-linkage
6.6 In a population in Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium, 16% show the recessive phenotype. The frequency of heterozygotes is Population genetics
6.7 Colchicine is used in plant breeding to Agriculture, soils & pest management
6.8 Which condition is NOT required for Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium? Population genetics
Unit 6 — Structured & essay practice
Structured In a population of 10,000, 900 people cannot roll their tongue (recessive). Calculate the allele frequencies and the number of heterozygotes, and state two assumptions.
Show marking points
- q² = 900/10 000 = 0.09 → q = 0.3
- p = 1 − 0.3 = 0.7
- 2pq = 2 × 0.7 × 0.3 = 0.42 → 4,200 heterozygotes
- Assumptions: large population, random mating, no mutation, no migration, no selection (any two)
Essay (Q10 short note) Write a short note on the methods and disadvantages of artificial plant and animal breeding.
Show marking points
- Artificial selection over generations
- Inbreeding → pure lines; inbreeding depression
- Outbreeding/hybridisation → heterosis
- Interspecific hybridisation (mule; hexaploid wheat)
- Polyploidy with colchicine (triploid watermelon)
- Mutation breeding (gamma rays, EMS, sodium azide); genetic modification
- Disadvantages: loss of genetic diversity, inbreeding depression, negative correlated responses (bulldog, Belgian Blue)
Molecular Biology & rDNA Technology
Process-heavy (replication, transcription, translation, cloning, PCR). The textbook is long relative to the marks it carries, so learn the sequences and enzymes, not every detail.
Chromosome architecture and DNA replication
Past-paper questions (11)
- 2026 P2 Q4A — DNA replication, PCR polymerase, restriction maps, rDNA steps
- 2025 P1 Q33 — DNA repair
- 2024 P1 Q34 — Nucleases in DNA repair
- 2023 (2024) P2 Q9a — Chromatin packing
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q46 — Prokaryotic chromosome supercoiling
- 2022 (2023) P2 Q10b — Okazaki fragments
- 2021 (2022) P2 Q5a — Nucleotides & DNA backbone
- 2021 (2022) P2 Q5b — Watson–Crick DNA model
- 2020 P1 Q32 — Topoisomerase
- 2018 P2 Q4B — Oxidative phosphorylation, replication enzymes, GM traits
- 2016 P1 Q3 — DNA base composition (Chargaff)
Prokaryote vs eukaryote genome
| Prokaryote | Eukaryote |
|---|---|
| Single circular DNA in the nucleoid (folded chromosome, RNA–protein core) | Several linear chromosomes inside a nucleus |
| No histones (histone-like proteins) | DNA wrapped on histones → chromatin |
| Plasmids common | Plasmids rare (yeast 2µ plasmid) |
| Genes mostly continuous, operons | Genes interrupted by introns |
Levels of packing
Chromatin
- Euchromatin — loosely packed, transcriptionally active
- Heterochromatin — tightly packed, mostly inactive (e.g. centromeres, Barr body)
DNA replication (semi-conservative — Meselson & Stahl)
Leading vs lagging strand
- Leading: continuous, towards the fork, one primer
- Lagging: discontinuous Okazaki fragments, away from the fork, many primers, joined by ligase
- Bacteria: one origin, bidirectional; eukaryotes: many origins (replication bubbles)
Enzyme ↔ job (high-yield MCQ)
| Enzyme | Job |
|---|---|
| Helicase | Breaks H-bonds, unwinds |
| Topoisomerase | Relaxes twisting ahead of fork |
| Primase | Synthesises RNA primer |
| DNA pol III | Main elongation + proofreading |
| DNA pol I | Removes primer, fills gap |
| Ligase | Forms phosphodiester bond between fragments |
Gene expression: transcription and translation
Past-paper questions (15)
- 2026 P1 Q34 — Translation initiation sequence
- 2025 P1 Q32 — Polysomes & translation rate
- 2025 P1 Q4 — RNA types & features
- 2025 P2 Q4A — Translation complex, SSB, DNA analysis, community/ecosystem
- 2024 P2 Q5a — Eukaryotic transcription
- 2024 P2 Q4A — Point mutations, mRNA, vectors, nutrient cycling, biomes, Kyoto
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q48 — Transcription
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q32 — Introns & intergenic DNA
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q33 — Genetic code & translation
- 2021 (2022) P2 Q4A — Epigenetics, signal peptides, nucleotide, genetic code, plant transformation
- 2020 P1 Q33 — Eukaryotic vs prokaryotic translation
- 2020 P2 Q10b — Epigenetics
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q47 — Requirements for transcription
- 2016 P1 Q29 — DNA–mRNA–tRNA triplets
- 2016 P2 Q5b — DNA & RNA in protein synthesis
Transcription
- RNA polymerase binds the promoter (TATA box in eukaryotes), unwinds DNA
- Reads the template (antisense) strand 3′→5′; makes RNA 5′→3′; no primer needed
- mRNA sequence = coding (sense) strand with U for T
- Ends at terminator; DNA rewinds
Eukaryotic RNA processing
- 5′ cap (modified G) and 3′ poly-A tail — protect and aid export/translation
- Splicing: introns removed, exons joined (spliceosome)
- Alternative splicing → several proteins from one gene
Genetic code
- Triplet codons; 64 codons, 61 sense, 3 stop (UAA, UAG, UGA)
- Start codon AUG = methionine
- Degenerate (redundant), unambiguous, non-overlapping, comma-less, nearly universal
Ribosome sites
- A site — aminoacyl-tRNA enters
- P site — peptidyl-tRNA holds growing chain
- E site — empty tRNA exits
- Small subunit binds mRNA; large subunit catalyses peptide bonds (rRNA = ribozyme)
Translation stages
tRNA
Clover-leaf; anticodon loop pairs with codon; 3′ CCA end carries the amino acid (attached by aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase using ATP).
Polyribosomes & fate of proteins
- Many ribosomes translate one mRNA at once
- Free ribosomes → cytosolic proteins; ER-bound → secreted / membrane proteins
- Faulty or unneeded proteins tagged with ubiquitin → destroyed in proteasomes
Mutations and human genetic disorders
Past-paper questions (15)
- 2026 P1 Q46 — Aneuploidy & syndromes
- 2025 P1 Q31 — Polyploidy in plants
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q32 — Gene-mutation disorders
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q34 — Point mutations
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q46 — Cystic fibrosis inheritance
- 2020 P1 Q48 — Point substitution effects
- 2020 P2 Q4A — Pea features, pleiotropy, introns, disorders, DNA isolation, vectors
- 2019 (New) P1 Q32 — Aneuploidy & Down syndrome
- 2019 (New) P1 Q33 — Silent substitution
- 2019 (New) P2 Q8a — Polyploids in agriculture
- 2018 P1 Q29 — Alleles & mutations
- 2018 P1 Q30 — Turner syndrome
- 2018 P1 Q32 — Genetic counselling
- 2017 P1 Q47 — Chromosome number disorders
- 2016 P2 Q1B — Mutations & genetic disorders
Gene (point) mutations
| Type | Effect |
|---|---|
| Substitution — silent | Same amino acid (degenerate code) |
| Substitution — missense | Different amino acid (sickle-cell: Glu → Val at position 6 of β-globin) |
| Substitution — nonsense | Premature stop codon |
| Insertion / deletion | Frameshift — every codon downstream changes (unless multiples of 3) |
Chromosome aberrations (structure)
- Deletion — segment lost
- Duplication — segment repeated
- Inversion — segment reversed
- Translocation — segment moved to a non-homologous chromosome
Changes in number
- Aneuploidy (non-disjunction): Down syndrome (trisomy 21, 47), Turner (45, XO), Klinefelter (47, XXY)
- Euploidy / polyploidy: whole sets (3n, 4n) — common in plants
Causes
- Spontaneous replication errors
- Mutagens: UV (thymine dimers), X/gamma rays, chemicals (EMS, sodium azide, benzene), some viruses
- Mutations are the ultimate source of new alleles
Genetic counselling
Advises families on risk of inherited disorders using pedigrees, carrier tests, karyotyping and prenatal diagnosis (amniocentesis, chorionic villus sampling).
Gene technology: tools and recombinant DNA
Past-paper questions (13)
- 2025 P1 Q50 — DNA probes
- 2025 P2 Q9a — DNA isolation in gene technology
- 2024 P1 Q33 — Reverse transcriptase / cDNA
- 2024 P1 Q47 — DNA sequencing applications
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q33 — DNA isolation steps
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q40 — Genome projects
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q34 — Restriction maps
- 2021 (2022) P2 Q9a — Cloning vector features
- 2020 P2 Q9b — Applications of PCR
- 2019 (New) P1 Q34 — Taq polymerase in PCR
- 2019 (New) P1 Q35 — Plasmid insertion
- 2019 (New) P2 Q4B — RNA polymerase, gene products, restriction maps, fingerprinting
- 2017 P1 Q31 — Restriction endonucleases
Toolkit
| Tool | Role |
|---|---|
| Restriction endonucleases (EcoRI, HindIII) | Cut at specific palindromic sites → sticky or blunt ends |
| DNA ligase | Joins insert to vector |
| Reverse transcriptase | mRNA → cDNA (no introns; needed for expression in bacteria) |
| Taq polymerase | Heat-stable polymerase for PCR (Thermus aquaticus) |
| Vectors | Plasmids, bacteriophages, Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium |
A good plasmid vector has
- Origin of replication (ori)
- Selectable marker (antibiotic resistance)
- Multiple cloning site (MCS) with unique restriction sites
- Small size; high copy number
Gene cloning workflow
DNA libraries
- Genomic library — all DNA of an organism, cut and cloned
- cDNA library — only expressed genes (from mRNA)
Delivery into plants & animals
- Agrobacterium tumefaciens Ti plasmid — gene inserted between T-DNA borders
- Gene gun (biolistics), electroporation, microinjection, viral vectors, liposomes
Gel electrophoresis
DNA (negatively charged) moves to the anode (+) through agarose; small fragments travel farthest. Stained (e.g. ethidium bromide) and seen under UV.
PCR
Copies double each cycle: 2n. Needs template, two primers, dNTPs, Taq, buffer with Mg²⁺. Uses: forensics, diagnosis, paternity, cloning, ancient DNA.
DNA sequencing & restriction maps
- Sanger (dideoxy chain termination) → order of bases
- Restriction map: positions of cut sites from fragment sizes
- Uses: diagnosis, evolution, Human Genome Project
DNA fingerprinting
Based on highly variable repeat regions (VNTR/STR). Uses: crime scenes, paternity, identifying disaster victims, wildlife forensics, pedigree of breeds.
GMOs: applications, concerns and biosafety
Past-paper questions (6)
- 2026 P1 Q35 — Cartagena Protocol
- 2026 P2 Q10b — Environmental issues of GMOs
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q35 — rDNA technology products
- 2019 (New) P2 Q8b — Environmental issues of GMOs
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q49 — Genetically modified organisms
- 2018 P1 Q31 — GMO definition
Agriculture
- Bt crops (cotton, maize, brinjal) — Bacillus thuringiensis Cry toxin kills insect larvae
- Herbicide-tolerant soybean
- Virus-resistant papaya
- Golden rice (β-carotene, vitamin A)
- Flavr Savr tomato (delayed softening), drought/salt tolerance
Medicine
- Human insulin, growth hormone, interferons from bacteria/yeast
- Recombinant vaccines (hepatitis B surface antigen)
- Clotting factors; gene therapy
- Transgenic animals producing drugs in milk
Industry & environment
- Engineered enzymes (detergents, food processing)
- Biofuels; bioremediation (oil-degrading bacteria)
Concerns
| Area | Issue |
|---|---|
| Health | Allergens, toxins, antibiotic-marker transfer |
| Environment | Gene flow to wild relatives ("superweeds"), harm to non-target insects, resistance in pests, loss of biodiversity |
| Socio-economic | Patents, seed dependence on companies, ethics, labelling |
Regulation
- Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety (under the CBD; adopted 2000, in force 2003) — safe transfer, handling and use of living modified organisms (LMOs); advance informed agreement
- National Biosafety Framework of Sri Lanka — national policy and guidelines for GMO safety
Unit 7 — Model MCQs
Pick an answer to check it. Questions follow the past-paper style (five options, one correct).
7.1 Which enzyme joins Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand? DNA structure & replication
7.2 A nucleosome consists of DNA wrapped around DNA structure & replication
7.3 If a DNA template strand reads 3′-TAC GGA-5′, the mRNA produced is Gene expression & regulation
7.4 The site on the ribosome where a new aminoacyl-tRNA enters is the Gene expression & regulation
7.5 Which mutation is most likely to change every amino acid after it? Mutations
7.6 In gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments move towards the rDNA tools & techniques
7.7 Starting with one DNA molecule, how many copies are produced after 5 PCR cycles? rDNA tools & techniques
7.8 The Cartagena Protocol mainly deals with GMOs, biosafety & applications
Unit 7 — Structured & essay practice
Essay (Q9 style) Describe how a human gene can be cloned in a bacterium to produce a protein such as insulin.
Show marking points
- Isolate mRNA; reverse transcriptase → cDNA (no introns)
- Plasmid vector with ori, antibiotic-resistance marker, MCS
- Cut plasmid and gene with the same restriction enzyme → sticky ends
- Anneal and seal with DNA ligase → recombinant plasmid
- Transform bacteria (CaCl₂ + heat shock / electroporation)
- Select transformed cells on antibiotic medium
- Screen for recombinants; culture in fermenters
- Extract and purify the protein
- Benefits: pure, human-type, cheap, large quantity
Structured Describe the three steps of one PCR cycle with their temperatures, and give three applications.
Show marking points
- Denaturation ~94–95 °C: H-bonds break, strands separate
- Annealing ~50–65 °C: primers bind complementary sequences
- Extension ~72 °C: Taq polymerase adds nucleotides 5′→3′
- Copies = 2ⁿ
- Applications: forensics/DNA fingerprinting, diagnosis of infection, paternity, cloning, ancient DNA (any three)
Environmental Biology
Ecology, Sri Lankan ecosystems and global issues. The conventions table and the climatic-zone table are frequent quick MCQs.
Ecosystem structure, energy flow and nutrient cycles
Past-paper questions (9)
- 2026 P2 Q4B — Primary production, biomes, mangroves
- 2025 P1 Q34 — Most efficient food chain
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q36 — Food web consumers
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q47 — Inverted ecological pyramids
- 2020 P1 Q49 — Food web trophic levels
- 2018 P1 Q33 — Energy flow calculation
- 2017 P1 Q34 — Home-garden food web
- 2016 P1 Q34 — Phosphorus cycle
- 2016 P2 Q4A — Ecosystem, niche, productivity
Key terms
- Habitat — the place where an organism lives, described by abiotic factors (temperature, rainfall, soil, light)
- Niche — the role/way of life of a species (habitat + resources + interactions)
- Biotic — producers, consumers, decomposers; abiotic — climate, soil, water, light
Energy flow
- One-way: sun → producers → consumers → heat
- Only ~10% passes to the next trophic level (respiration, heat, excretion, uneaten parts lost)
- This limits food chains to 4–5 links
- Food web = interlinked food chains; more stable than a single chain
Ecological pyramids
| Pyramid | Shape |
|---|---|
| Energy | Always upright |
| Numbers | Upright; inverted with a single large producer (tree → insects) or parasites |
| Biomass | Upright on land; inverted in some aquatic systems (phytoplankton turnover fast) |
Cycling of materials
Carbon cycle
Nitrogen cycle
| Step | Organisms |
|---|---|
| Fixation N₂ → NH₃ | Rhizobium (legume nodules), Azotobacter, cyanobacteria (Nostoc, Anabaena); lightning |
| Ammonification | Decomposers |
| Nitrification NH₄⁺ → NO₂⁻ → NO₃⁻ | Nitrosomonas → Nitrobacter |
| Denitrification NO₃⁻ → N₂ | Pseudomonas, anaerobic soil |
Water & phosphorus
- Water: evaporation, transpiration, condensation, precipitation, run-off
- Phosphorus: sedimentary cycle (no gaseous phase) — rocks → soil → organisms → sediments
World biomes and ecosystems of Sri Lanka
Past-paper questions (24)
- 2026 P1 Q36 — Biome with least rainfall range
- 2026 P1 Q47 — SL ecosystems & climate zones
- 2025 P1 Q35 — Biomes & animals
- 2025 P2 Q10b — Tropical thorn scrub in SL
- 2024 P1 Q35 — SL vegetation types
- 2024 P1 Q50 — SL ecosystems by rainfall (plants)
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q34 — Biome sequence northward
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q49 — Highest-altitude plants in SL
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q47 — SL ecosystems by altitude
- 2022 (2023) P2 Q10c — Desert plants
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q35 — Tundra animals
- 2021 (2022) P2 Q4B — Biomes, villus, population/trophic terms, invasives, coral reefs
- 2020 P1 Q34 — Biomes by rainfall
- 2020 P2 Q10a — Salt marshes of SL
- 2020 P2 Q4B — Primary production, SL ecosystems, endemic & threatened plants
- 2019 (New) P1 Q36 — Dry patana distribution
- 2019 (New) P1 Q48 — Biome sequence pole to equator
- 2019 (New) P2 Q9a — Inland wetlands of SL
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q48 — Tropical biomes
- 2018 P1 Q50 — SL forest features
- 2017 P1 Q50 — Biome temperature/latitude diagram
- 2016 P1 Q33 — Biome with least temperature variation
- 2016 P2 Q9 — Forest ecosystems of SL
- 2016 P2 Q4B — Biomes, keystone & flagship species
| Biome | Climate | Vegetation & animal features |
|---|---|---|
| Tropical rain forest | 2000–4000 mm, warm all year | Stratified canopy, epiphytes, lianas; highest biodiversity; year-round animal activity, camouflage |
| Tropical dry forest | 1500–2000 mm, 6–7 month dry season | Deciduous trees shed leaves in dry season; thorny shrubs, succulents |
| Savanna | 300–500 mm, long dry season | Grass with scattered trees; deep-rooted shrubs, spines, fire tolerance; large grazers, termites |
| Desert | Very low rainfall, ~30° N/S | Succulents (CAM), reduced leaves; nocturnal, burrowing animals |
| Chaparral | 300–500 mm, rainy winter, dry summer | Dense spiny evergreen shrubs; fire-adapted; browsers (deer, goats) |
| Temperate grassland | 300–1000 mm, cold winters | Grasses, no trees; large grazers, burrowers (prairie dogs) |
| Temperate broadleaf forest | 700–2000 mm, rain and snow | Deciduous trees; mammals hibernate, birds migrate |
| Northern coniferous (taiga) | 300–700 mm, very cold winters | Fir, pine, spruce; brown bears, moose |
| Tundra | Arctic 200–600 mm, below −30 °C winter; permafrost | Mosses, lichens, dwarf shrubs; caribou/reindeer, musk oxen |
Sri Lanka's climatic zones (NIE scheme)
| Zone | Rainfall (mm) | Forests | Grasslands / other |
|---|---|---|---|
| Arid | < 1000 | Tropical thorn scrub | Salt marsh, mangroves |
| Dry | 1000–1500 | Tropical dry mixed evergreen (dry monsoon) forest | Damana, talawa, savanna |
| Intermediate | 1250–2000 | Tropical moist evergreen, sub-montane | Savanna, dry patana |
| Wet | > 2000 | Lowland wet evergreen (Sinharaja, Kanneliya, Nakiyadeniya), sub-montane, montane | Talawa, wet patana |
Inland wetlands
- Rivers and streams, reservoirs (tanks/wewa), marshes, swamp forests, villus
- Ramsar definition: marsh, fen, peat or water, natural or artificial, with marine water not exceeding 6 m at low tide
Coastal ecosystems
- Mangroves — pneumatophores, prop roots, vivipary, salt excretion; nursery grounds, coastal protection
- Coral reefs — coral polyps + zooxanthellae; Hikkaduwa, Bar Reef; threatened by bleaching
- Lagoons, estuaries, sea grass beds, salt marshes, sand dunes (stunted vegetation, e.g. Spinifex), sea shore
Population ecology and species interactions
Past-paper questions (5)
- 2026 P1 Q17 — Parasitism/commensalism/mutualism
- 2025 P1 Q15 — Commensalism (epiphytic orchids)
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q18 — Symbiosis types
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q42 — Nutrition & symbiosis
- 2016 P1 Q44 — Nutrition types & examples
Population growth
- Exponential (J-curve) — unlimited resources
- Logistic (S-curve) — levels off at carrying capacity (K)
- Density-dependent limits: competition, disease, predation; density-independent: floods, fire, drought
Interactions
| Interaction | Effect (A / B) | Example |
|---|---|---|
| Mutualism | + / + | Lichen; mycorrhiza; Rhizobium–legume |
| Commensalism | + / 0 | Epiphytic orchids on trees; remora on shark |
| Parasitism | + / − | Tapeworm, Cuscuta, mosquito |
| Predation / herbivory | + / − | Leopard–deer; grazing |
| Competition | − / − | Weeds and crops for light, water |
| Amensalism | 0 / − | Penicillium inhibiting bacteria |
Succession
- Primary — bare rock/lava; pioneers (lichens, mosses) build soil
- Secondary — after disturbance where soil remains (abandoned chena)
- Ends in a relatively stable climax community
Biodiversity, threats and conservation
Past-paper questions (16)
- 2026 P1 Q48 — Exotic vs endemic species
- 2026 P2 Q9a — Value of biodiversity
- 2024 P1 Q49 — Invasive alien plants
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q35 — Invasive alien species in SL
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q37 — Endemic/exotic/invasive species
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q36 — Relict & endemic species
- 2021 (2022) P2 Q4C — Biodiversity services, desertification, legislation, tissue culture, sugar preservation
- 2020 P1 Q35 — Threatened species
- 2019 (New) P1 Q37 — Environmental service values
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q35 — Endemic/exotic/migratory groups
- 2019 (Old) P2 Q4B — Origin of life energy, extinction, keystone species, conventions
- 2018 P2 Q4C — In-situ conservation, Ramsar sites
- 2017 P2 Q10b — Invasive species
- 2017 P2 Q4B — Environment levels, extinction, CBD, desertification
- 2016 P1 Q35 — SL species status (endemic/invasive)
- 2016 P2 Q10b — Biodiversity hotspots
Three levels
- Genetic — variation within a species
- Species — richness and evenness
- Ecosystem — variety of habitats and communities
Sri Lanka + Western Ghats form a global biodiversity hotspot, with high endemism.
Values
- Direct: food, medicine, timber, fibre
- Indirect / ecosystem services: pollination, soil formation, water purification, climate regulation
- Aesthetic, cultural, ecotourism, scientific
Threats (HIPPO)
- Habitat loss and fragmentation
- Invasive alien species (e.g. Lantana, water hyacinth, Salvinia)
- Pollution
- Human Population growth
- Over-exploitation (over-fishing, poaching)
- + Climate change
IUCN Red List categories
CR + EN + VU = "threatened".
Conservation
| In-situ (natural habitat) | Ex-situ (outside habitat) |
|---|---|
| National parks (Yala, Wilpattu, Minneriya, Wasgamuwa), strict nature reserves (Ritigala), forest reserves (Kanneliya), sanctuaries, jungle corridors | Zoological and botanical gardens, seed and gene banks, tissue culture, captive breeding |
Global environmental issues and conventions
Past-paper questions (19)
- 2025 P1 Q36 — Ozone depletion / pollution effects
- 2025 P2 Q4B — Desertification, Basel/Montreal, sterilants, smear, Salmonella toxin
- 2024 P1 Q38 — Solid waste management
- 2024 P2 Q9b — Global warming factors
- 2023 (2024) P2 Q10b — Desertification
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q37 — Acid rain / greenhouse / ozone gases
- 2020 P1 Q36 — Agreements on global warming
- 2019 (New) P1 Q38 — Global warming contributors
- 2019 (New) P2 Q9b — Wastewater discharge effects
- 2019 (New) P2 Q4C — Habitat, interactions, flagship species, solid waste, landfill
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q34 — Earth's atmosphere layers
- 2019 (Old) P2 Q10b — Global warming
- 2018 P1 Q34 — Effects of deforestation
- 2018 P1 Q39 — Sanitary landfill
- 2017 P1 Q35 — Air pollutants & agriculture
- 2017 P2 Q9a — Types of natural resources
- 2017 P2 Q9b — Sustainable use of resources
- 2016 P2 Q1C — BOD, wastewater, solid waste
- 2016 P2 Q4C — Global warming, invasive species, agriculture & biodiversity
Global warming & climate change
- Greenhouse gases: CO₂ (combustion, deforestation), CH₄ (paddy fields, cattle, landfills — higher warming potential), N₂O (fertilisers), PFCs/HFCs/SF₆, black carbon
- Effects: sea-level rise, extreme weather, coral bleaching, shifting species ranges, crop losses, spread of vector-borne disease
Ozone depletion
- CFCs, halons, carbon tetrachloride → free Cl/Br atoms destroy O₃ in the stratosphere
- More UV-B → skin cancer, cataracts, immune suppression, harm to phytoplankton and early stages of fish, amphibians
Acid rain
- SO₂ and NOₓ (fossil fuels, power plants, vehicles) → H₂SO₄ and HNO₃
- Normal rain pH ≈ 5.6 (dissolved CO₂); acid rain is lower
- Damages marble buildings, forests, soil organisms; leaches Al, Pb, Hg into water
Desertification & others
- Land degradation in arid/semi-arid/dry sub-humid areas from climate and human activity (UNCCD)
- Eutrophication: fertiliser N/P run-off → algal bloom → O₂ depletion → fish kills
- Biomagnification of persistent toxins (DDT, Hg) up food chains
Conventions and laws
| Agreement | Focus |
|---|---|
| Ramsar Convention (1971) | Wetlands of international importance — Sri Lankan sites: Bundala, Anawilundawa, Maduganga, Vankalai, Kumana, Wilpattu |
| CITES (1975) | International trade in endangered wild fauna and flora (export permits) |
| MARPOL (1973) | Pollution of the sea by ships |
| Montreal Protocol (1987) | Phasing out ozone-depleting substances |
| Basel Convention (1989) | Trans-boundary movement and disposal of hazardous wastes |
| Convention on Biological Diversity (1992) | Conservation, sustainable use, fair benefit sharing (Cartagena Protocol sits under it) |
| UNFCCC → Kyoto Protocol (1997) → Paris Agreement (2015) | Greenhouse-gas reduction targets; limit warming well below 2 °C |
| UNCCD (1994) | Combating desertification |
| Fauna and Flora Protection Ordinance (No. 2 of 1937) | Sri Lanka — wildlife protection; enforced by the Department of Wildlife Conservation; national parks, strict nature reserves, sanctuaries |
| National Environmental Act (1980) | Sri Lanka — Central Environmental Authority, EIA, pollution control |
Unit 8 — Model MCQs
Pick an answer to check it. Questions follow the past-paper style (five options, one correct).
8.1 Which ecological pyramid can never be inverted? Ecosystems & energy flow
8.2 Conversion of ammonium ions to nitrite in soil is carried out by Ecosystems & energy flow
8.3 Tropical thorn scrub in Sri Lanka occurs in the Biomes & Sri Lankan ecosystems
8.4 Vivipary and pneumatophores are characteristic of Biomes & Sri Lankan ecosystems
8.5 Orchids growing on tree branches without harming the tree show Populations & ecological interactions
8.6 Which is an ex-situ conservation method? Biodiversity & conservation
8.7 The international agreement to phase out ozone-depleting substances is the Environmental issues & pollution
8.8 Which of the following is a Ramsar site in Sri Lanka? Environmental issues & pollution
Unit 8 — Structured & essay practice
Structured Explain the causes and effects of acid rain and name one international agreement relevant to air pollution.
Show marking points
- SO₂ and NOₓ from fossil fuel combustion (power plants, vehicles)
- Converted to H₂SO₄ and HNO₃; pH below 5.6
- Damage to marble/limestone buildings
- Acidification of lakes, death of aquatic life
- Leaching of soil nutrients and toxic metals (Al, Pb, Hg); forest damage
- Agreement: e.g. Montreal Protocol (ozone) / UNFCCC–Kyoto (GHG) — credit relevant answer
Essay Discuss the threats to biodiversity in Sri Lanka and the measures taken to conserve it.
Show marking points
- Habitat loss/fragmentation (agriculture, development)
- Invasive species (Lantana, water hyacinth)
- Pollution; over-exploitation (poaching, over-fishing); climate change
- In-situ: national parks (Yala, Wilpattu), strict nature reserves, sanctuaries, forest reserves
- Ex-situ: botanical/zoological gardens, seed banks, tissue culture
- Legislation: Fauna and Flora Protection Ordinance (DWLC), National Environmental Act
- Conventions: CBD, CITES, Ramsar
- Awareness, sustainable use, ecotourism
Microbiology
Applied microbiology. Organism–product and pathogen–disease matching dominate, so tables are your best friend here.
Nature and diversity of microorganisms
Past-paper questions (18)
- 2026 P1 Q37 — Mycoplasma vs protists
- 2026 P2 Q5b — Characteristic features of bacteria
- 2025 P1 Q49 — Bacterial O2 needs & nutrition
- 2024 P1 Q48 — Microbial nutrition & reproduction
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q36 — Viroids & prions
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q38 — Fission in microorganisms
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q39 — Escherichia coli
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q48 — Microbial features & examples
- 2020 P1 Q37 — Microbial nutrition & features
- 2020 P2 Q4C — Anaerobes, akinetes, viruses, vaccines, industrial microbes, coliforms
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q37 — Cyanobacteria
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q38 — Viruses
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q50 — Microbial nutrition types
- 2018 P2 Q3C — Bacterial smears & arrangements, prions, opportunists
- 2017 P1 Q39 — Prions
- 2017 P2 Q10c — Cyanobacteria
- 2017 P2 Q4C — Microbial nutrition, sterilisation, tetanus toxin, enzymes
- 2016 P1 Q37 — Prions
Why microbes are everywhere
- Microscopic, huge surface area : volume, rapid reproduction, metabolic diversity
- Extremophiles: thermophiles (high temperature), psychrophiles (cold), acidophiles (low pH), halophiles (need NaCl), barophiles (high pressure)
Bacterial shapes & arrangements
| Shape | Arrangements |
|---|---|
| Coccus (sphere) | Diplococci, streptococci (chains), staphylococci (grape-like, division in many planes), tetrads, sarcinae (cubes) |
| Bacillus (rod) | Single, diplobacillus, streptobacillus |
| Spiral | Vibrio (comma), spirillum (rigid helix), spirochaete (flexible) |
Nutritional types
| Type | Energy | Carbon | Example |
|---|---|---|---|
| Photoautotroph | Light | CO₂ | Cyanobacteria, purple & green sulphur bacteria |
| Photoheterotroph | Light | Organic | Purple non-sulphur bacteria |
| Chemoautotroph | Inorganic chemicals | CO₂ | Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter |
| Chemoheterotroph | Organic | Organic | Most bacteria, fungi |
Oxygen requirement
- Obligate aerobes — need O₂ (Mycobacterium)
- Obligate anaerobes — killed by O₂ (Clostridium)
- Facultative anaerobes — both (E. coli, yeast)
- Microaerophiles — low O₂
Other microbes
- Cyanobacteria — heterocysts fix N₂ (Nostoc, Anabaena)
- Mollicutes — no cell wall: Mycoplasma, phytoplasma (plant diseases)
- Fungi (yeasts, moulds), unicellular protists, microalgae
Viruses & viroids
- Acellular; nucleic acid (DNA or RNA) in a protein capsid, some with an envelope
- Obligate intracellular parasites
- Lytic cycle: attach → inject → replicate → assemble → lyse
- Lysogenic: viral DNA integrates as prophage, replicated with host
- Viroids: naked circular RNA, no capsid (plant disease)
- Prions: infectious proteins
Basic laboratory techniques
Past-paper questions (7)
- 2025 P1 Q39 — Coliform bacteria
- 2024 P2 Q4B — Sterilisation methods, nitrifiers, stains, phenol experiment
- 2021 (2022) P2 Q3C — Microaerophiles, heterocysts, sterilisation, food intoxication, vaccines, vinegar
- 2019 (New) P1 Q39 — Culture media
- 2019 (Old) P2 Q4C — Viruses, sterilisation, soil microbes, biopesticides
- 2018 P1 Q37 — Preparing heat-labile media
- 2017 P1 Q37 — Microbes as research tools
Sterilisation & control methods
| Method | Conditions / use |
|---|---|
| Autoclave (moist heat) | 121 °C, 15 psi (≈1 atm above), 15–20 min — media, glassware, kills endospores |
| Hot-air oven (dry heat) | 160–180 °C, 1–2 h — glassware, powders, oils |
| Flaming / incineration | Inoculating loops, needles; waste |
| Boiling | 100 °C — kills most pathogens, not spores |
| Pasteurisation | LTLT 63 °C 30 min; HTST 72 °C 15 s; UHT ~140 °C < 5 s (sterile, months unrefrigerated) |
| Filtration | Membrane filters — heat-sensitive liquids (enzymes, antibiotics) |
| Radiation | UV (surfaces, air); gamma (plastic syringes) |
| Chemicals | Ethylene oxide, chlorine dioxide (gases) |
Culture media
- Need: C and energy source, N source, minerals, growth factors, water, right pH
- Liquid (broth) or solid (with agar — not digested by most microbes, melts ~100 °C, sets ~40 °C)
- Nutrient agar (bacteria); potato dextrose agar (fungi)
- Selective and differential media
Aseptic technique & isolation
- Work near a flame / laminar flow; flame loop and bottle necks
- Streak plate → isolated colonies (pure culture)
- Pour plate, spread plate, serial dilution for counts
- Incubate plates inverted
Gram staining
Gram-positive: thick peptidoglycan → purple. Gram-negative: thin wall + outer membrane → pink/red.
Microorganisms and disease
Past-paper questions (17)
- 2026 P1 Q38 — Streptococcus diseases
- 2026 P2 Q9b — Toxigenicity of pathogens
- 2024 P1 Q40 — Filariasis transmission
- 2024 P2 Q10b — Prions
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q37 — Endotoxins & exotoxins
- 2023 (2024) P2 Q10c — Control of filariasis
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q49 — Water- & food-borne bacteria
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q38 — Antibiotic modes of action
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q50 — Dengue & filaria vector control
- 2020 P1 Q38 — Bacterial pathogenicity factors
- 2020 P1 Q40 — Disease–pathogen pairs
- 2019 (New) P1 Q40 — Waterborne diseases
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q40 — Food intoxication
- 2019 (Old) P2 Q9a — Normal human microbiota
- 2017 P1 Q38 — Antibiotic actions
- 2017 P1 Q40 — Pathogenicity factors
- 2016 P1 Q36 — Endotoxin-producing pathogens
Key terms
- Pathogen; opportunistic pathogen (e.g. E. coli outside the gut)
- Virulence — degree of pathogenicity
- Incubation period, carrier, reservoir, vector, endemic/epidemic/pandemic
- Normal microflora protect by competition
Virulence factors
- Adhesion (pili, capsules), invasion enzymes (hyaluronidase, coagulase)
- Capsules resist phagocytosis
- Endotoxins: lipopolysaccharide of Gram-negative walls, heat-stable, released on lysis, same general symptoms (fever, shock)
- Exotoxins: secreted proteins, mostly Gram-positive, heat-labile, highly specific (neurotoxins, enterotoxins, cytotoxins)
Important human diseases (by system)
| System | Disease — pathogen |
|---|---|
| Skin | Chickenpox — varicella-zoster virus; measles — measles virus; rubella — rubella virus |
| Eye | Conjunctivitis — bacteria or viruses |
| Nervous | Bacterial meningitis — Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae; tetanus — Clostridium tetani; rabies — rabies virus |
| Cardiovascular | Rheumatic fever — Streptococcus pyogenes |
| Respiratory | Tuberculosis — Mycobacterium tuberculosis; influenza — influenza virus; pneumonia — S. pneumoniae |
| Digestive | Hepatitis A — HAV; food poisoning — Staphylococcus aureus; cholera — Vibrio cholerae; typhoid — Salmonella typhi; dysentery — Shigella |
| Reproductive | Gonorrhoea — Neisseria gonorrhoeae; syphilis — Treponema pallidum; genital herpes — herpes simplex virus; AIDS — HIV |
Prevention & control
- Antiseptics (on living tissue — ethanol, isopropanol, chloroxylenol) vs disinfectants (on objects — bleach, phenolics)
- Immunisation (vaccines), hygiene, safe water, vector control, quarantine
Antibiotic targets
- Cell-wall synthesis — penicillin
- Protein synthesis (70S ribosome) — streptomycin, tetracycline
- Nucleic acid synthesis, cell membrane, metabolic pathways (sulphonamides)
- Antibiotics do not act on viruses; misuse → resistance
Microorganisms in industry
Past-paper questions (10)
- 2026 P1 Q39 — Microbes and their uses
- 2025 P2 Q4C — P-solubilising bacteria, B12, food spoilage, seed germination
- 2024 P1 Q37 — Fermentation processes & microbes
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q38 — Microbial metabolic products
- 2023 (2024) P2 Q9b — Microbes in vinegar & dairy
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q48 — Industrial microbiology
- 2019 (New) P1 Q49 — Industrial microbes
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q39 — Microbial enzyme production
- 2017 P1 Q36 — Microbes as food
- 2016 P1 Q40 — Bioleaching (Thiobacillus)
| Product | Microorganism / process |
|---|---|
| Bread, wine, beer, toddy, sake, ethanol | Saccharomyces cerevisiae — alcoholic fermentation (CO₂ raises dough) |
| Vinegar | Two steps: yeast ferments sugar → ethanol; Acetobacter oxidises ethanol → acetic acid (aerobic, incomplete oxidation) |
| Curd, yoghurt | Lactic acid bacteria (Lactobacillus bulgaricus, Streptococcus thermophilus) ferment lactose |
| Cheese | Streptococcus spp., Penicillium moulds (ripening) |
| Citric acid | Aspergillus niger on sucrose/molasses |
| Vitamin C (step), riboflavin | Acetobacter; fungal fermentation |
| Amylase | Aspergillus niger, A. oryzae, Bacillus subtilis |
| Penicillin | Penicillium chrysogenum |
| Insulin, hepatitis B vaccine | Genetically engineered E. coli / yeast |
| Probiotics | Live lactic acid bacteria — prevent pathogen colonisation, relieve diarrhoea |
| Biogas, biofuels | Anaerobic digestion (methanogens) → CH₄ + CO₂; ethanol from sugarcane |
Microbes in agriculture, environment, water and food
Past-paper questions (13)
- 2026 P1 Q49 — Industrial wastewater treatment
- 2025 P1 Q38 — Composting
- 2025 P2 Q9b — Industrial wastewater purification
- 2024 P2 Q4C — Methanotrophs, mycorrhizae, GM insulin, water treatment, spoilage, nano
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q50 — Secondary wastewater treatment
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q39 — Soil microbes & rhizosphere
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q40 — Primary wastewater treatment
- 2020 P1 Q39 — Microbes in nutrient cycles
- 2020 P1 Q50 — Drinking water treatment
- 2020 P2 Q9a — Microbes in agriculture
- 2018 P1 Q36 — Nitrosomonas
- 2016 P1 Q39 — Nitrosomonas & nitrification
- 2016 P2 Q7 — Soil microbes & C/N cycles
Soil microbes & agriculture
- Decomposition, humus formation, nutrient cycling (nitrification by Nitrosomonas → Nitrobacter)
- Rhizosphere — zone around roots rich in microbes
- Mycorrhizae — fungus–root mutualism; better P and water uptake
- Biofertilisers — Rhizobium, Azotobacter, cyanobacteria (Anabaena with Azolla in paddy)
- Biopesticides — Bacillus thuringiensis (most formulations Bt-based)
- Composting — aerobic conversion of plant remains to humus-like material
Environmental management
- Bioremediation — microbes degrade or detoxify pollutants (oil spills, heavy metals, pesticides)
- Solid waste: composting (aerobic), anaerobic digestion → biogas, sanitary landfill
Drinking water
- Coliforms = indicator organisms (Gram-negative rods, always present in faeces in large numbers) → faecal contamination
- Water-borne diseases: cholera, typhoid, dysentery, hepatitis A
Sewage treatment
| Stage | What happens |
|---|---|
| Primary | Physical: screening, grit and grease removal, sedimentation; no biology; removes 25–35% organic matter |
| Secondary | Aerobic microbes oxidise organic matter — activated sludge (aeration) or trickling filter; removes 75–95% |
| Sludge | Anaerobic digester → methane (biogas) |
| Tertiary | Removes N, P; disinfection |
Food spoilage
- Microbes use food nutrients → off-flavours, slime, gas, colour change, softening
- Internal factors: water activity, pH, nutrients, natural antimicrobials
- External factors: temperature, humidity, O₂, handling
- Food-borne pathogens: S. aureus, Salmonella, Shigella, Vibrio cholerae, Clostridium botulinum
Unit 9 — Model MCQs
Pick an answer to check it. Questions follow the past-paper style (five options, one correct).
9.1 Bacteria that obtain energy from oxidation of inorganic chemicals and carbon from CO₂ are Microbial diversity & structure
9.2 Which organism lacks a cell wall and is therefore resistant to penicillin? Microbial diversity & structure
9.3 Standard autoclave conditions are Microbial growth & lab techniques
9.4 Endotoxins are Microbes & disease
9.5 Which pair is correctly matched? Microbes & disease
9.6 In vinegar production, Acetobacter carries out Industrial & food microbiology
9.7 Coliform bacteria are used to test drinking water because they Environmental microbiology & waste treatment
9.8 Which stage of sewage treatment uses aerobic microorganisms in activated sludge or trickling filters? Environmental microbiology & waste treatment
Unit 9 — Structured & essay practice
Structured Describe the steps in drinking water treatment and explain why coliforms are used as indicators.
Show marking points
- Sedimentation and coagulation with alum
- Sand filtration (removes ~99% bacteria and protozoan cysts); activated carbon
- Disinfection by chlorination or ozone
- Coliforms: always present in large numbers in human faeces
- Easy to culture/detect; presence indicates faecal contamination and possible pathogens
Essay (Q9 style) Describe the uses of microorganisms in industry and agriculture.
Show marking points
- Yeast: bread, alcohol, ethanol fuel
- Acetobacter: vinegar (two-stage)
- Lactic acid bacteria: curd, yoghurt, cheese, probiotics
- Aspergillus niger: citric acid, amylase
- Penicillium chrysogenum: penicillin; engineered E. coli: insulin
- Biogas by anaerobic digestion; bioremediation
- Biofertilisers: Rhizobium, Azotobacter, Anabaena–Azolla
- Biopesticides: Bacillus thuringiensis; mycorrhizae; composting
Applied Biology
Applied biology. Short-note material for essay Q10. Learn lists of characteristics, methods and examples.
Aquaculture and ornamental fish culture
Past-paper questions (5)
- 2026 P1 Q50 — Fish species for culture
- 2025 P2 Q10c — Environmental impact of ornamental fish culture
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q39 — Ornamental fish immunity
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q50 — Aquarium maintenance
- 2021 (2022) P2 Q10c — Culturable fish characteristics
FAO: aquaculture is the farming of aquatic organisms — fish, molluscs, crustaceans and aquatic plants. It supplies protein for a growing population and eases pressure on wild stocks.
Characteristics of a culturable species
- Tolerates local climate and water conditions; fast growth
- Easy to breed; hatchery and rearing techniques known
- Hardy at all stages; disease resistant
- Known feeding habits; accepts formulated feed; efficient feed converter
- Does not breed in grow-out ponds; late sexual maturity is an advantage
- Tolerates high stocking density
- No adverse impact if it escapes; acceptable to consumers (taste, colour)
Common ornamental fish
| Live-bearers | Egg-layers |
|---|---|
| Guppy (Poecilia reticulata), black molly (P. mexicana), swordtail (Xiphophorus helleri), platy (X. maculatus) | Angelfish (Pterophyllum scalare), discus (Symphysodon), Siamese fighting fish (Betta splendens, bubble nest), kissing gourami, goldfish (Carassius auratus), koi carp (Cyprinus carpio) |
Home aquarium maintenance
- Filtration and aeration; partial water change, dechlorinated water
- Correct stocking density, compatible species
- Do not overfeed (uneaten food → ammonia, poor water quality)
- Monitor temperature, pH; quarantine new fish
Fish diseases
| Cause | Disease |
|---|---|
| Bacteria | Fin rot and gill rot, haemorrhagic septicaemia, columnaris |
| Fungi | External mycosis (cotton-wool growth on injuries) |
| Unicellular parasites | Ich / white spot (Ichthyophthirius), trichodinosis |
| Multicellular parasites | Gill and skin flukes |
Most outbreaks start with stress: poor water quality, overstocking, handling.
Environmental impact
- Escape of exotic species → invasive populations, competition with natives
- Spread of pathogens to wild fish
- Over-collection of wild fish; effluent pollution
- Use best management practices (BMPs)
Nursery management and plant propagation
Past-paper questions (4)
- 2026 P2 Q4C — Adventitious roots, nano smart drugs (partial page)
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q40 — Floriculture propagation methods
- 2019 (Old) P2 Q10a — Micropropagation
- 2017 P1 Q29 — Plant tissue culture
Nursery management issues
- Light — quality (wavelength) and duration (photoperiod)
- Soil / potting media — texture, structure, organic matter, fertiliser
- Water — quality, quantity, humidity (critical for rooting cuttings)
- Pests & diseases — integrated pest management
- Structures — greenhouses, polytunnels, shade nets vs open air
Sexual (seed) propagation
- Cheap, many plants, genetic variation
- Seed quality, dormancy-breaking, sowing depth, pricking out, hardening off
- Offspring may not be true-to-type
Vegetative (asexual) propagation
| Method | Key points | Examples |
|---|---|---|
| Separation & division | Natural structures separated or cut | Rhizomes, bulbs, corms, suckers |
| Stem cuttings | Need only new adventitious roots; auxin (IBA/NAA) promotes rooting | Rose, hibiscus, croton |
| Leaf cuttings | Need both new shoot and root systems | Begonia, African violet, snake plant (Sansevieria) |
| Layering | Stem rooted while still attached to the parent (simple, air layering / marcotting); self-layering | Strawberry, Cynodon, guava, lime |
| Grafting / budding | Scion (top) joined to rootstock; cambium-to-cambium contact; callus bridge forms from both | Mango, rambutan, rose, citrus |
Tissue culture (micropropagation)
- Principle: totipotency — one cell carries the full programme for a whole plant (Haberlandt)
- Medium (e.g. Murashige & Skoog, MS): inorganic salts, sucrose, vitamins, growth regulators, agar, water; aseptic
- High auxin : cytokinin → roots; high cytokinin : auxin → shoots; balanced → callus
Why tissue culture matters
- Rapid mass production of identical clones year-round
- Disease-free (virus-free from meristem culture) planting material
- Propagates plants with poor seed set (orchids, banana)
- Germplasm conservation; supports genetic engineering
Food preservation and postharvest losses
Past-paper questions (6)
- 2026 P2 Q10c — Postharvest losses in storage
- 2025 P1 Q48 — Domestic food processing in SL
- 2024 P1 Q39 — Food preservation methods
- 2021 (2022) P2 Q9b — Chemical changes in microbial food spoilage
- 2019 (New) P1 Q50 — Food spoilage
- 2018 P1 Q40 — Canning principles
Three principles
- Prevent or delay microbial decomposition (keep out, remove, inhibit or kill microbes)
- Prevent or delay self-decomposition (inactivate enzymes, slow chemical reactions)
- Prevent damage by insects, rodents and mechanical causes
Methods
| Method | How it works |
|---|---|
| Heat — pasteurisation, sterilisation, canning | Kills microbes, inactivates enzymes; canning = heat + hermetic seal |
| Freezing (−18 to −30 °C) | Stops microbial growth; long storage |
| Chilling (4–7 °C) | Slows growth; ~10–14 days |
| Drying / dehydration | Lowers water activity |
| Salting, salting + drying | Osmotic water loss (dried fish, lime pickle) |
| Sugaring | Osmotic stress (jam, ash-pumpkin sweets) |
| Smoking | Antimicrobial and antioxidant compounds + drying |
| Chemicals | Sodium benzoate, EDTA, acetic acid, brine (fruit juice, pickles) |
| Irradiation | Gamma rays, X-rays, electron beams — spices, ground meat; kills pathogens, insects |
Postharvest losses
- Types: weight loss (spoilage), quality loss, nutritional loss
- Harvesting — untimely harvest, mechanical injury
- Handling — bruising, contamination
- Transport — crushing in stacked crates, heat, shaking (use rigid stackable crates, padding, night transport)
- Storage — most critical in developing countries: moisture, insects, rodents, microbes (dry paddy, cold rooms)
- Domestic processing — improper methods, poor hygiene
Dengue and filaria
Past-paper questions (17)
- 2026 P1 Q38 — Streptococcus diseases
- 2026 P2 Q9b — Toxigenicity of pathogens
- 2024 P1 Q40 — Filariasis transmission
- 2024 P2 Q10b — Prions
- 2023 (2024) P1 Q37 — Endotoxins & exotoxins
- 2023 (2024) P2 Q10c — Control of filariasis
- 2022 (2023) P1 Q49 — Water- & food-borne bacteria
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q38 — Antibiotic modes of action
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q50 — Dengue & filaria vector control
- 2020 P1 Q38 — Bacterial pathogenicity factors
- 2020 P1 Q40 — Disease–pathogen pairs
- 2019 (New) P1 Q40 — Waterborne diseases
- 2019 (Old) P1 Q40 — Food intoxication
- 2019 (Old) P2 Q9a — Normal human microbiota
- 2017 P1 Q38 — Antibiotic actions
- 2017 P1 Q40 — Pathogenicity factors
- 2016 P1 Q36 — Endotoxin-producing pathogens
| Dengue | Lymphatic filariasis | |
|---|---|---|
| Agent | Dengue virus — RNA arbovirus (4 serotypes) | Nematode; ~90% of global cases Wuchereria bancrofti |
| Vector | Female Aedes aegypti, Ae. albopictus (day-biters, black with white bands, 4–7 mm) | In Sri Lanka only Culex quinquefasciatus (night-biter, grey-black, 3–4 mm) |
| Breeding sites | Clean water in artificial containers — tyres, coconut shells, gutters, tanks, refrigerator trays, flower vases, leaf axils | Polluted water — blocked drains, broken septic/toilet pits, husk pits; eggs laid as floating rafts |
| Disease | Incubation 4–10 days; sudden high fever (40 °C), headache, retro-orbital pain, muscle/joint pain, rash, 2–7 days. Severe dengue (DHF): plasma leakage, bleeding, low platelets, shock — warning signs as fever falls | L3 larvae enter through the bite wound → adults in lymphatics (live 5–6 years) → microfilariae in blood at night (lungs by day). Lymphoedema, elephantiasis, hydrocele; occult filariasis (eosinophilia, night cough) |
| Control | Integrated vector management — environmental (remove breeding sites, cover tanks, clean drains, proper waste and tyre disposal), biological (larvivorous fish: guppy, dandi Rasbora daniconius, juvenile tilapia; Bacillus thuringiensis israelensis toxin kills larvae), chemical (thermal fogging, larvicides), personal (nets, repellents, long clothing); mass drug administration for filaria | |
Nanotechnology, stem cells and the Human Genome Project
Past-paper questions (3)
- 2025 P1 Q40 — Embryonic vs adult stem cells
- 2024 P2 Q10c — Applications of stem cells
- 2021 (2022) P1 Q49 — Stem cells
Nanotechnology & nanomedicine
- Structures at 1–100 nm (1 nm = 10⁻⁹ m); idea popularised by Richard Feynman (1959)
- TiO₂ and silver nanoparticles — sterilising theatres and instruments, antimicrobial coatings, nano-filters (block viruses)
- Nano-sensors for blood pressure, O₂, hormones
- "Smart drugs" — gold nanoparticles target cancer cells; gold nanoshells for cancer therapy and imaging
- Insulin-releasing nano-devices for diabetes; nano-liposomes for pain drugs; airway delivery
- VivaGel (microbicide against HIV/HSV); nanocomposites for bone and dental fillings
Stem cells
- Undifferentiated, self-renewing, can differentiate
- Embryonic (ES): inner cell mass (~30 cells) of a 5–7-day blastocyst (~100 cells) → pluripotent (all 200+ cell types); ethical concerns
- Adult: tissue-specific, multipotent — epidermal, intestinal, haemopoietic (blood), neural; stay "faithful to origin"
- iPSCs (2006): adult cells reprogrammed to pluripotency — no embryos, patient-matched
- Uses: bone-marrow transplant for leukaemia, tissue engineering (heart muscle, spinal neurons), research on Parkinson's, Alzheimer's, diabetes, stroke; gene therapy
Human Genome Project (1990–2003)
- Led by US DOE and NIH, with UK, Japan, France, Germany, Australia, China
- Aims: identify all genes (~20,000 protein-coding), sequence ~3 billion base pairs, store data, improve analysis tools, transfer technology, address ethical, legal and social issues
- Benefits: diagnosis, cancer mutations, drug design, gene therapy, human evolution
- Revealed large amounts of intergenic DNA, probably with regulatory roles
- Other completed genomes: E. coli, yeast, mouse, Arabidopsis, rice
Unit 10 — Model MCQs
Pick an answer to check it. Questions follow the past-paper style (five options, one correct).
10.1 Which is a desirable characteristic of a species selected for aquaculture? Aquaculture & animal production
10.2 For a successful graft union, it is essential that Plant propagation & tissue culture
10.3 The principle underlying plant tissue culture is Plant propagation & tissue culture
10.4 Salting and sugaring preserve food mainly by Food science & postharvest
10.5 Which is correct about filariasis vector in Sri Lanka? Microbes & disease
10.6 Embryonic stem cells are obtained from the Biotech in medicine & nanotechnology
10.7 Silver and titanium dioxide nanoparticles are used in hospitals mainly for Biotech in medicine & nanotechnology
Unit 10 — Structured & essay practice
Short notes (Q10) Write short notes on (a) control of dengue vectors (b) stem cells.
Show marking points
- (a) Aedes breeds in clean water containers
- Environmental: remove breeding sites, cover tanks, clean gutters, dispose tyres
- Biological: guppy, dandi, juvenile tilapia; Bti toxin
- Chemical: fogging, larvicides; personal protection
- (b) Undifferentiated, self-renewing, can differentiate
- Embryonic (inner cell mass, pluripotent) vs adult (multipotent) vs iPSCs
- Applications: bone-marrow transplant for leukaemia, tissue engineering; ethical issues
Structured State the principles of food preservation and explain how three methods work.
Show marking points
- Prevent microbial decomposition; prevent self-decomposition (enzymes); prevent insect/rodent/mechanical damage
- Heat (pasteurisation/canning) kills microbes, inactivates enzymes
- Freezing/chilling slows or stops growth
- Salting/sugaring: osmotic dehydration of microbes
- Drying lowers water activity; smoking; chemicals (sodium benzoate); irradiation
A+ strategy & fast-track planner
Week 1 Foundation
- Units 1–2: biomolecules, cells, membranes, division
- Enzymes, photosynthesis, respiration flows
- Unit 2 MCQs + one Q5-style essay
Week 2 Diversity
- Unit 3 classification tables (highest yield per page)
- Evolution and taxonomy
- Make a one-page phylum chart
Week 3 Plants
- Unit 4: tissues, transport, nutrition
- Reproduction and hormones (hormone-pair table)
- One Q6-style essay
Weeks 4–5 Animals
- Unit 5 — two systems per day
- Draw and label: heart, nephron, eye, ear, neurone, sarcomere
- Two Q7/Q8 essays per week
Week 6 Genetics & molecular
- Unit 6 problems daily (ratios, pedigrees, Hardy–Weinberg)
- Unit 7 sequences and enzymes; PCR, cloning
Week 7 Applied
- Units 8–10: tables of conventions, zones, organisms, products, diseases
- Write 6 short notes (Q10 practice)
Week 8 Exam mode
- Two full past papers under timed conditions
- Mark with marking schemes; log every mistake
- Re-read all red trap boxes
Daily habit 30 min
- 10 MCQs from mixed units
- Redraw one flowchart from memory
- Review yesterday's mistakes
Paper I technique
- Read the last line of the stem first: “correct”, “incorrect”, “NOT”.
- For multi-statement items (A, B, C), judge each statement separately, then match the combination.
- Eliminate options with absolute words (“always”, “only”) unless you are sure.
- Mark doubtful items and move on; return with the time saved.
- Use the NIE figures and wording — the marking scheme follows the resource books.
Paper II technique
- Structured: answer in the space given; one fact per mark; use exact terms.
- Essays score by points: plan 15–20 numbered points before writing.
- Follow the flow of the process (as in the flowcharts here); name the location, enzyme and product at each step.
- Add a labelled diagram where it saves words — it earns marks too.
- Short notes (Q10): definition → features/steps → examples → significance.
Final-week checklist
- All “every-paper” subtopics revised
- Hormone tables (plant and animal) memorised
- Genetics ratios and Hardy–Weinberg practised
- Classification chart memorised
- Conventions, Ramsar sites and climatic zones learned
- Pathogen–disease and microbe–product tables learned
- Two full timed papers completed
Knowledge • Practice • Higher Futures
This Fast Track Work Package was prepared by MEDVision Global Academy under the academic guidance of Dr. Muthunu Akurugodagama.
Notes are original study material aligned to the NIE G.C.E. (A/L) Biology syllabus. Past-paper references list the Department of Examinations papers by year and question number for practice.
G.C.E. (Advanced Level) — Biology
Old syllabus (pre-2019) · Re-set practice paper
Every question tests the same concept as question of the same number in the 2016 paper, re-written by MEDVision. Source coverage: Paper I + full Paper II.
In germinating castor seeds, stored triacylglycerols are converted into sucrose that supports the growing seedling. In which organelle are the glyoxylate-cycle enzymes for this conversion located?
- 1Mitochondrion
- 2Glyoxysome
- 3Leucoplast
- 4Lysosome
- 5Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Which one of the following generalisations about prokaryotic organisms is valid?
- 1Every prokaryote obtains its carbon from organic compounds made by other organisms.
- 2Peptidoglycan is found in the cell walls of some prokaryotes but is absent from others.
- 3Every prokaryote can reduce atmospheric N₂ to ammonia.
- 4Prokaryotic cells carry out protein synthesis without ribosomes.
- 5All prokaryotes possess a nucleus bounded by a double membrane.
Analysis of a double-stranded DNA sample shows that 18% of its bases are cytosine. What percentage of its bases would be adenine?
- 132%
- 218%
- 336%
- 464%
- 582%
Which pairing of a cell component with its function is incorrect?
- 1Smooth endoplasmic reticulum – synthesis of lipids
- 2Centrosome – organisation of microtubules in animal cells
- 3Glyoxysome – oxidation of glycolate during photorespiration in leaves
- 4Lysosome – intracellular digestion
- 5Ribosome – synthesis of polypeptides
A yeast cell growing without oxygen, a human skeletal muscle fibre in oxygen debt and a well-oxygenated liver cell all break down glucose. Which stage is common to all three?
- 1Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA
- 2Splitting of glucose into two molecules of pyruvate in the cytosol
- 3Oxidation of acetyl groups in the Krebs cycle
- 4ATP synthesis driven by an electron transport chain
- 5Reduction of oxygen to water
Which statement comparing C₄ plants (for example maize) with C₃ plants (for example rice) is incorrect?
- 1C₄ plants fix CO₂ twice, in two different cell types.
- 2In C₄ plants the first CO₂ acceptor in mesophyll cells is phosphoenolpyruvate.
- 3The first stable product in C₄ plants is the four-carbon oxaloacetate.
- 4In bright light and high temperatures, C₄ plants usually have a lower photosynthetic yield than C₃ plants.
- 5Photorespiration is negligible in C₄ plants.
Four plants, P, Q, R and S, each show one of these features. P: produces two kinds of spores. Q: has a photosynthetic gametophyte. R: does not produce seeds. S: has a thalloid gametophyte. Which option gives P, Q, R and S in the correct order?
- 1Selaginella, Pinus, Cycas, Pogonatum
- 2Cycas, Pogonatum, Selaginella, Marchantia
- 3Nephrolepis, Marchantia, Cycas, Pogonatum
- 4Lycopodium, Pinus, Nephrolepis, Marchantia
- 5Pogonatum, Nephrolepis, Mango, Marchantia
The rank 'phylum' was added to the hierarchy of classification by
- 1Ernst Haeckel.
- 2Carolus Linnaeus.
- 3Robert Whittaker.
- 4Carl Woese.
- 5Charles Darwin.
Which pair of phyla consists of organisms whose main carbohydrate reserve is glycogen?
- 1Bryophyta and Phaeophyta
- 2Chlorophyta and Ascomycota
- 3Ascomycota and Mollusca
- 4Chordata and Cycadophyta
- 5Chrysophyta and Basidiomycota
A fast-moving, flattened terrestrial arthropod has one pair of antennae, a pair of poison claws behind the head, and a single pair of walking legs on each trunk segment. To which class does it belong?
- 1Insecta
- 2Diplopoda
- 3Chilopoda
- 4Arachnida
- 5Crustacea
A deficiency of each vitamin in which of the following groups can lead to anaemia?
- 1Thiamin, niacin and vitamin D
- 2Vitamin A, vitamin D and vitamin K
- 3Riboflavin, pantothenic acid and biotin
- 4Cobalamin (B₁₂), pyridoxine (B₆) and folic acid
- 5Thiamin, biotin and vitamin K
Which statement about human breathing and gas exchange is correct?
- 1The left lung is divided into three lobes.
- 2Oxygen crosses the alveolar wall by active transport.
- 3Contraction of the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles lowers intrapulmonary pressure below atmospheric pressure.
- 4The trachea is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.
- 5Quiet expiration requires contraction of the internal intercostal muscles.
Which statement about human blood is incorrect?
- 1Most of the carbon dioxide in blood is carried bound to haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin.
- 2Blood is a fluid connective tissue.
- 3A mature red blood cell has no nucleus and no mitochondria.
- 4Monocytes leave the blood and develop into phagocytic macrophages.
- 5Blood distributes heat around the body.
The heartbeat is started and spread by specialised cardiac tissue. Which structure is not part of this conducting system?
- 1Sino-atrial node
- 2Atrioventricular node
- 3Chordae tendineae
- 4Atrioventricular bundle (bundle of His)
- 5Purkinje fibres
A well-watered potted plant is kept overnight in a dark, humid room. Which process is most likely to increase compared with daytime?
- 1Transpiration through stomata
- 2Uptake of mineral ions carried by the transpiration stream
- 3Guttation through hydathodes
- 4Xylem flow driven by cohesion–tension
- 5Stomatal opening
Which statement about translocation in the phloem is incorrect?
- 1In many plants, sucrose is loaded into sieve tubes by active transport.
- 2A sprouting potato tuber can act as a sugar source.
- 3Sap moves by pressure flow from a source to a sink.
- 4Developing fruits generally act as sinks.
- 5Sucrose passes from one sieve tube element to the next mainly through the cell walls (apoplast).
Which statement about human growth hormone (somatotrophin) is incorrect?
- 1It is secreted by cells of the adenohypophysis.
- 2Its release is stimulated by GHRH and inhibited by somatostatin.
- 3It promotes the deposition of fat in adipose tissue.
- 4Many of its growth effects are mediated by IGF-1 from the liver.
- 5It tends to raise the blood glucose level.
Which statement about the human brain is incorrect?
- 1Broca's area, which controls speech production, lies in the frontal lobe.
- 2The cerebellum coordinates posture and balance.
- 3The hypothalamus contains centres that regulate body temperature.
- 4The reflex centres for sneezing and swallowing lie in the pons.
- 5The corpus callosum is a band of white matter that links the two cerebral hemispheres.
Which statement about an action potential in a myelinated human motor axon is incorrect?
- 1Once threshold is reached, it is all-or-none.
- 2No second action potential can be fired during the absolute refractory period.
- 3Along a myelinated axon, it is regenerated only at the nodes of Ranvier.
- 4The depolarisation phase passes directly into hyperpolarisation, without a repolarisation phase.
- 5It lasts only a few milliseconds.
Which statement about excretion is incorrect?
- 1Removal of CO₂ through the lungs is excretion.
- 2Elimination of undigested cellulose in faeces is excretion.
- 3Bilirubin from the breakdown of haem is an excretory product.
- 4Excreting ammonia needs less energy than making urea or uric acid.
- 5Failure of excretion can alter blood pH.
Which property is not typical of human visceral smooth muscle?
- 1It is supplied by autonomic nerves.
- 2It can maintain tone for long periods using little energy.
- 3It contracts rapidly and fatigues quickly.
- 4Some of it shows spontaneous rhythmic contractions, as in peristalsis.
- 5It can be stretched and still maintain tension.
Which statement about the contraction of a skeletal muscle sarcomere is incorrect?
- 1The A band shortens because the thick filaments themselves shorten.
- 2Both the I band and the H zone become narrower.
- 3The length of the A band does not change.
- 4Ca²⁺ released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum binds to troponin.
- 5Every cross-bridge cycle uses ATP.
Which statement about the human scapula is incorrect?
- 1It is a flat, triangular bone on the posterolateral wall of the thorax.
- 2Its glenoid cavity lies on the medial (vertebral) border and receives the head of the humerus.
- 3Its acromion articulates with the clavicle.
- 4A prominent spine runs across its posterior surface.
- 5The coracoid process projects forward from its upper border.
Which statement about the human lower limb is incorrect?
- 1The patella is a sesamoid bone in the quadriceps tendon.
- 2Each lower limb contains 30 bones.
- 3Each femur runs parallel to the median plane of the body from hip to knee.
- 4The fibula does not take part in the knee joint.
- 5The foot has both longitudinal and transverse arches.
Which statement about the human male reproductive system is incorrect?
- 1Sertoli cells secrete the hormone inhibin.
- 2Leydig cells secrete testosterone in response to LH.
- 3Sperm complete capacitation inside the female reproductive tract.
- 4Fluid from the seminal vesicles supplies glucose as the main energy source for sperm.
- 5One cycle of spermatogenesis takes roughly two and a half months.
Which of these structures of the human male reproductive system occurs singly rather than as a pair?
- 1Bulbourethral gland
- 2Epididymis
- 3Prostate gland
- 4Seminal vesicle
- 5Vas deferens
A healthy leaf blade releases a growth substance that keeps the abscission zone at the base of its petiole from developing, so the leaf is not shed. Which substance is this?
- 1Ethylene
- 2Abscisic acid
- 3Indole-3-acetic acid (auxin)
- 4Gibberellic acid
- 5Cytokinin
In a four-o'clock plant, crossing pure-breeding red-flowered and pure-breeding ivory-flowered plants gives all pink F₁ plants. Selfing the F₁ gives red, pink and ivory plants in a 1 : 2 : 1 ratio. This is an example of
- 1co-dominance.
- 2incomplete dominance.
- 3epistasis.
- 4multiple alleles.
- 5gene linkage.
The template strand of a gene contains the base triplet GTA. Which option correctly gives the corresponding mRNA codon and tRNA anticodon?
- 1mRNA CAU; tRNA GUA
- 2mRNA GUA; tRNA CAU
- 3mRNA GTA; tRNA CAT
- 4mRNA CAU; tRNA GTA
- 5mRNA CAT; tRNA GUA
A pure-breeding tall pea plant with round seeds is crossed with a pure-breeding dwarf plant with wrinkled seeds. All F₁ plants are tall with round seeds. If 160 F₂ plants are raised, how many are expected to be tall with round seeds?
- 110
- 230
- 360
- 490
- 5120
A woman of normal phenotype whose father had haemophilia marries a man with haemophilia. Her mother was not a carrier. Which statement about their children is correct?
- 1All of their daughters will have haemophilia.
- 2All of their sons will have haemophilia.
- 3None of their daughters can have haemophilia.
- 4Only 25% of their children are expected to have haemophilia.
- 5Half of all their children are expected to be unaffected.
Which statement about when major groups of organisms first appeared in the fossil record is incorrect?
- 1Mammals and dinosaurs both first appeared in the Triassic period.
- 2Flowering plants diversified rapidly in the Cretaceous period.
- 3The earliest insects arose in the Palaeozoic era.
- 4Conifers first appeared in the Cenozoic era.
- 5Placental mammals originated in the Cretaceous period.
Which terrestrial biome has the smallest annual range of temperature?
- 1Tundra
- 2Tropical rain forest
- 3Taiga
- 4Hot desert
- 5Temperate grassland
Which statement about the phosphorus cycle is correct?
- 1The largest reservoir of phosphorus is living biomass.
- 2The cycle has a major gaseous phase.
- 3Human activities have negligible effects on the cycle.
- 4Plant roots absorb phosphorus mainly as dihydrogen phosphate ions (H₂PO₄⁻).
- 5Phosphorus is returned to rock mainly by nitrifying bacteria.
Consider these species found in Sri Lanka: A – Annona glabra; B – Macaca sinica; C – Chelonia mydas; D – Elephas maximus; E – Loris tardigradus. Which statement about them is correct?
- 1Two of them are invasive alien species.
- 2Two of them are endemic to Sri Lanka.
- 3One of them is extinct in the wild.
- 4None of them is listed as threatened.
- 5All of them are native to Sri Lanka.
Which food-borne pathogen produces its illness largely through a lipopolysaccharide endotoxin in its outer membrane?
- 1Salmonella Typhi
- 2Staphylococcus aureus
- 3Clostridium botulinum
- 4Bacillus cereus
- 5Clostridium perfringens
Which statement about prions is incorrect?
- 1They are infectious particles made of protein.
- 2They convert normal host prion protein into the abnormal folded form.
- 3They cause transmissible spongiform encephalopathies.
- 4They can pass from cattle to humans through infected tissue.
- 5They replicate by using their own RNA as a template.
Which vaccine used for active immunisation is produced by recombinant DNA technology?
- 1Tetanus toxoid
- 2BCG vaccine
- 3Live attenuated measles vaccine
- 4Hepatitis B vaccine
- 5Inactivated cell-culture rabies vaccine
Which conversion in the nitrogen cycle is carried out by Nitrosomonas?
- 1NH₄⁺ → NO₂⁻
- 2N₂ → NH₃
- 3NO₂⁻ → NO₃⁻
- 4NO₃⁻ → N₂
- 5Organic nitrogen → NH₄⁺
Copper can be recovered from low-grade sulphide ores by microbial leaching. Which organism is used for this?
- 1Bacillus thuringiensis
- 2Penicillium chrysogenum
- 3Thiobacillus (Acidithiobacillus) ferrooxidans
- 4Lactobacillus acidophilus
- 5Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Which of the following are formed during oxidative phosphorylation on the inner mitochondrial membrane?
A – ATP
B – Water
C – NAD⁺
D – CO₂
E – Pyruvate
- 1A and D only
- 2A, B and C only
- 3A, B, C and D only
- 4B and E only
- 5C, D and E only
Which of the following polysaccharides are not made of glucose units?
A – Inulin
B – Amylopectin
C – Chitin
D – Pectin
E – Cellulose
- 1A and B only
- 2B and E only
- 3A, C and D only
- 4C and D only
- 5A, C, D and E only
Which of the following features occur in at least some members of both Chordata and Mollusca?
A – Gills used for gas exchange
B – Radula
C – Well-developed camera-type eyes
D – Notochord
E – Internal fertilisation
- 1A and B only
- 2B and D only
- 3A, C and E only
- 4C and D only
- 5A, B, C and E only
Which of the following pairings of nutrition type and example are correct?
A – Symbiotic – Cuscuta
B – Photoautotrophic – purple sulphur bacteria
C – Saprotrophic – Rhizopus
D – Chemoautotrophic – Nitrosomonas
E – Holozoic – Nepenthes
- 1B, C and D only
- 2A, B and C only
- 3C and D only
- 4A and E only
- 5B, D and E only
Which of the following statements about the Na⁺/K⁺ pump in a neurone are correct?
A – Each cycle moves three Na⁺ ions out and two K⁺ ions in.
B – It is located in the myelin sheath formed by Schwann cells.
C – Poisons that stop ATP production eventually stop the pump.
D – It helps to maintain the resting membrane potential.
E – It pumps K⁺ out of the neurone.
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3A and B only
- 4C and D only
- 5C, D and E only
Which of the following affect the daily urine output of a healthy adult?
A – Plasma ADH concentration
B – Environmental temperature
C – Fluid intake
D – Glomerular filtration rate
E – Activity of hypothalamic osmoreceptors
- 1A, C and E only
- 2A, B and C only
- 3A, D and E only
- 4C and D only
- 5All of A, B, C, D and E
Which of the following statements about the human placenta are correct?
A – It is a chorio-allantoic placenta.
B – It secretes human chorionic gonadotrophin.
C – Maternal and fetal blood normally do not mix in it.
D – It allows maternal IgG antibodies to pass to the fetus.
E – Water can cross it in both directions.
- 1A, B and C only
- 2B, C and D only
- 3A, C and E only
- 4B and D only
- 5All of A, B, C, D and E
Which of the following statements about the human uterus are incorrect?
A – Fertilisation normally takes place in the uterine cavity.
B – Its middle layer, the myometrium, is smooth muscle.
C – The endometrium is lined by stratified squamous epithelium.
D – Progesterone reduces the excitability of the myometrium during pregnancy.
E – Near term, oestrogen increases the uterine response to oxytocin.
- 1A and B only
- 2A and C only
- 3C and D only
- 4B, D and E only
- 5A, C and E only
Which of the following features are not shared by all phyla of vascular plants?
A – Production of seeds
B – Presence of xylem and phloem
C – A free-living photosynthetic gametophyte
D – Heterospory
E – A dominant sporophyte generation
- 1A and B only
- 2B and E only
- 3A, C and D only
- 4C and D only
- 5A, B, C and D only
Which of the following statements on genetic terminology are correct?
A – Alleles are alternative forms of a gene at the same locus.
B – A test cross is a cross with a homozygous dominant individual.
C – In blood group AB, the alleles Iᴬ and Iᴮ are co-dominant.
D – A gene is the basic unit of inheritance of a particular character.
E – An organism that is homozygous at a locus carries two different alleles there.
- 1A, C and D only
- 2A, B and D only
- 3A and B only
- 4C and D only
- 5A, C, D and E only
(i) Explain what is meant by a biological macromolecule.
(ii) List the three classes of macromolecule found in living cells.
(iii) Name the main disaccharide in (a) the stem of the sugarcane plant and (b) a germinating cereal grain, and give the monosaccharides that make up each one.
(iv) Which monosaccharide is a component of both ATP and NAD?
(v) Give two properties that set lipids apart from the other major classes of biological molecules.
(vi) List five different kinds of lipid found in living organisms.
(i) Define the term mutation.
(ii) Explain why mutations are important in evolution.
(iii) Give three human genetic disorders caused by mutations, and state the kind of mutation involved in each.
(i) Define Biological (Biochemical) Oxygen Demand (BOD).
(ii) Describe the effects on an aquatic ecosystem when large volumes of effluent with a high BOD are released into it.
(iii) Name two oxidation processes used in modern wastewater treatment plants to reduce BOD.
(iv) Open dumping of municipal solid waste is a serious problem in Sri Lanka. State the harmful effects of dumping solid waste on open land.
(v) Suggest ways to reduce the problems of solid waste disposal.
(i) Define homeostasis.
(ii) Give three conditions of the internal environment that are kept under homeostatic control in humans.
(iii) Give two benefits of homeostasis to humans.
(iv) Give one cost (disadvantage) of homeostasis.
(v) State four ways in which the liver helps to maintain homeostasis.
(vi) Give two examples of positive feedback in the human body.
(i) Define lactation.
(ii) Name the component present in the largest amount in human breast milk.
(iii) Name two hormones from the placenta that prepare the mammary glands.
(iv) Give two constituents of colostrum.
(v) Describe the role of oxytocin in breastfeeding.
(vi) Name two hormones that suppress milk production.
(vii) Give three benefits of breastfeeding.
(i) List the three basic functions of the human nervous system.
(ii) Name two animal phyla whose members have a double ventral nerve cord.
(iii) Name one phylum whose members have radial nerves.
(iv) Give two advantages of control by the nervous system over control by hormones.
(v) Define a sensory receptor.
(vi) Give three general properties of sensory receptors.
(vii) Name three types of receptor in human skin that respond to touch or pressure.
Five invertebrates, A–E, have the following external features.
A – dorsoventrally flattened, bilateral body with eye spots
B – cylindrical, radially symmetrical body with tentacles surrounding the mouth
C – cylindrical, bilateral, segmented body bearing many setae and no clitellum
D – cylindrical, bilateral, segmented body with a clitellum
E – bell- or umbrella-shaped, radially symmetrical body with tentacles fringing its margin
(i) Build a four-couplet dichotomous key that separates A–E, using body symmetry, body shape, the position of the tentacles and the presence of a clitellum.
(ii) Name the class to which each of A–E belongs.
(i) Name the parts seen in a longitudinal section of a mature, unfertilised angiosperm ovule, including the contents of the embryo sac.
(ii) Describe what each main part of the ovary becomes after fertilisation.
A student drew the elements of the two vascular tissues of an angiosperm, P and Q, and labelled them A–J. The labels were: A – perforated end wall between two vessel members; B – pits on the side wall of a vessel member; C – the vessel member itself; D – pits on an elongated, tapering water-conducting cell; E – a thick-walled supporting fibre in P; F – a perforated cross wall between conducting cells in Q; G – a small nucleated cell lying beside a conducting cell in Q; H – the enucleate conducting cell in Q; I – pore-bearing areas on the side walls of the conducting cell in Q; J – a thick-walled supporting fibre in Q.
(i) Name the tissues P and Q.
(ii) Give the correct biological name of each of the elements A–J.
(i) Define an ecosystem.
(ii) Name the main biotic components of an ecosystem.
(iii) Describe how these biotic components are linked to each other.
(iv) Define the term ecological niche.
(v) (a) Explain what is meant by gross primary productivity (GPP).
(b) Name the main primary producers in (1) the open ocean and (2) a montane patana grassland.
(i) Define a biome.
(ii) Name three major terrestrial biomes of the tropical regions.
(iii) Which terrestrial biome covers the largest area of the Earth?
(iv) Define a keystone species.
(v) Explain the idea of a flagship species in conservation.
(i) Define global warming.
(ii) (a) List five atmospheric gases that contribute to global warming.
(b) Explain how these gases cause the Earth's surface to warm.
(iii) Explain what an invasive species is, giving an example.
(iv) Describe the ways in which agricultural practices lead to loss of biodiversity.
Describe the chemical composition of proteins and explain how their structure is organised at its different levels.
Explain how DNA and each type of RNA contribute to the synthesis of a protein.
(a) Describe the position of the kidneys in the human body.
(b) Describe the microscopic structure of a human nephron.
(c) Explain how the kidney helps to keep the osmotic pressure of the blood constant.
(a) Describe the kinds of microorganism found in soil and how they are distributed.
(b) Discuss how soil microorganisms take part in the carbon cycle and the nitrogen cycle.
(c) Explain how interactions between soil microorganisms and plants affect plant growth.
(a) State the general characteristics of plant growth substances.
(b) Name the main groups of plant growth substances and the sites where each is produced.
(c) Discuss how naturally occurring growth substances control the growth and development of plants.
(a) Name the four main types of natural forest ecosystem in Sri Lanka.
(b) For each type, describe its distribution, its rainfall pattern and the main features of its vegetation.
Write a short note on the structure and functions of the human pancreas.
Write a short note on biodiversity hotspots, with reference to Sri Lanka.
Write a short note on how stomata open and close.
Answer key — this booklet
Answer key — original 2016 paper (MEDVision model answers)
For students working from the original paper. Shaded cells: check against the official marking scheme (amber = likely, red = disputed).
Paper I — reviews
Paper II — marking points
- Macromolecules: large polymers (MW >~1000) built from many monomer units linked covalently by condensation
- Three types: carbohydrates (polysaccharides), proteins, nucleic acids
- Sugarcane: sucrose = glucose + fructose
- Germinating seeds: maltose = glucose + glucose
- Monosaccharide in NAD and ATP: ribose (a pentose)
- Lipids are insoluble in water but soluble in organic solvents (non-polar/hydrophobic)
- Lipids are not true polymers; they have relatively high H:O ratio (less oxygen), giving high energy yield
- Types: triglycerides (fats/oils), phospholipids, steroids, waxes, glycolipids (also carotenoids/terpenes)
- Mutation: sudden, random, heritable change in genetic material (gene/DNA sequence or chromosome structure/number)
- Source of new alleles/genetic variation - raw material of evolution
- Natural selection acts on that variation; favourable mutations increase in frequency, leading to adaptation and speciation
- Sickle-cell anaemia - gene (point) mutation: base substitution (Glu→Val in β-globin)
- Thalassaemia - gene mutation
- Haemophilia / colour blindness - X-linked gene mutation
- Down syndrome - chromosomal mutation: aneuploidy, trisomy 21
- Klinefelter (XXY) / Turner (XO) syndromes - chromosomal aneuploidy (sex chromosomes)
- BOD: amount of dissolved O₂ consumed by microorganisms to oxidise organic matter in a water sample over 5 days at 20 °C (mg/L)
- High-BOD waste: microbial decomposition depletes dissolved O₂ → hypoxia/anoxia, death of fish and aerobic organisms
- Anaerobic decomposition produces foul gases (H₂S, CH₄, NH₃), loss of biodiversity, eutrophication
- Oxidation methods: activated sludge process; trickling (percolating) filters; oxidation ponds/aerated lagoons
- Open dumping: leachate contaminates ground and surface water; foul odour; breeding of vectors (mosquitoes, flies, rats) → dengue, leptospirosis
- Greenhouse gas (methane) emission, fire hazards, landslides of garbage (e.g. Meethotamulla), aesthetic loss and land degradation
- Minimisation: reduce, reuse, recycle (3R); source separation
- Composting of biodegradable waste; biogas production; sanitary landfilling; incineration/energy recovery
- Homeostasis: maintenance of a relatively constant internal environment (tissue fluid) within narrow limits despite external changes
- Regulated factors: body temperature, blood glucose, blood osmotic pressure/water content, blood pH, blood pressure, O₂/CO₂ levels
- Advantages: optimum conditions for enzyme activity; organisms become independent of external fluctuations and can occupy varied habitats
- Disadvantage: high energy expenditure (e.g. endothermy requires much food/ATP)
- Liver roles: blood glucose regulation (glycogenesis/glycogenolysis/gluconeogenesis); deamination and urea formation; detoxification of drugs/alcohol/hormones
- Liver roles: heat production; plasma protein synthesis (osmotic balance); cholesterol and lipid regulation; storage of vitamins and iron
- Positive feedback: oxytocin-driven uterine contractions during childbirth; milk ejection reflex during suckling; blood clotting cascade; LH surge before ovulation
- Lactation: secretion and ejection of milk by the mammary glands after childbirth
- Most abundant component of human milk: water
- Placental hormones acting on breast: oestrogen, progesterone (also human placental lactogen)
- Colostrum components: antibodies (IgA), proteins, leucocytes, lactoferrin, vitamin A, minerals (low fat)
- Oxytocin: contracts myoepithelial cells around alveoli → milk ejection (let-down) reflex on suckling
- Hormones inhibiting milk production: oestrogen and progesterone (high levels); also dopamine (PIH)
- Advantages: ideal nutrition, easily digested; passive immunity reduces infections
- Advantages: mother–child bonding; hygienic, free, right temperature; uterine involution; lactational contraception; lower breast/ovarian cancer risk
- Functions: sensory input (detect stimuli), integration (process/interpret), motor output (response by effectors)
- Double ventral nerve cords: Platyhelminthes, Annelida, Arthropoda (any two)
- Radial nerves: Echinodermata
- Nervous regulation is faster and more precise/localised; effects are short-lived and quickly stopped
- Receptor: cell or structure that detects a stimulus and transduces it into nerve impulses (generator potential)
- Features: specificity to one type of stimulus; transduction of stimulus energy; amplification; adaptation; threshold sensitivity
- Touch receptors: Meissner's corpuscles, Merkel's discs, Pacinian corpuscles, free nerve endings / hair root plexus
- (1) Bilaterally symmetrical → go to 2; radially symmetrical → go to 3
- (2) Flattened → A; cylindrical → go to 4
- (3) Tentacles around edge → E; tentacles around mouth → B
- (4) Clitellum present → D; clitellum absent → C
- A: Turbellaria (planarian, Platyhelminthes)
- B: Hydrozoa (Hydra) (or Anthozoa if sea anemone)
- C: Polychaeta (numerous setae, no clitellum - Nereis)
- D: Oligochaeta (earthworm) / Clitellata
- E: Scyphozoa (jellyfish, Aurelia)
- Ovule parts: funicle, hilum, chalaza, outer integument, inner integument, micropyle, nucellus, embryo sac
- Embryo sac contents: egg cell, two synergids, three antipodal cells, central cell with two polar nuclei (or secondary nucleus)
- Ovary wall → pericarp (fruit wall)
- Ovule → seed; integuments → testa and tegmen
- Zygote → embryo; primary endosperm nucleus → endosperm
- Micropyle → micropyle of seed; funicle → stalk/hilum scar
- Nucellus usually absorbed (may persist as perisperm); synergids and antipodals degenerate
- Style, stigma (and other floral parts) wither
- P: xylem; Q: phloem
- A: perforation plate (end wall perforation of vessel element)
- B: pits (bordered pits) on the vessel wall
- C: vessel element (vessel member)
- D: pits of a tracheid
- E: xylem fibre
- F: sieve plate
- G: companion cell
- H: sieve tube element (sieve tube member)
- I: sieve areas / sieve pores (lateral plasmodesmata connections)
- J: phloem fibre
- Ecosystem: a community of organisms interacting with each other and with their abiotic environment, with energy flow and nutrient cycling
- Biotic components: producers, consumers (primary, secondary, tertiary), decomposers/detritivores
- Connected through feeding relationships - food chains and food webs - transferring energy and nutrients; also symbiosis, competition, predation
- Ecological niche: the total role of a species in its ecosystem - its use of biotic and abiotic resources, habitat, and interactions
- GPP: total rate at which producers convert light energy into chemical energy (organic matter) by photosynthesis per unit area per unit time
- Ocean: phytoplankton
- Patana: grasses (e.g. Cymbopogon, Themeda)
- Biome: major regional ecosystem type characterised by climate (temperature, rainfall) and dominant vegetation, with associated animals
- Tropical terrestrial biomes: tropical (rain) forest, savanna, desert
- Largest terrestrial biome: taiga (northern coniferous forest)
- Keystone species: a species whose impact on community structure is disproportionately large relative to its abundance; its removal greatly alters the community (e.g. elephant, sea otter)
- Flagship species: a charismatic, popular species chosen as a symbol to attract public support and funding for conservation
- Protecting the flagship species indirectly conserves its habitat and many other species (e.g. Asian elephant, leopard, tiger, panda)
- Global warming: gradual increase in mean global surface temperature due to enhanced greenhouse effect
- Gases: CO₂, CH₄, N₂O, CFCs, water vapour (also tropospheric O₃)
- Short-wave solar radiation passes through; Earth re-emits long-wave infrared radiation
- Greenhouse gases absorb and re-radiate IR back to Earth, trapping heat; rising concentrations enhance this effect
- Invasive species: non-native (alien) species introduced to a new area that establishes, spreads rapidly and harms native biodiversity, economy or health (e.g. Lantana, water hyacinth)
- Agriculture: habitat destruction/clearing of forests and fragmentation
- Monoculture and loss of traditional crop varieties (genetic erosion)
- Agrochemicals (pesticides, fertilisers) kill non-target species and cause eutrophication; introduction of invasive/exotic species; soil erosion
- Proteins contain C, H, O, N, often S (and sometimes P)
- Polymers of amino acids (20 kinds); macromolecules with high molecular weight
- Amino acid: central α-carbon with amino group, carboxyl group, H atom and variable R group
- Amino acids join by peptide bonds through condensation to form polypeptides
- Primary structure: specific linear sequence of amino acids, determined by genes
- Secondary structure: α-helix and β-pleated sheet stabilised by hydrogen bonds between backbone groups
- Tertiary structure: 3D folding due to R-group interactions - hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, disulfide bridges, hydrophobic interactions
- Quaternary structure: association of two or more polypeptides (e.g. haemoglobin)
- Globular (soluble, functional, e.g. enzymes) and fibrous (structural, e.g. keratin, collagen) proteins
- Denatured by heat, pH, heavy metals - loss of 3D shape and function
- DNA carries genetic information as a sequence of base triplets (genetic code) determining amino acid sequence
- Transcription: RNA polymerase uses the DNA template strand to synthesise complementary mRNA
- In eukaryotes pre-mRNA is processed (capping, poly-A tail, splicing of introns) and leaves the nucleus
- mRNA carries codons from nucleus to ribosomes in cytoplasm; start codon AUG, stop codons UAA/UAG/UGA
- rRNA with proteins forms ribosomes (large and small subunits); provides sites (A, P, E) and peptidyl transferase activity forming peptide bonds
- tRNA carries specific amino acids (activated by aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase and ATP) to ribosome
- tRNA anticodon pairs with complementary mRNA codon, ensuring correct order of amino acids
- Translation: initiation, elongation, termination; polypeptide released and folds
- Kidneys: paired, bean-shaped, on posterior abdominal wall either side of vertebral column, retroperitoneal, between T12 and L3
- Right kidney slightly lower than left (due to liver); embedded in fat; adrenal glands on top
- Nephron: Bowman's capsule (double-walled cup; inner podocytes) enclosing glomerulus = renal (Malpighian) corpuscle in cortex
- Afferent arteriole wider than efferent arteriole - high glomerular pressure for ultrafiltration
- Proximal convoluted tubule: cuboidal cells with microvilli (brush border) and many mitochondria
- Loop of Henle: thin descending limb (squamous) and thick ascending limb, in medulla
- Distal convoluted tubule in cortex, cuboidal cells with fewer microvilli, opens to collecting duct
- Peritubular capillaries and vasa recta surround tubules
- Osmoreceptors in hypothalamus detect rise in blood osmotic pressure (dehydration)
- Posterior pituitary releases more ADH; ADH increases permeability of DCT and collecting duct (aquaporins)
- More water reabsorbed into hypertonic medulla (maintained by countercurrent multiplier of loop of Henle) → small volume of concentrated urine
- Low osmotic pressure → less ADH → dilute, copious urine
- Aldosterone (renin–angiotensin) increases Na⁺ reabsorption in DCT, with water following; ANP reduces it
- Soil microbes: bacteria (most numerous), actinomycetes, fungi, algae/cyanobacteria, protozoa, viruses
- Most abundant in top soil (A horizon), decreasing with depth; concentrated in rhizosphere around roots
- Distribution depends on organic matter, moisture, aeration, pH, temperature; aerobes near surface, anaerobes in waterlogged/deeper soil
- Carbon cycle: photosynthetic microbes (algae, cyanobacteria) fix CO₂; decomposers (bacteria, fungi) break down dead organic matter releasing CO₂ by respiration
- Methanogens produce CH₄ anaerobically; methanotrophs oxidise CH₄
- Nitrogen fixation: free-living (Azotobacter, Clostridium, cyanobacteria e.g. Nostoc/Anabaena) and symbiotic (Rhizobium, Frankia) reduce N₂ to NH₃
- Ammonification: decomposers convert proteins/urea to NH₄⁺
- Nitrification: Nitrosomonas (NH₄⁺→NO₂⁻), Nitrobacter (NO₂⁻→NO₃⁻)
- Denitrification: Pseudomonas, Thiobacillus denitrificans convert NO₃⁻ to N₂ under anaerobic conditions
- Interactions: Rhizobium–legume nodules supply fixed N
- Mycorrhizae increase phosphate and water absorption
- Decomposition releases mineral nutrients and forms humus, improving soil structure
- Some produce growth substances; antagonists/antibiotic producers suppress pathogens; some microbes are plant pathogens
- Organic substances produced in very small amounts; act at low concentrations
- Produced in one part and often transported to act elsewhere (or act locally)
- Effects depend on concentration, tissue and interactions (synergism/antagonism); one substance can have multiple effects
- Auxins (IAA): shoot apical meristems, young leaves, developing seeds
- Gibberellins: young leaves, apical buds, root tips, developing seeds/embryo
- Cytokinins: root tips (apices), developing fruits/seeds
- Abscisic acid: mature leaves, root cap, fruits, seeds (esp. under stress)
- Ethylene: ripening fruits, senescent tissues, nodes
- Auxin: cell elongation, phototropism/gravitropism, apical dominance, root initiation, parthenocarpy, prevents abscission, xylem differentiation
- Gibberellins: stem elongation, seed germination (α-amylase induction), bolting/flowering, fruit growth
- Cytokinins: cell division, delay of senescence, lateral bud growth (with auxin ratio controls shoot/root formation)
- ABA: stomatal closure under water stress, seed and bud dormancy, growth inhibition
- Ethylene: fruit ripening, leaf/fruit abscission, triple response, senescence
- Four types: tropical wet evergreen (lowland rain) forest, tropical montane forest, tropical moist evergreen (moist monsoon) forest, tropical dry mixed evergreen (dry monsoon) forest
- Lowland rain forest: wet zone below ~1000 m (e.g. Sinharaja, Kanneliya); rainfall >2500 mm, evenly distributed
- Lowland rain forest vegetation: tall evergreen trees, 4–5 layered canopy, emergents, high endemism (Dipterocarpus, Shorea), lianas and epiphytes
- Montane forest: central highlands >1500 m (Horton Plains, Knuckles, Peak Wilderness); rainfall ~2000–5000 mm, low temperature, mist
- Montane vegetation: stunted trees with flat umbrella-like crowns, small leathery leaves, one/two layers, abundant mosses, lichens, ferns; Calophyllum, Syzygium, Rhododendron
- Moist monsoon forest: intermediate zone; rainfall ~1900–2500 mm with a short dry season
- Moist monsoon vegetation: semi-evergreen, some deciduous species, canopy lower than rain forest
- Dry monsoon forest: dry zone lowlands; rainfall ~1250–1900 mm, mainly NE monsoon, long dry season
- Dry monsoon vegetation: semi-deciduous trees, lower canopy (~20 m), thorny shrubs; Manilkara (palu), Chloroxylon (burutha), Diospyros (ebony)
- Elongated gland behind the stomach in the curve of the duodenum; head, body and tail
- Mixed gland: exocrine (acini) and endocrine (islets of Langerhans)
- Exocrine pancreatic juice enters duodenum via pancreatic duct (with common bile duct, ampulla of Vater)
- Juice alkaline (HCO₃⁻) neutralises acid chyme; enzymes: trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, carboxypeptidase, pancreatic amylase, lipase, nucleases
- Secretion controlled by secretin (bicarbonate) and CCK (enzymes) and vagus
- Islets: α cells – glucagon (raises blood glucose); β cells – insulin (lowers blood glucose); δ cells – somatostatin
- Disorders: diabetes mellitus (insulin deficiency/resistance), pancreatitis
- Regions with exceptionally high species richness and endemism that are under severe threat
- Criteria (Myers/Conservation International): ≥1500 endemic vascular plant species and ≥70% of original habitat lost
- 36 recognised globally (34–36); cover ~2.4% of land surface but hold ~50% of plant species and ~43% of terrestrial vertebrates as endemics
- Sri Lanka with Western Ghats forms one hotspot
- In Sri Lanka high endemism in wet zone forests (e.g. Sinharaja), many endemic amphibians, reptiles, fish, plants
- Prioritise conservation funding and action where most species can be saved
- Stoma bounded by two guard cells with thick inner and thin outer walls and radially arranged cellulose microfibrils
- Opening: light activates blue-light receptors; H⁺-ATPase pumps H⁺ out of guard cells
- K⁺ (and Cl⁻) enter guard cells; malate formed from starch → water potential falls
- Water enters by osmosis, guard cells become turgid and bow outward → pore opens
- Low internal CO₂ (photosynthesis) promotes opening; circadian rhythm also involved
- Closure: in darkness or water stress, ABA from roots/leaves triggers K⁺ efflux
- Guard cells lose water, become flaccid and pore closes; high CO₂ and high temperature also cause closure
- (Older starch–sugar hypothesis: light raises pH, starch→glucose phosphate, lowering water potential)
Scan notes: All 50 MCQs and all Paper II questions present and readable. Q3C diagram read from page image. Debatable keys: Q19 (two arguably incorrect statements; 3 chosen), Q23 (coronoid/coracoid wording), Q45 (neurilemma meaning), Q50 (locus/allele wording - 2 vs 5).
G.C.E. (Advanced Level) — Biology
Old syllabus (pre-2019) · Re-set practice paper
Every question tests the same concept as question of the same number in the 2017 paper, re-written by MEDVision. Source coverage: Paper I + full Paper II.
Zinc, copper, manganese and molybdenum are needed by organisms only in minute amounts. Their most important general function is to serve as
- 1structural units of cell membranes and walls.
- 2activators or cofactors that enable enzymes to work.
- 3building blocks of steroid hormones.
- 4the central atom of photosynthetic pigments.
- 5substrates consumed in respiratory pathways.
Apart from the nucleus, which pair of eukaryotic organelles carries its own DNA?
- 1Golgi apparatus and lysosomes
- 2Ribosomes and centrosomes
- 3Chloroplasts and mitochondria
- 4Peroxisomes and nucleolus
- 5Rough ER and vacuoles
A student lists roles of epithelia lining body surfaces and cavities. Which role below should NOT be on the list?
- 1Absorbing digested food
- 2Forming glandular secretions
- 3Giving mechanical support to body organs
- 4Guarding underlying tissues from injury
- 5Moving substances across a surface
Complete aerobic oxidation of one molecule of which of the following would release the most ATP for a cell?
- 1Pyruvate
- 2Malate
- 3One NADH molecule
- 4Lactose
- 5Isocitrate
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum performs many roles in liver and muscle cells. Which process is NOT carried out by it?
- 1Forming phospholipids and steroids
- 2Assembling amino acids into polypeptides
- 3Sequestering calcium ions
- 4Detoxifying drugs
- 5Metabolising glycogen-related carbohydrates
Which of the following events in a green leaf is NOT part of the light-dependent stage of photosynthesis?
- 1Splitting of water at photosystem II
- 2Excitation and loss of electrons from P680 and P700
- 3ATP generation by cyclic electron flow
- 4Uptake of O₂ by RuBisCO and release of CO₂ via glycolate metabolism
- 5ATP and NADPH generation by non-cyclic electron flow
Which match of junction type, a tissue where it is typical, and its role is correct?
- 1Gap junction – intestinal lining – sealing gaps between cells
- 2Desmosome – epidermis – sealing the intercellular space
- 3Tight junction – intestinal lining – stopping fluid leaking between cells
- 4Tight junction – cardiac muscle – passing ions between cells
- 5Desmosome – epidermis – allowing cytoplasmic exchange
Membrane lipids with branched hydrocarbon chains joined by ether links are a hallmark of one domain. Which list includes a genus from that domain?
- 1Nostoc, Methanobacterium, Pinus and Pleurotus
- 2Bacillus, Taenia, Mangifera and Streptococcus
- 3Escherichia, Penicillium, Cocos and Ascaris
- 4Rhizobium, Rattus, Mucor and Gracilaria
- 5Vibrio, Aspergillus, Nitrobacter and Areca
An animal shows internal fertilisation, a ring of nervous tissue around the gut, and direct development with no larva. It is most likely
- 1Nereis.
- 2a honeybee.
- 3Pheretima.
- 4Planaria.
- 5a tick (Arachnida).
For a key separating a crab, a centipede, a millipede, a housefly and a scorpion, which character would be the LEAST useful?
- 1Presence of a jointed chitinous exoskeleton
- 2Number of pairs of antennae
- 3Type of eyes
- 4Presence or absence of wings
- 5Number of walking legs per segment or body
Which genus obtains its carbon from CO₂ and its energy from oxidising inorganic compounds, so is NOT heterotrophic?
- 1Trypanosoma
- 2Nitrobacter
- 3Lentinus
- 4Macaca
- 5Labeo
Which digestive enzyme is listed as a component of BOTH pancreatic juice and intestinal juice (succus entericus)?
- 1Chymotrypsinogen
- 2Maltase
- 3Lipase
- 4Deoxyribonuclease
- 5Enterokinase
While a person breathes in quietly, which event takes place?
- 1The diaphragm relaxes and domes upward
- 2The external intercostal muscles relax
- 3The sternum moves upward and forward
- 4Intrapleural pressure rises
- 5Tissue fluid floods into the alveoli
A biology class is studying factors that alter transpiration. Which factor would have the LEAST direct influence on the rate?
- 1Relative humidity of air
- 2Light intensity
- 3Air movement
- 4Particle size (texture) of the soil
- 5Amount of water available in the soil
According to Münch's pressure-flow hypothesis, which statement about phloem translocation is correct?
- 1Sucrose loading at the source raises the water potential of sieve tubes
- 2Hydrostatic pressure is highest in sieve tubes at the sink
- 3Sap moves in bulk from source to sink down a gradient of pressure potential
- 4Loading of sucrose needs no metabolic energy
- 5Companion cells move sucrose into sieve tubes only by simple diffusion
Which statement about cells in normal human blood is correct?
- 1Basophils are the largest leucocytes
- 2Only neutrophils are phagocytic
- 3Eosinophils help defend against parasitic worms
- 4Red cells make up about 80% of blood cells
- 5There are about 1.5–3.5 × 10⁶ lymphocytes per litre
Which statement on circulatory systems of animals is correct?
- 1Starfish lack any circulatory system
- 2Cockroaches and flukes have open circulation
- 3Earthworms and bony fishes have closed circulation
- 4Crabs carry O₂ using chlorocruorin
- 5The AV node initiates each human heartbeat
Which statement about the human brain is correct?
- 1The corpora quadrigemina form part of the hindbrain
- 2The cerebellum is the centre for coughing and sneezing
- 3The forebrain controls reflex movements of the eyeball
- 4The cerebral cortex is where pain is consciously perceived
- 5The pons is the main centre setting breathing rhythm
Which statement about neurone physiology is INCORRECT?
- 1A resting neurone has a membrane potential near −70 mV
- 2The Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase helps maintain the resting potential
- 3An action potential lasts roughly 2 ms
- 4In myelinated fibres, impulses are generated only at nodes of Ranvier
- 5Repolarisation results from K⁺ ions entering the axon
Which statement about the hormone calcitonin is INCORRECT?
- 1It is produced by the follicular cells that make thyroxine
- 2It reduces plasma calcium
- 3It favours deposition of calcium in bone
- 4It decreases calcium reabsorption in kidney tubules
- 5It acts antagonistically to parathormone
Which statement about human hormones is correct?
- 1Glucagon is secreted by β-cells of the pancreatic islets
- 2Aldosterone increases reabsorption of both Na⁺ and K⁺
- 3Thymosin promotes maturation of B lymphocytes
- 4Cholecystokinin acts mainly on the stomach and liver
- 5ADH makes the distal tubule and collecting duct more permeable to water
Which statement regarding excretion is INCORRECT?
- 1Excretion helps to keep the internal environment constant
- 2Excretion refers only to the elimination of nitrogen-containing wastes
- 3Bile pigments leave the human body via both urine and faeces
- 4Nephridia serve for excretion in annelids and some molluscs
- 5In mammals, ammonia is the first nitrogenous waste formed and is converted to urea
Which statement about human vertebrae is correct?
- 1The axis carries a tooth-like process (dens) projecting upward from its body
- 2The atlas has a long, prominent spinous process
- 3Six vertebrae fuse to form the sacrum
- 4Thoracic vertebrae typically have bifid spines
- 5The lumbar vertebrae have the largest vertebral foramen
Which statement about the human menstrual cycle is correct?
- 1Progesterone reaches its peak only 1–2 days before bleeding starts
- 2The FSH peak is higher than the LH peak
- 3The proliferative and secretory phases are always of equal length
- 4Ovulation is triggered by a fall in LH
- 5Falling oestrogen and progesterone after corpus luteum regression bring on menstruation
Which statement about the human uterine (Fallopian) tube is INCORRECT?
- 1Its outer end opens as a fimbriated funnel near the ovary
- 2It is lined by ciliated epithelium
- 3It conveys the oocyte towards the uterus
- 4Its secretions nourish gametes and the early embryo
- 5Fertilisation normally takes place in the narrow segment close to the uterus
Which statement about the human epididymis is INCORRECT?
- 1It is a long, tightly coiled tube
- 2It links the testis with the vas deferens
- 3Sperms are stored in it until ejaculation
- 4Sperms gain motility and fertilising ability while passing through it
- 5Sperm hyperactivation takes place within it
Which statement about human prenatal development or infant growth is correct?
- 1Fetal heartbeat can be detected by the end of the first trimester
- 2Lanugo hair covers the fetus by the end of the eighth week
- 3Babies usually sit unsupported at about three months
- 4Infants first begin to vocalise only after six months
- 5Infants should be on the full family diet by about seven months
Petals of the water lily open in daylight and fold at dusk each day. This response is best described as
- 1phototropism.
- 2nyctinasty.
- 3chemotaxis.
- 4thigmonasty.
- 5geotropism.
Which statement about plant tissue culture is INCORRECT?
- 1It means growing plant tissue in vitro on a sterile medium whose only added growth regulator is IAA
- 2Many plant cells are totipotent and can regenerate whole plants
- 3Leaf, stem or root pieces can serve as explants
- 4A callus is an undifferentiated mass of dividing cells
- 5It allows rapid production of many genetically identical plants in little space
Which vegetative structure is WRONGLY matched with the plant named?
- 1Stem tuber – Solanum tuberosum (potato)
- 2Corm – Colocasia
- 3Runner – Centella
- 4Rhizome – Solanum tuberosum (potato)
- 5Leaf (epiphyllous) buds – Bryophyllum
In recombinant DNA work, restriction endonucleases are used because they
- 1seal nicks between DNA fragments.
- 2cleave DNA at particular recognition sequences.
- 3extend a DNA strand by adding nucleotides.
- 4block translation of mRNA.
- 5cut DNA at random positions.
A pea plant carries two copies of the same allele (TT) for stem height. For this trait it is described as
- 1heterozygous.
- 2hemizygous.
- 3homozygous.
- 4polygenic.
- 5codominant.
Which statement best expresses why meiosis has been advantageous in evolution?
- 1It keeps chromosome number constant from parent to offspring
- 2It is required before gametes can form
- 3It ensures offspring inherit exactly the parental gene combinations
- 4It produces new combinations of alleles on which selection can act
- 5It alternates regularly with mitosis in life cycles
In a home-garden food web, grass is eaten by insect D and by organism C. Insect A eats D. Organism B eats both A and D. A coucal eats B and C, and also other prey. Which statement is correct?
- 1The longest food chain has four trophic levels
- 2A must be a keystone species
- 3Removing C will necessarily reduce the coucal population
- 4B could be a garden lizard and C could be a snail
- 5There is only one primary consumer
Which atmospheric pollutant has the LEAST effect on crop production?
- 1Sulphur dioxide
- 2Nitrogen oxides
- 3Carbon monoxide
- 4CFCs
- 5Carbon dioxide
Which microorganism is used mainly in fermentation and enzyme production rather than being eaten directly as food or a supplement?
- 1Pleurotus
- 2Volvariella
- 3Spirulina
- 4Aspergillus
- 5Agaricus
Which statement is NOT a valid reason for using microorganisms as model organisms in research?
- 1They multiply quickly
- 2They are cheap to culture with simple equipment
- 3Every reproductive cell they produce is genetically identical
- 4Their basic metabolic pathways resemble those of other organisms
- 5Large populations fit into a small laboratory space
Which antibiotic is correctly paired with its mode of action?
- 1Ciprofloxacin – blocks DNA gyrase and hence DNA replication
- 2Penicillin – inhibits bacterial protein synthesis
- 3Erythromycin – prevents peptidoglycan cross-linking
- 4Polymyxin – inhibits fungal ergosterol synthesis
- 5Clotrimazole – damages bacterial cell membranes
Which feature does NOT apply to prions?
- 1They are infectious misfolded protein particles
- 2They propagate without any nucleic acid
- 3They possess a symmetrical protein capsid
- 4They may spread through contaminated blood or tissue
- 5The normal protein they convert is coded by a host gene
Which property is NOT a factor that contributes to a microbe's ability to cause disease?
- 1Entering host cells or tissues
- 2Surviving host defences inside the body
- 3Releasing exotoxins or endotoxins
- 4Synthesising RNA polymerase
- 5Interfering with normal host physiology
Which of the following plant phyla consist of vascular plants that produce neither seeds nor flowers?
A. Lycophyta
B. Pterophyta
C. Anthophyta
D. Coniferophyta
E. Hepatophyta (liverworts)
- 1A and B only
- 2A, B and E only
- 3B and E only
- 4A, B and D only
- 5C and D only
Which of these groups include at least some animals that have no bony skeleton?
A. Arthropoda
B. Mammalia
C. Chordata
D. Nematoda
E. Aves
- 1A and B only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3B and E only
- 4C and D only
- 5A, B, C and D only
Which of the following can alter the blood glucose concentration of a healthy adult?
A. Glucagon
B. Thyroxine
C. Aldosterone
D. The hypothalamus
E. Parathormone
- 1A, C and E only
- 2B and C only
- 3A, B and D only
- 4C, D and E only
- 5A and E only
Which of the following are normally present in the urine of a healthy adult?
A. Potassium ions
B. Glucose
C. Creatinine
D. Hydrogen ions
E. Leucocytes
- 1A and B only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3B, C and E only
- 4C and E only
- 5A, B, C and D only
Which statements about cardiac muscle are correct?
A. It is myogenic
B. Each cell contains only a single sarcomere
C. Neighbouring cells are joined by intercalated discs
D. Gap junctions allow impulses to pass between cells
E. Its cells are very long, unbranched cylinders
- 1A and B only
- 2B and E only
- 3A, C and D only
- 4C, D and E only
- 5A, B, C and D only
Which statements about animal skeletons are correct?
A. Earthworms and roundworms rely on a hydrostatic skeleton
B. Every skeleton acts as a calcium reserve
C. Both exoskeletons and endoskeletons protect soft tissues
D. Radiolarians have an internal skeleton
E. No mollusc has an internal skeleton
- 1A, C and D only
- 2B and E only
- 3A and B only
- 4C, D and E only
- 5A, B and C only
Which of the following conditions arise from an abnormal NUMBER of chromosomes?
A. Turner syndrome (45,X)
B. Haemophilia
C. Patau syndrome (trisomy 13)
D. Phenylketonuria
E. β-thalassaemia
- 1A and C only
- 2A, B and C only
- 3B, D and E only
- 4C and D only
- 5A, C and E only
Which meiotic events directly make the four daughter cells genetically different from each other and from the parent cell?
A. Pairing of homologues (synapsis)
B. Crossing over at chiasmata
C. Spindle formation
D. Random orientation of bivalents (independent assortment)
E. Cytokinesis
- 1A and B only
- 2A, B and D only
- 3B and D only
- 4C and E only
- 5B, C and D only
Each geological period below is paired with three groups. In which period(s) had at least one listed group NOT yet appeared?
A. Devonian: fishes, insects, flowering plants
B. Jurassic: dinosaurs, conifers, mammals
C. Carboniferous: amphibians, ferns, trilobites
D. Ordovician: birds, molluscs, crustaceans
E. Cretaceous: flowering plants, birds, dinosaurs
- 1B and C only
- 2C and E only
- 3A and D only
- 4B, C and E only
- 5A, B and D only
Five terrestrial biomes are described by temperature range and latitude:
P | -40 to 0 °C | 60–75°
Q | -30 to 20 °C | 45–60°
R | 10 to 25 °C | 30–40° (winter rain)
S | 20 to 30 °C | 0–15°
T | 10 to 40 °C | 15–30°
Which statements are correct?
A. Coniferous trees dominate Q
B. With rainfall above 1000 mm a year, S has the greatest biodiversity
C. T is the largest terrestrial biome
D. Small trees and shrubs dominate R
E. P supports the longest food chains
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A and C only
- 3B, C and E only
- 4C and D only
- 5A, B, C and D only
(i) Apart from acting as a solvent, list the main roles water plays in living organisms.
(ii) Select three physical or chemical properties of water that are of special value to organisms living in water. For each, explain how it helps them and give a named example.
(i) Write down the three principles of the cell theory.
(ii) List the internal structural features found in eukaryotic cells but not in prokaryotic cells.
(iii) You are given a slide of onion bulb epidermis and a compound light microscope. In the correct order, list the steps you would follow to bring the cells into clear view.
(i) Consider these molluscan features: (a) distinct head (b) suckers (c) two pairs of tentacles (d) shell (e) body compressed from side to side. Using the letters, indicate which features occur in a freshwater mussel, a chiton and an octopus.
(ii) Give two ways to tell a heterocercal tail fin from a homocercal tail fin.
(iii) Describe a nictitating membrane.
(iv) (a) Name an amphibian that keeps a long tail as an adult. (b) Give one external feature by which it can be told apart from a lizard.
(v) Name a genus of limbless amphibian.
(i) Viewed under low power, give three features of a transverse section of the human colon that distinguish it from one of the small intestine.
(ii) Give two functions of hydrochloric acid in the stomach.
(iii) Name three hormones that regulate the reabsorption of ions in the kidney.
(iv) (a) Name an ion that is both reabsorbed and secreted along the nephron. (b) Name an ion reabsorbed by both active and passive mechanisms.
(v) Name the chief chemical constituent of kidney stones.
(i) (a) State the overall role of the nervous system. (b) Give three ways in which dendrites differ from axons.
(ii) (a) Define a nerve impulse. (b) Give two factors that influence how fast an impulse travels along an axon.
(iii) (a) Name two inhibiting hormones produced by the hypothalamus. (b) Apart from hormone secretion, list the functions of the hypothalamus.
(iv) In which lobe of the cerebrum is the hearing (auditory) area located?
(v) (a) Define a trophic hormone. (b) Which hormone stimulates the secretion of gastric juice?
(i) (a) State the general function of the human circulatory system. (b) Name the plasma protein present in greatest amount.
(ii) (a) Define the cardiac cycle. (b) Give three factors that keep human blood pressure in the normal range.
(iii) Name a phylum of triploblastic animals that has no blood circulatory system.
(iv) (a) How does adding solute to water change its water potential? (b) Define turgor pressure.
(v) (a) Define plasmolysis. (b) What is the value of pressure potential at incipient plasmolysis? (c) At that point, how does the cell's water potential compare with its solute potential?
(i) (a) Give the two main forms in which CO₂ is carried in human blood. (b) Where in the brain is the breathing control centre?
(ii) Define locomotion.
(iii) (a) Give two features shared by skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle fibres. (b) Give two features found only in skeletal muscle fibres.
(iv) (a) Which structural arrangement allows the human upper arm to move through a wide range? (b) Give two features of the upper limb that help in lifting heavy loads. (c) Give two features of the lower limb that support upright posture.
(v) Give one disadvantage of a hydrostatic skeleton.
(i) Name a living plant tissue whose main role is support.
(ii) Apart from cellulose, name two major cell-wall components of that tissue.
(iii) Define parthenocarpy.
(iv) Define parthenogenesis as it occurs in plants.
(v) Outline the events of seed germination.
(i) (a) For how long do a human sperm and a human ovum remain viable? (b) At which stage of spermatogenesis and of oogenesis does the second meiotic division take place?
(ii) (a) How does inhibin regulate spermatogenesis? (b) Describe the acrosome reaction.
(iii) (a) Define ovulation. (b) Which hormone triggers it?
(iv) Where on the human egg are the sperm receptors found?
(v) (a) Give two functions of oestrogen. (b) Name a placental hormone that keeps the myometrium quiet. (c) Explain the role of oxytocin during childbirth.
(i) (a) Define a test cross. (b) Why is a test cross carried out?
(ii) (a) Define a back cross. (b) Why is a back cross carried out?
(iii) Under what condition is a back cross the same as a test cross?
(iv) State what each of these pedigree symbols means: an open square; a filled circle; a square and circle joined by a horizontal line.
(v) In a family pedigree, two unaffected parents (1 and 2) have an unaffected son (3) and an affected daughter (4); son 3 marries an affected woman and their child (5) is unaffected. (a) Is the statement 'this trait is autosomal dominant' correct or incorrect? (b) Using A and a, give the possible genotypes of individuals 1–5.
(i) List the levels of organisation of the environment in the correct order.
(ii) (a) Define an extinct species. (b) Name an extinct bird.
(iii) State the main objectives of the Convention on Biological Diversity.
(iv) (a) Give four human activities that lead to desertification. (b) Give three effects of desertification on people.
(i) For each microbial nutritional type (chemoautotroph, chemoheterotroph, photoautotroph, photoheterotroph), state its carbon source and its energy source.
(ii) Describe how a clean, dry glass Petri dish should be sterilised before use in microbiology.
(iii) Give two characteristics of the toxin of Clostridium tetani.
(iv) Name an enzyme produced industrially using Aspergillus oryzae.
Explain how enzymes bring about catalysis.
Describe the enzyme-catalysed reactions that produce the first stable product of CO₂ fixation in C3 plants and in C4 plants.
Explain why C4 plants fix CO₂ more efficiently than C3 plants.
(a) Define transpiration.
(b) Explain how external (environmental) factors change the rate of transpiration.
(c) Describe how a potometer is set up and used to estimate the rate of transpiration.
(a) Describe where the human testes are situated.
(b) Outline the structure of a human testis.
(c) Explain how sperms are produced in the human male.
Describe the traditional selective breeding methods that people use to improve crops and livestock.
Using suitable examples, describe the different categories of natural resources.
Explain what is meant by sustainable use of natural resources and how it can be achieved.
Write a short note on the human vertebral column.
Write a short note on invasive species.
Write a short note on cyanobacteria.
Answer key — this booklet
Answer key — original 2017 paper (MEDVision model answers)
For students working from the original paper. Shaded cells: check against the official marking scheme (amber = likely, red = disputed).
Paper I — reviews
Paper II — marking points
- Functions: medium for metabolic reactions; reactant (hydrolysis, photosynthesis); transport medium; temperature regulation (sweating, transpiration); lubricant (synovial, mucus); turgidity/hydrostatic support; medium for fertilization and dispersal
- High specific heat capacity – resists temperature change; stable aquatic habitat, e.g. fish in lakes
- Maximum density at 4 °C / ice floats – insulates water below; organisms survive under frozen ponds
- High surface tension (cohesion) – surface film supports organisms such as water striders / mosquito larvae
- Transparency – light penetrates for photosynthesis by submerged plants / phytoplankton
- High latent heat of fusion – water slow to freeze, protecting aquatic organisms
- Dissolves O₂ and CO₂ – gas exchange of fish (gills) and aquatic plants
- All organisms are composed of one or more cells
- The cell is the basic structural and functional unit of life
- All cells arise from pre-existing cells
- Eukaryotes: true nucleus with nuclear envelope; membrane-bound organelles (mitochondria, chloroplasts, ER, Golgi, lysosomes); linear DNA with histones forming chromosomes; 80S ribosomes; cytoskeleton; nucleolus
- Microscope: place slide on stage and clip; select low-power objective (×10)
- Adjust illumination using mirror/diaphragm/condenser
- Using coarse adjustment, lower objective close to the slide while viewing from the side
- Look through eyepiece and raise the objective with coarse adjustment until focused
- Sharpen with fine adjustment; centre the cells; switch to high power and refocus with fine adjustment only
- Mussel: d, e (shell, laterally flattened body; no head)
- Chiton: a, d (head, shell of 8 plates)
- Octopus: a, b (head, suckers; no external shell)
- Heterocercal fin: unequal lobes (dorsal lobe larger); vertebral column extends into the dorsal lobe (homocercal is symmetrical and the column ends at the base)
- Nictitating membrane: thin transparent third eyelid that moves across the eye to protect and moisten it (e.g. frog, birds)
- Tailed adult amphibian: salamander or newt (Urodela), e.g. Triturus
- Distinguish from lizard: moist, glandular skin without scales; no claws on digits
- Legless amphibian genus: Ichthyophis (caecilian)
- Large intestine: no villi; many goblet cells; crypts straight/simple glands; longitudinal muscle in bands (taeniae coli); no Peyer's patches/lymphoid nodules in the same pattern
- HCl functions: converts pepsinogen to pepsin and provides acid pH for pepsin; kills microorganisms; denatures proteins; curdles milk/activates other enzymes
- Hormones affecting ion reabsorption: aldosterone, parathyroid hormone, calcitonin (also ANP; ADH for water)
- Ion both reabsorbed and secreted: K⁺ (also H⁺, HCO₃⁻)
- Ion reabsorbed actively and passively: Na⁺ (also Cl⁻)
- Main component of renal calculi: calcium oxalate
- Nervous system: receives stimuli, integrates and coordinates responses rapidly to maintain homeostasis
- Dendrites: many per neurone; short and highly branched; conduct impulses towards the cell body; no myelin; contain Nissl granules; tapering
- Nerve impulse: a wave of electrical/electrochemical change (action potential) travelling along a nerve fibre
- Speed factors: axon diameter; myelination (saltatory conduction); temperature
- Inhibitory hypothalamic hormones: somatostatin (GHIH), prolactin-inhibiting hormone (dopamine)
- Other hypothalamic functions: thermoregulation; hunger/satiety; thirst and osmoregulation; sleep–wake/circadian rhythm; emotions and behaviour; controls autonomic nervous system
- Auditory area: temporal lobe
- Trophic hormone: hormone that stimulates another endocrine gland to secrete its hormones (e.g. TSH, ACTH)
- Gastric juice secretion stimulated by gastrin
- Circulation transports O₂, nutrients, hormones, wastes and heat; defence; homeostasis
- Most abundant plasma protein: albumin
- Cardiac cycle: sequence of events (systole and diastole of atria and ventricles) in one heartbeat (~0.8 s)
- BP maintained by: cardiac output (heart rate, stroke volume); peripheral resistance (vessel diameter); blood volume; elasticity of arteries; baroreceptor reflex / hormones
- Triploblastic phylum without circulation: Platyhelminthes (also Nematoda)
- Solutes lower (make more negative) water potential
- Turgor pressure: pressure exerted by cell contents against the cell wall as water enters
- Plasmolysis: shrinking of protoplast away from the cell wall due to water loss in hypertonic solution
- At incipient plasmolysis ψp = 0
- So ψ equals ψs at incipient plasmolysis
- CO₂ carried mainly as HCO₃⁻ in plasma (~70%) and as carbaminohaemoglobin (~23%)
- Respiratory centre: medulla oblongata (with pons)
- Locomotion: movement of the whole organism from one place to another
- Common to all muscle: contain actin and myosin; contractile/excitable; need ATP and Ca²⁺; have mitochondria
- Skeletal only: multinucleate; long unbranched cylindrical fibres; voluntary; no intercalated discs/gap junctions
- Upper arm range: ball-and-socket shoulder joint with shallow glenoid cavity
- Weight lifting: strong muscles (biceps, deltoid) attached to long bones; elbow hinge acting as lever; clavicle bracing shoulder; strong grip/opposable thumb
- Erect posture: large weight-bearing femur angled inward; arched foot; strong gluteal/quadriceps muscles; knee locking
- Hydroskeleton disadvantage: no rigid protection; slow movement; cannot support large terrestrial bodies
- Living supporting tissue: collenchyma
- Wall substances besides cellulose: pectin and hemicellulose
- Parthenocarpy: development of fruit without fertilization (seedless fruit, e.g. banana)
- Parthenogenesis in plants: development of an embryo from an unfertilized egg cell
- Germination: seed imbibes water, enzymes (amylase via GA) activated
- Stored food hydrolysed and transported to embryo axis
- Respiration increases, cell division and elongation
- Radicle emerges first, then plumule; epigeal or hypogeal
- Requires water, O₂, suitable temperature
- Sperm survives ~48–72 h in female tract; ovum ~12–24 h
- Meiosis II: spermatogenesis – secondary spermatocyte to spermatids; oogenesis – secondary oocyte, completed only after sperm entry (fertilization)
- Inhibin (from Sertoli cells) inhibits FSH secretion, regulating spermatogenesis
- Acrosome reaction: release of acrosomal enzymes (hyaluronidase, acrosin) on contact with zona pellucida, letting sperm penetrate
- Ovulation: release of secondary oocyte from mature Graafian follicle
- Triggered by LH surge
- Sperm receptors are in the zona pellucida (ZP3 glycoprotein)
- Oestrogen: develops secondary sexual characters; repairs/proliferates endometrium; feedback on FSH/LH; LH surge
- Progesterone suppresses myometrial contractions
- Oxytocin stimulates strong uterine contractions (positive feedback) to expel the fetus
- Test cross: crossing an individual of dominant phenotype with a homozygous recessive
- Purpose: to determine whether the dominant phenotype is homozygous or heterozygous
- Back cross: crossing an F₁ hybrid with one of its parents (or parental genotype)
- Purpose: to identify the F₁ genotype / to transfer a desired trait while restoring parental characters
- Back cross equals test cross when the parent used is homozygous recessive
- Symbols: square = unaffected male; shaded circle = affected female; square–circle joined by a line = mating/marriage
- Statement 'autosomal dominant' is incorrect (×): unaffected parents have affected children, so recessive
- Genotypes (re-set pedigree): 1 Aa; 2 Aa; 3 AA or Aa; 4 aa; 5 Aa (original paper's pedigree: 1 Aa; 2 Aa; 3 Aa; 4 aa; 5 AA or Aa)
- Levels: individual → population → community → ecosystem → biome → biosphere
- Extinct species: one with no living member anywhere
- Extinct bird: dodo (also passenger pigeon)
- CBD objectives: conservation of biodiversity; sustainable use of its components; fair and equitable sharing of benefits from genetic resources
- Desertification causes: deforestation; overgrazing; over-cultivation/poor farming; improper irrigation (salinization); mining; fuelwood collection
- Impacts: food shortage/famine; water shortage; poverty and migration; loss of livelihood; dust storms/health problems
- Chemoautotroph: CO₂; chemical (inorganic oxidation)
- Chemoheterotroph: organic compounds; chemical (organic)
- Photoautotroph: CO₂; light
- Photoheterotroph: organic compounds; light
- Petri dish: wrap in paper/foil and sterilize by dry heat in hot-air oven at 160–180 °C for 1–2 h (or autoclave 121 °C, 15 psi, 15 min)
- Tetanus toxin (tetanospasmin): exotoxin; protein; neurotoxin causing spastic paralysis; heat labile; converted to toxoid
- Enzyme from Aspergillus oryzae: amylase (also protease)
- Enzymes are biological catalysts, mostly globular proteins
- They lower activation energy of the reaction
- Substrate binds to the active site, which has a specific 3D shape
- Forms enzyme–substrate complex (E + S → ES → EP → E + P)
- Lock-and-key model: rigid complementary active site
- Induced-fit model: active site changes shape slightly on binding, increasing fit
- Mechanisms: orienting substrates, straining bonds, providing favourable micro-environment (pH), temporary covalent participation of R groups
- Products released; enzyme unchanged and reused
- Specificity due to active-site shape
- Cofactors/coenzymes may be needed
- Affected by temperature, pH, substrate and enzyme concentration, inhibitors
- C3: in mesophyll chloroplast stroma, CO₂ combines with RuBP (5C)
- Catalysed by RuBP carboxylase/oxygenase (RuBisCO)
- Unstable 6C intermediate splits into two molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate (PGA, 3C) – first stable product
- C4: in mesophyll cytoplasm, CO₂ (as HCO₃⁻) combines with phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP, 3C)
- Catalysed by PEP carboxylase
- Forms oxaloacetate (4C) – first stable product
- OAA reduced to malate (or aspartate), transported to bundle-sheath cells
- Malate decarboxylated, releasing CO₂ for RuBisCO/Calvin cycle; pyruvate returns and is regenerated to PEP using ATP
- PEP carboxylase has a very high affinity for CO₂ and no affinity for O₂
- Can fix CO₂ at very low concentrations
- CO₂ pumping concentrates CO₂ in bundle-sheath cells
- High CO₂:O₂ ratio around RuBisCO suppresses photorespiration
- Kranz anatomy separates initial fixation and Calvin cycle spatially
- Stomata can be partly closed in hot dry conditions, conserving water while still fixing CO₂
- Higher photosynthetic rate at high light and temperature
- Transpiration: loss of water as vapour from the aerial parts of plants, mainly via stomata (also cuticle, lenticels)
- Light: opens stomata and warms leaf, raising rate
- Temperature: higher temperature increases evaporation and lowers air humidity – rate increases
- Humidity: high humidity reduces the vapour pressure gradient – rate falls
- Wind: removes the humid diffusion shell – rate increases (very strong wind may close stomata)
- Soil water: shortage leads to stomatal closure, reducing rate
- Atmospheric pressure: low pressure increases rate
- Potometer: cut a leafy shoot under water to prevent air entry
- Fit shoot airtight into the potometer filled with water (vaseline to seal joints)
- Introduce an air bubble into the capillary tube
- Record distance moved by the bubble in a given time
- Reservoir used to reset the bubble; repeat readings
- Rate = volume of water uptake (πr² × distance)/time; assumes uptake ≈ transpiration
- Keep the set-up under constant conditions; vary one factor for comparisons
- Paired testes lie outside the abdominal cavity in the scrotum
- Scrotal temperature ~2–3 °C below body temperature, needed for spermatogenesis
- Testes descend through the inguinal canal before birth; suspended by spermatic cord
- Covered by a fibrous capsule (tunica albuginea), divided by septa into ~250 lobules
- Each lobule contains 1–4 highly coiled seminiferous tubules
- Tubules lined by germinal epithelium with spermatogonia and Sertoli cells
- Interstitial Leydig cells between tubules secrete testosterone
- Tubules → rete testis → efferent ducts → epididymis
- Spermatogonia (2n) divide by mitosis (multiplication)
- Some grow into primary spermatocytes (2n)
- Meiosis I → secondary spermatocytes (n)
- Meiosis II → spermatids (n)
- Spermiogenesis: spermatids differentiate into spermatozoa (head, acrosome, midpiece, tail), nourished by Sertoli cells
- Controlled by FSH, LH (via testosterone) and inhibin; ~64–74 days
- Selective breeding: choosing parents with desired traits to produce offspring with those traits
- Mass selection: select superior plants/seed from a population and propagate them
- Pure-line selection: select from self-pollinated progeny of a single superior plant
- Inbreeding: mating closely related individuals to obtain homozygous pure lines; risk of inbreeding depression
- Outbreeding/out-crossing: mating unrelated individuals of the same breed to bring in new genes
- Cross-breeding: crossing two different breeds/varieties (e.g. local × exotic cattle) for combined traits
- Hybridization: crossing genetically different parents producing hybrids with hybrid vigour (heterosis)
- Interspecific hybridization (e.g. mule)
- Back-crossing to transfer a single desirable trait into an elite variety
- Vegetative propagation (grafting, budding) to maintain selected traits
- Desired traits: high yield, disease/pest resistance, drought tolerance, quality, early maturity
- Limitations: slow, many generations, reduced genetic diversity
- Natural resources: materials/energy from nature used by humans
- Renewable: can be replenished naturally – e.g. solar energy, wind, water, forests, fish, soil
- Inexhaustible (perpetual) renewable: solar, wind, tidal energy
- Renewable resources can be depleted if overused (e.g. forests, fish stocks)
- Non-renewable: cannot be replaced within human time scale – e.g. fossil fuels (coal, petroleum, natural gas)
- Minerals and metals (iron, gemstones, graphite) are non-renewable
- Biotic resources (plants, animals) vs abiotic (minerals, water, land)
- Sri Lankan examples: mineral sands, graphite, gems, forests, fisheries
- Sustainable use: meeting present needs without compromising future generations' ability to meet theirs
- Use renewable resources below their regeneration rate (e.g. sustainable yield fishing, forestry)
- Reduce, reuse, recycle to minimize consumption and waste
- Shift to renewable energy (solar, wind, hydro) from fossil fuels
- Efficient use: energy conservation, drip irrigation, water harvesting
- Conservation of soil (contour farming, terracing, cover crops)
- Reforestation and protected areas
- Pollution control and waste management
- Conservation of biodiversity and genetic resources
- Laws, policies, EIA and public awareness/education
- Made of 33 vertebrae in childhood; 26 bones in adults (sacrum and coccyx fused)
- Cervical 7, thoracic 12, lumbar 5, sacral 5 (fused), coccygeal 4 (fused)
- Four curvatures: cervical and lumbar (secondary, convex anteriorly); thoracic and sacral (primary)
- Typical vertebra: body, vertebral arch, vertebral foramen, spinous and transverse processes, articular processes
- Intervertebral discs (fibrocartilage) act as shock absorbers and permit movement
- Atlas has no body; axis has dens – allow head rotation
- Cervical: transverse foramina, bifid spines; thoracic: facets for ribs; lumbar: large bodies
- Functions: supports body/head, protects spinal cord, attachment of ribs and muscles, flexible movement, erect posture
- Alien (non-native) species introduced intentionally or accidentally that spread rapidly and harm native biodiversity
- Features: rapid reproduction, high dispersal, wide tolerance, no natural enemies
- Effects: outcompete natives, predation, habitat alteration, disease spread, economic loss
- Major cause of biodiversity loss
- Sri Lankan plant examples: Lantana camara, Ulex europaeus, Eichhornia crassipes (water hyacinth), Salvinia molesta, Prosopis juliflora, Annona glabra
- Animal examples: tilapia, apple snail (Pomacea), African land snail
- Control: prevention/quarantine, mechanical removal, biological control, awareness
- Prokaryotes of Domain Bacteria; photoautotrophic
- Contain chlorophyll a and phycobilins (phycocyanin, phycoerythrin); no chloroplasts – thylakoids free in cytoplasm
- Oxygenic photosynthesis; store cyanophycean starch
- Unicellular, colonial or filamentous; often with mucilage sheath; no flagella
- Heterocysts fix N₂ (Anabaena, Nostoc); akinetes for survival
- Reproduce asexually by binary fission, fragmentation/hormogonia
- Examples: Nostoc, Anabaena, Oscillatoria, Lyngbya, Spirulina
- Importance: N₂ fixation in paddy fields; O₂ production; primary producers; Spirulina as food; cause algal blooms/toxins (Microcystis); symbiosis (Azolla–Anabaena, lichens)
Scan notes: All 50 MCQs and all Paper II questions legible. Q34 food web, Q50 biome diagram and Q4A pedigree read from page images. Answers judged without official marking scheme; ambiguous items (5, 12, 18, 22, 23, 44, 48, 50) marked medium.
G.C.E. (Advanced Level) — Biology
Old syllabus (pre-2019) · Re-set practice paper
Every question tests the same concept as question of the same number in the 2018 paper, re-written by MEDVision. Source coverage: Paper I + Paper II Part A (essay page missing from scan).
A cell in an onion root tip is observed during metaphase of mitosis. Which of the following would be seen in this cell at this stage?
- 1The nucleolus reappearing inside a newly formed nucleus
- 2Sister chromatids moving towards opposite poles
- 3Chromosomes lying on the equatorial plane, each attached to spindle fibres at its centromere
- 4A new nuclear envelope forming around each chromosome set
- 5Chromatin threads just beginning to coil and shorten
A student examines an unstained, living Hydrilla leaf cell under the high power of an ordinary light microscope. Which of the following structures would the student NOT be able to identify clearly?
- 1Cell wall
- 2Chloroplasts
- 3Large central vacuole
- 4Mitochondria
- 5Nucleus
Which one of the following steps associated with photosynthesis directly uses ATP?
- 1Splitting of water molecules at photosystem II
- 2Combination of CO₂ with PEP to form oxaloacetate
- 3Diffusion of O₂ out of the leaf through stomata
- 4Conversion of pyruvate to PEP in mesophyll cells of maize
- 5Combination of CO₂ with RuBP catalysed by rubisco
Which of the following statements about the chemical elements present in organisms is correct?
- 1All of the naturally occurring elements are essential to living organisms.
- 2Trace elements make up more than 1% of the dry mass of an organism.
- 3The relative proportions of elements vary from one kind of organism to another.
- 4Iron is one of the major (macro) elements of living matter.
- 5Sodium is one of the six most abundant elements in living matter, along with C, H, O, N and P.
Cohesion between water molecules and adhesion of water to other surfaces are important in plants. Which of the following plant functions depends mainly on a DIFFERENT property of water?
- 1Ascent of an unbroken water column in the xylem of a tall tree
- 2Uptake of water held in soil pores by root hairs
- 3Firmness of non-woody stems maintained by water-filled cells
- 4Capillary rise of water along narrow xylem lumens
- 5Dissolving of ions and sugars in the cytoplasm
A plant has flowers whose parts occur in threes. Which one of the following lists contains features that would ALL be present in this plant?
- 1Ovules enclosed in an ovary, dominant sporophyte generation, more than one type of RNA polymerase, scattered vascular bundles in the stem
- 2One cotyledon, fibrous roots, membrane lipids with branched hydrocarbon chains
- 3Parallel venation, a free-living photosynthetic gametophyte, vascular bundles lacking cambium
- 4Heterospory, fibrous roots, protein synthesis initiated with formyl-methionine
- 5Perianth, seeds not enclosed in a fruit, scattered vascular bundles in the stem
Which of the following could be true of a single-celled protist that lacks flagella at every stage of its life?
- 1It has a cell wall made of peptidoglycan.
- 2It lacks a membrane-bound nucleus.
- 3It obtains its food heterotrophically.
- 4It reproduces by producing flagellated zoospores.
- 5It belongs to kingdom Monera.
Which of the following statements on the classification of living organisms is correct?
- 1Viruses are not placed in any kingdom because they lack a well-defined nucleus.
- 2Carolus Linnaeus placed living organisms in two kingdoms, plants and animals.
- 3Kingdom Protista is a natural group whose members share a single common ancestor.
- 4Members of a genus share more common characters than members of a species.
- 5The three-domain system was introduced by Robert Whittaker.
A bilaterally symmetrical animal with a true coelom bears tentacles on its head and has a dorsally placed heart. Which of the following structures would this animal most probably possess?
- 1Pinnules
- 2Jointed antennae
- 3Gills (ctenidia)
- 4Calcareous endoskeletal spines
- 5Cnidocytes
Which of the following statements on the human alimentary canal is correct?
- 1In the stomach wall, the longitudinal muscle layer lies immediately next to the submucosa.
- 2The gaps between neighbouring microvilli are called crypts of Lieberkühn.
- 3Secretin causes the gall bladder to contract and release bile.
- 4Impulses carried by the vagus nerve increase the secretion of gastric juice.
- 5Microvilli can be resolved under the low power of a light microscope.
Which of the following statements about the control of breathing in humans is correct?
- 1A rise in arterial blood pH stimulates the aortic chemoreceptors to increase breathing.
- 2The respiratory centres are located in the hypothalamus.
- 3Impulses from the inspiratory centre of the medulla oblongata cause the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles to contract.
- 4Stimulation of lung stretch receptors inhibits the expiratory centre.
- 5Stimulation of the expiratory centre causes the diaphragm to contract.
Which of the following best describes the movement of water and dissolved mineral ions in the xylem of a tall tree?
- 1It occurs in both directions, from source to sink.
- 2It is driven by ATP hydrolysis in the vessel elements.
- 3It is a mass flow under tension (negative pressure) produced by transpiration.
- 4It is best explained by the Münch pressure-flow hypothesis.
- 5It is not affected by the rate of transpiration.
Two plant cells are described. Cell X: dead, lignified secondary wall, short and broad, many pits, wide lumen. Cell Y: dead, very thick lignified secondary wall, long and narrow with tapering ends, almost no pits, very narrow lumen. Cells X and Y are respectively
- 1a tracheid and a vessel element.
- 2a vessel element and a sclerenchyma fibre.
- 3a companion cell and a tracheid.
- 4a sieve tube element and a sclerenchyma fibre.
- 5a vessel element and a tracheid.
Which one of the following statements regarding animal circulatory systems is correct?
- 1The valve between the left atrium and left ventricle of the human heart has two cusps.
- 2Nematodes have a closed circulatory system.
- 3Haemerythrin is the respiratory pigment of prawns.
- 4The AV node acts as the pacemaker of the human heart.
- 5Snails have an open circulatory system with a ventral heart.
A small lesion confined to the pons of the human brain stem would most likely disturb
- 1the control of heart rate.
- 2the regulation of the rhythm of breathing.
- 3the regulation of blood pressure.
- 4the interpretation of sensory information.
- 5the regulation of body temperature.
Which of the following statements regarding the human ear is correct?
- 1The malleus fits into the oval window.
- 2A healthy young person hears sounds of 50–30 000 Hz.
- 3Sensory hair cells responsible for hearing are located in the organ of Corti.
- 4The pinna is supported by hyaline cartilage.
- 5The membranous labyrinth is filled with perilymph.
Which of the following is produced by increased parasympathetic activity in humans?
- 1Dilation of the pupils
- 2Increased secretion by sweat glands
- 3Widening of the bronchi
- 4Slowing of the heart rate
- 5Breakdown of liver glycogen to glucose
Which of the following statements about an action potential in a human neurone is correct?
- 1During repolarisation K⁺ ions enter the neurone.
- 2During depolarisation Na⁺ ions leave the neurone.
- 3A single action potential lasts about 10 milliseconds.
- 4A second action potential can be generated at the very instant the first one ends.
- 5The inside of the membrane becomes briefly positive with respect to the outside.
Which of the following statements about human hormones is correct?
- 1Insulin is produced by α-cells of the islets of Langerhans.
- 2Cortisol is the principal mineralocorticoid of the adrenal cortex.
- 3Calcitonin raises the blood calcium level.
- 4Thyroxine increases the basal metabolic rate and heat production.
- 5Inhibin stimulates the secretion of FSH.
When a dwarf pea plant is treated with a certain growth substance its internodes lengthen markedly, and the same substance triggers hydrolytic enzyme synthesis in the aleurone layer of germinating barley. The substance is
- 1auxin.
- 2cytokinin.
- 3gibberellin.
- 4abscisic acid.
- 5ethylene.
Which of the following statements regarding excretion is correct?
- 1In humans, urea is synthesised mainly in the kidneys.
- 2Nephridia occur only in the phylum Annelida.
- 3Producing urea allows the greatest conservation of water.
- 4Freshwater bony fishes excrete mainly uric acid.
- 5Nematodes possess a simple excretory system of longitudinal canals.
Which of the following would NOT be expected as a major constituent of human breast milk?
- 1Casein
- 2Lactose
- 3Galactose as a free monosaccharide
- 4Calcium
- 5Fat
Which one of the following statements about human ribs is correct?
- 1There are eleven pairs of ribs.
- 2Ribs are classified as short bones.
- 3The costal groove lies along the upper border of each rib.
- 4Each rib articulates at its posterior end with a thoracic vertebra.
- 5The first ten pairs of ribs join the sternum directly.
Which of the following statements regarding the bones of the human upper limb is correct?
- 1The ulna is shorter than the radius.
- 2The carpus consists of five bones.
- 3The humerus is the longest bone of the body.
- 4The lower end of the humerus articulates only with the radius.
- 5The head of the radius articulates with the radial notch of the ulna.
In a man, the hormone that exerts negative feedback specifically on FSH secretion is produced by
- 1Leydig (interstitial) cells.
- 2the prostate gland.
- 3Sertoli cells of the seminiferous tubules.
- 4the seminal vesicles.
- 5the bulbourethral glands.
A pea tendril touching a stake coils around it. Which statement about this response is correct?
- 1It is a nastic response, independent of the direction of the stimulus.
- 2It results from unequal growth, cells on the side away from the contact elongating more.
- 3It is the same type of response as a pollen tube growing towards an ovule.
- 4Auxins play no part in it.
- 5It is mainly controlled by cytokinins.
In a flowering plant, which of the following represents the male gametophyte?
- 1The microsporangium (pollen sac)
- 2The microspore mother cell
- 3The sperm nucleus
- 4The pollen grain
- 5The tapetum
Pure-breeding red-flowered and white-flowered four o'clock plants (Mirabilis jalapa) were crossed and every F1 plant had pink flowers. This pattern is due to
- 1codominance.
- 2incomplete dominance.
- 3multiple alleles.
- 4polygenic inheritance.
- 5complete dominance.
Complete the statement: "Different forms of the same gene are termed ____; they originate through ____, most of which arise from errors during ____." Which choice fills the blanks correctly, in order?
- 1genotypes, variations, DNA replication
- 2alleles, mutations, DNA replication
- 3alleles, mutations, translation
- 4mutants, variations, protein synthesis
- 5heterozygotes, mutations, meiosis
Which of the following persons best illustrates Turner syndrome?
- 1A male with karyotype 47,XXY
- 2A female with karyotype 45,X
- 3A male with karyotype 47,XYY
- 4A female with karyotype 47,XXX
- 5A female with a point mutation on one X chromosome
A transgenic (genetically modified) tomato plant differs from ordinary tomato plants because it
- 1contains an extra set of chromosomes.
- 2contains DNA introduced from another organism by recombinant DNA technology.
- 3is genetically identical to its parent plant.
- 4can never produce fertile offspring with other tomato plants.
- 5has better-regulated gene expression.
Which of the following is NOT an appropriate role of a genetic counsellor?
- 1Explaining the nature of a genetic disorder to an affected person
- 2Describing how the disorder is inherited to the affected person and family
- 3Recommending termination of a pregnancy whenever either parent is found to be a carrier
- 4Helping family members to cope with the condition
- 5Estimating the risk of the disorder appearing in future children
In a grassland, gross primary productivity is 2500 kJ m⁻² yr⁻¹ and the energy available at the third trophic level is 12 kJ m⁻² yr⁻¹. If only 10% of energy passes from one trophic level to the next, how much energy (kJ m⁻² yr⁻¹) is used by the producers in respiration?
- 11200
- 21300
- 32380
- 42488
- 52250
Large-scale clearing of forests is most directly linked to which of the following?
- 1A rise in the incidence of skin cancer
- 2Corrosion of marble and limestone statues
- 3A rise in sea level
- 4Accumulation of heavy metals in crops
- 5Narrowing of the geographical range of tropical diseases
The experiment in which Stanley Miller passed electric sparks through a mixture of methane, ammonia, hydrogen and water vapour showed that
- 1life can arise spontaneously from non-living matter.
- 2the primordial seas were rich in organic molecules.
- 3organic molecules such as amino acids can be formed from simple inorganic gases.
- 4all cells arise from pre-existing cells.
- 5life first appeared about 3500 million years ago.
Which of the following correctly describes Nitrosomonas?
- 1A chemoautotroph that oxidises NH₄⁺ to NO₂⁻
- 2A chemoautotroph that oxidises NO₂⁻ to NO₃⁻
- 3A chemoheterotroph that reduces N₂ to NH₃
- 4A chemoautotroph that reduces NO₃⁻ to N₂
- 5A chemoheterotroph that oxidises NH₄⁺ to NO₂⁻
A culture medium has to include a vitamin solution that is destroyed by high temperature. Which is the best way to prepare the sterile medium?
- 1Autoclave the complete medium including the vitamin solution.
- 2Heat the complete medium at 70 °C for three hours.
- 3Autoclave the medium without the vitamin, sterilise the vitamin solution by membrane filtration (0.45 µm or smaller pores), then mix aseptically after cooling.
- 4Autoclave the vitamin solution and the rest of the medium separately and mix them after cooling.
- 5Mix all components and sterilise the flask with ultraviolet light.
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of fungi?
- 1Cell walls made of peptidoglycan
- 2Ingestion of food followed by internal digestion
- 3Heterotrophic nutrition by extracellular digestion and absorption
- 4Storage of food as starch
- 5Reproduction by endospores
Which of the following statements about sanitary landfills for municipal solid waste is correct?
- 1They are rarely used because they are very costly to operate.
- 2They involve filling wetlands with waste.
- 3Spreading, compacting and covering the waste reduces its volume.
- 4Their use is limited in areas where the groundwater table is deep.
- 5The buried waste does not decompose.
Consider these principles of food preservation:
P – keeping microorganisms from entering food
Q – slowing the multiplication of microorganisms already in food
R – destroying the microorganisms present in food
On which of these is canning mainly based?
- 1P, Q and R
- 2P and Q only
- 3P and R only
- 4Q and R only
- 5R only
Which of the following sequence(s) show(s) levels of biological organisation in correct ascending order?
A – Protein molecule, mitochondrion, liver cell, liver tissue, liver
B – Spotted deer, herd of spotted deer, all organisms of Yala, Yala ecosystem, biosphere
C – Myelin sheath, axon, neurone, spinal cord, nervous system
D – Glucose, glycogen granule, blood, erythrocyte, heart
E – Dog, Canidae, Carnivora, Mammalia, Chordata
- 1A and B only
- 2A, B and C only
- 3A and C only
- 4B and E only
- 5A, B and E only
Which of the following organelle(s) take(s) part in the synthesis of glycolipids?
A – Lysosome
B – Golgi apparatus
C – Peroxisome
D – Endoplasmic reticulum
E – Mitochondrion
- 1A and B only
- 2B and D only
- 3D only
- 4B, C and D only
- 5C and E only
Which of the following is/are found ONLY in plant tissues?
A – Plasmodesmata
B – Desmosomes
C – Glyoxysomes
D – Peroxisomes
E – Lysosomes
- 1A only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3A and C only
- 4C and D only
- 5A, B and C only
An ectothermic vertebrate excretes urea as its main nitrogenous waste. Which of the following could it possess?
A – Gills
B – Lungs
C – Feathers
D – A completely divided four-chambered heart
E – External ear (pinna)
- 1A only
- 2A and B only
- 3B and D only
- 4A, B and D only
- 5C, D and E only
Which of the following statements about absorption of the products of digestion in humans is/are correct?
A – Glucose is taken up into intestinal epithelial cells by active transport.
B – Triglycerides are re-formed inside the epithelial cells of the villi.
C – Amino acids pass from the epithelial cells into blood capillaries of the villi by diffusion.
D – Fatty acids and glycerol enter the lacteals directly.
E – Sucrose is absorbed intact into the epithelial cells.
- 1A, B and C only
- 2A and B only
- 3A, B and D only
- 4C, D and E only
- 5A and E only
Which of the following statements about human red blood cells is/are correct?
A – In adults they are formed in red bone marrow.
B – They carry oxygen and part of the carbon dioxide.
C – Their diameter is about 12 µm.
D – Old cells are removed mainly in the spleen and liver.
E – A healthy adult man has about 2–3 million per mm³.
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A and B only
- 3B, C and D only
- 4A, D and E only
- 5A, B, D and E only
Which of the following is/are actively reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule of the human nephron?
A – Glucose
B – Na⁺
C – Urea
D – Amino acids
E – K⁺
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A, B, D and E only
- 3A, B, C and D only
- 4B and E only
- 5A, B, C, D and E
Which of the following statements about human skeletal muscle is/are correct?
A – It fatigues relatively quickly.
B – Its fibres are linked by gap junctions in intercalated discs.
C – Each myofibril contains many sarcomeres arranged in series.
D – It can be stretched (is extensible).
E – Its fibres are short and spindle-shaped.
- 1A, C and D only
- 2A and C only
- 3B, C and D only
- 4C and D only
- 5A, B and D only
Which of the following statements about the human uterus is/are correct?
A – Oestrogen increases the number of oxytocin receptors in the myometrium.
B – Progesterone stimulates strong contractions of the myometrium.
C – Implantation of the blastocyst begins about 6–7 days after fertilisation.
D – The endometrium is lined by stratified squamous epithelium.
E – Uterine gland secretions are the main source of nourishment for the foetus throughout pregnancy.
- 1A, B and C only
- 2A and C only
- 3C and E only
- 4A, C and E only
- 5B and D only
Which line(s) correctly give(s) a characteristic feature of savanna, dry-mixed evergreen forest, tropical lowland rain forest and montane forest, IN THAT ORDER?
A – Fire-resistant trees; indistinct stratification; continuous closed canopy; evergreen trees
B – Continuous closed canopy; grasses dominant; stunted trees; deciduous trees
C – Evergreen trees; fire-resistant trees; indistinct stratification; xerophytes
D – Grasses dominant; fire-resistant trees; evergreen trees; indistinct stratification
E – Stunted trees; evergreen trees; indistinct stratification; twisted trunks
- 1A only
- 2A and D only
- 3B and C only
- 4A, D and E only
- 5D only
(i) Explain briefly what is meant by each of the following characteristics of living organisms: (a) growth (b) development (c) reproduction.
(ii) Name the main type of organic compound present in each of the following: (a) albumen of a hen's egg (b) coconut milk (c) primary walls of plant cells (d) cuticle (exoskeleton) of an insect.
(iii) Name a laboratory test you would use to detect: (a) the main organic compound of egg albumen (b) the main organic compound of coconut milk (c) the main stored food of green algae (Chlorophyta).
(i) Classify monosaccharides according to the number of carbon atoms they contain, giving one named example for each class.
(ii) Define a disaccharide.
(iii) (a) State the chemical property shared by all monosaccharides and certain disaccharides. (b) Describe a simple laboratory test to detect sugars having the property stated in (a), including the expected positive result.
(i) Give the generic names of two seedless vascular plants that are homosporous.
(ii) Six animals are to be separated: a prawn, a garden snail, a leech, a liver fluke, a tapeworm and a sea cucumber. Construct a dichotomous key to identify them using the characters: tentacles, suckers, hooks, body segmentation and a large muscular foot.
(iii) Draw a labelled sketch of the external appearance of a pedicellaria of a starfish.
(iv) Name two classes of echinoderms whose members lack pedicellariae.
(i) Apart from cnidarians and flatworms, name one class of animals whose members have an alimentary canal with only one opening.
(ii) (a) Describe the radula. (b) State its function.
(iii) (a) Explain why some plants are insectivorous. (b) Give the generic name of one aquatic insectivorous plant.
(iv) (a) Trace, in order, the route taken by air from the exterior to the alveoli in humans. (b) State the role of goblet cells in the respiratory tract.
(v) (a) Define a respiratory cycle. (b) State the volume of air inhaled during one quiet respiratory cycle of a healthy adult man at rest.
(i) (a) Explain the term ultrafiltration as it occurs in the nephron. (b) Name one ion secreted into the lumen of the human nephron.
(ii) Apart from forming urine, state three functions of the human kidney.
(iii) Name the receptors in human skin that take part in thermoregulation.
(iv) (a) Name the structural and functional unit of the human liver. (b) State four ways in which the liver contributes to homeostasis.
(i) State three factors responsible for the resting membrane potential of a neurone.
(ii) Which lobe of the cerebrum controls the muscle movements needed for speech?
(iii) (a) Define a hormone. (b) State the part(s) of the kidney tubule on which ADH acts.
(iv) Give two main differences between nervous and endocrine coordination.
(v) (a) Describe the paranasal sinuses of the human skull. (b) Name a bone containing a sinus that is not a cranial bone. (c) State two functions of these sinuses.
(vi) Name the two processes on the ramus of the human mandible and state the function of each.
(i) Where is the pacemaker of the human heart located?
(ii) Name the first arteries that branch from the aorta and the structure they supply.
(iii) Explain how the blood circulatory system helps to keep human body temperature constant in hot and in cold conditions.
(iv) Taking both the ABO and Rh systems into account, state the blood group of (a) a universal donor (b) a universal recipient.
In a stained section of a young plant organ, P is a central star-shaped tissue with four radiating arms, Q is a tissue in separate groups lying between those arms, R is a single ring of barrel-shaped cells enclosing the vascular cylinder, and S is the layer of cells immediately inside R.
(i) Identify the organ and the type of section.
(ii) (a) Name tissues P, Q, R and S. (b) Which tissue would stain red with safranin?
(iii) Draw and label a few cells of tissue R at maturity.
(iv) Explain the features that make gymnosperms more successful on land than bryophytes.
(v) Apart from propagating plants with desired traits, state three uses of plant tissue culture.
(i) State the main purpose of observing a methylene-blue-stained bacterial smear under high power.
(ii) (a) Name the arrangements of cocci seen as: single cells; groups of four; chains; irregular grape-like clusters. (b) Name two ways in which bacilli may be arranged.
(iii) (a) What are prions? (b) State ways by which prions may be transmitted between humans.
(iv) What term is used for members of the normal human microbiota that cause disease when body resistance falls?
(v) Give four factors that lower the general resistance of the human body to infection.
(i) (a) Define the placenta. (b) Name the type of placenta found in humans.
(ii) (a) Name one substance that crosses the placenta in both directions between mother and foetus. (b) Name one virus that can cross the placenta.
(iii) (a) Name a hormone produced only by the placenta. (b) Apart from hormone secretion and exchange of materials, state two functions of the placenta.
(iv) (a) Define lactation. (b) Name two hormones directly involved in it.
(v) Explain the cause of menopause.
(i) State the site of oxidative phosphorylation in a eukaryotic cell.
(ii) Outline the events of oxidative phosphorylation.
(iii) Name three enzymes that take part in DNA replication and give one function of each.
(iv) State three crop-protection traits that have been introduced into crop plants by genetic modification.
(i) Explain why the study of environmental science is important.
(ii) Define in-situ conservation.
(iii) Apart from declaring national reserves, give three methods of in-situ conservation.
(iv) What is the Ramsar Convention?
(v) Name two Ramsar wetlands in the north-western part of Sri Lanka.
Answer key — this booklet
Answer key — original 2018 paper (MEDVision model answers)
For students working from the original paper. Shaded cells: check against the official marking scheme (amber = likely, red = disputed).
Paper I — reviews
Paper II — marking points
- Growth: irreversible increase in dry mass/size of an organism (cell number/size)
- Development: changes in form and function during life, involving differentiation and specialisation of cells
- Reproduction: producing new individuals of the same kind to continue the species
- Egg white – protein; coconut milk – lipid (fat)
- Primary cell wall – carbohydrate (cellulose, polysaccharide); arthropod exoskeleton – carbohydrate (chitin, with protein)
- Test for egg-white protein: Biuret test (violet/purple colour)
- Test for coconut-milk lipid: Sudan III test (red-stained oil droplets/layer) or grease-spot test
- Main storage substance of Chlorophyta is starch – iodine test (blue-black)
- Triose (3C) – glyceraldehyde/dihydroxyacetone
- Tetrose (4C) – erythrose
- Pentose (5C) – ribose/deoxyribose/ribulose
- Hexose (6C) – glucose/fructose/galactose
- Disaccharide: sugar formed by condensation of two monosaccharides joined by a glycosidic bond (e.g. maltose, sucrose, lactose)
- Common feature: reducing property (free aldehyde/ketone group acting as reducing agent)
- Benedict's test: add equal volume of Benedict's reagent to sample solution, heat in a boiling water bath ~2–5 min
- Positive result: blue → green/yellow/orange/brick-red precipitate (Cu²⁺ reduced to Cu₂O)
- Include a control (water) for comparison
- Homosporous seedless vascular plants: Lycopodium, Nephrolepis/Pteris/Dryopteris (ferns), Psilotum, Equisetum (any two)
- Animals: (a) prawn, (b) snail, (c) leech, (d) liver fluke, (e) tapeworm, (f) sea cucumber
- Key 1: tentacles present → 5; tentacles absent → 2
- Key 2: suckers present → 3; suckers absent → (a) prawn
- Key 3: hooks present → (e) tapeworm; hooks absent → 4
- Key 4: segmented body → (c) leech; unsegmented body → (d) liver fluke
- Key 5: large foot present → (b) snail; large foot absent → (f) sea cucumber
- Pedicellaria drawing: small stalk (with muscles) bearing two/three movable jaws (pincers) at tip
- Classes without pedicellaria: Holothuroidea, Crinoidea, Ophiuroidea (any two)
- Class with incomplete alimentary canal (besides cnidarians/flatworms): Ophiuroidea (brittle stars)
- Radula: chitinous ribbon bearing rows of teeth in the buccal cavity of molluscs (not bivalves)
- Use of radula: scraping/rasping food and carrying it into the mouth
- Insectivorous plants grow in nitrogen-poor soils; trap and digest insects to obtain nitrogen (and minerals)
- Aquatic insectivorous plant: Utricularia
- Air path: nostrils → nasal cavity → pharynx → larynx → trachea → bronchi → bronchioles → terminal/respiratory bronchioles → alveolar ducts → alveoli
- Goblet cells secrete mucus that traps dust and microorganisms and moistens the airway
- Respiratory cycle: one inspiration followed by one expiration
- Tidal volume ≈ 500 ml (0.5 dm³)
- Ultrafiltration: filtration of blood plasma under high hydrostatic pressure from glomerular capillaries into Bowman's capsule; blood cells and large proteins retained
- Ions secreted into nephron lumen: H⁺, K⁺ (also NH₄⁺, HCO₃⁻ in some cases)
- Other kidney functions: osmoregulation (water balance), pH (acid–base) regulation, secretion of erythropoietin/renin, activation of vitamin D, blood pressure regulation (any three)
- Thermoreceptors: hot (heat) receptors and cold receptors (free nerve endings/Ruffini and Krause end bulbs)
- Functional unit of liver: liver lobule
- Homeostatic roles: regulation of blood glucose (glycogenesis/glycogenolysis/gluconeogenesis), deamination & urea formation, detoxification, regulation of plasma proteins, lipid/cholesterol regulation, heat production, storage of vitamins/iron (any four)
- Resting potential factors: Na⁺/K⁺ pump (3 Na⁺ out, 2 K⁺ in); greater membrane permeability to K⁺ than Na⁺ (K⁺ leak); large negatively charged proteins/anions inside the cell
- Frontal lobe (Broca's area) controls speech muscle movements
- Hormone: chemical messenger secreted in small amounts by endocrine cells into blood and acting on distant target cells
- ADH acts on the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct (increases water permeability)
- Nervous: electrical impulses via neurones, rapid, short-lived, localised; Endocrine: chemical via blood, slower, long-lasting, widespread
- Sinuses: air-filled cavities in some skull bones, lined with mucous membrane and opening into the nasal cavity
- Bone with sinuses not part of cranium: maxilla
- Functions: lighten the skull; resonance of voice (also warm/moisten air)
- Mandible processes: coronoid process – attachment of temporalis muscle; condylar process – articulates with temporal bone (temporomandibular joint)
- Pacemaker (SA node) is in the wall of the right atrium near the opening of the superior vena cava
- First branches of aorta: coronary arteries (right and left) supplying the heart muscle (myocardium)
- Circulation distributes heat from metabolically active organs (liver, muscle) throughout the body
- In heat: vasodilation of skin arterioles increases blood flow to skin, increasing heat loss
- In cold: vasoconstriction reduces skin blood flow, conserving heat; blood flow diverted to core
- Universal donor: O Rh-negative (O⁻)
- Universal recipient: AB Rh-positive (AB⁺)
- Structure: transverse section of a (young) dicot root
- P – xylem; Q – phloem; R – endodermis; S – pericycle
- Tissue stained red by safranin: xylem (lignified walls)
- Drawing of mature endodermis: compact barrel-shaped cells without intercellular spaces, with Casparian strips/suberised thickened walls and passage cells opposite xylem
- Gymnosperm success over bryophytes: dominant sporophyte with true roots, stem, leaves; well-developed vascular tissue (xylem, phloem)
- Thick cuticle, stomata, lignified support allowing tall growth
- Seeds with protective coat and food store; pollen grains so fertilisation is independent of water
- Reduced, dependent gametophytes protected within sporophyte
- Tissue culture uses: production of disease (virus)-free plants; germplasm conservation; production of secondary metabolites; producing haploid plants/somatic hybrids; genetic engineering of plants; rapid multiplication of plants difficult to propagate (any three)
- Purpose: to observe the shape (morphology) and arrangement of bacterial cells
- A – coccus (single/monococcus); B – tetrad (tetracocci); C – streptococci (chain); D – staphylococci (irregular cluster)
- Bacilli arrangements: single bacilli and streptobacilli (chains) (also diplobacilli)
- Prions: infectious, misfolded protein particles without nucleic acid that convert normal proteins into abnormal form (cause CJD, kuru)
- Transmission: contaminated surgical instruments, tissue/organ transplants (corneal, dura), blood transfusion, consuming infected nervous tissue (cannibalism), growth hormone from cadavers
- Such microbes are opportunistic pathogens
- Lowered resistance: malnutrition, old age/infancy, stress and fatigue, immunodeficiency diseases (HIV), chronic illness (diabetes, cancer), immunosuppressive drugs/chemotherapy, prolonged antibiotic use, alcohol/smoking, injuries/burns (any four)
- Placenta: temporary organ formed from foetal (chorion) and maternal (endometrium) tissues for exchange between mother and foetus
- Human placenta type: haemochorial (chorionic/discoid) placenta
- Material crossing both ways: water (also hormones); e.g. O₂ in, CO₂/urea out
- Virus crossing placenta: HIV, rubella virus (also hepatitis B, cytomegalovirus)
- Hormone only from placenta: human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) (or human placental lactogen)
- Other functions: barrier against some pathogens/harmful substances; transfer of maternal antibodies (passive immunity); anchoring foetus; storage (glycogen, iron)
- Lactation: secretion and ejection of milk from mammary glands after childbirth
- Hormones: prolactin (milk production) and oxytocin (milk ejection)
- Menopause: depletion of ovarian follicles so ovaries stop responding/secreting oestrogen and progesterone, ending menstrual cycles
- Site: inner mitochondrial membrane (cristae)
- NADH and FADH₂ donate electrons to the electron transport chain
- Electrons pass along carriers, releasing energy used to pump H⁺ into the intermembrane space
- Proton gradient drives H⁺ back through ATP synthase, phosphorylating ADP to ATP (chemiosmosis)
- O₂ is the final electron acceptor, combining with H⁺ to form water
- Helicase – unwinds the double helix by breaking hydrogen bonds
- DNA polymerase – adds nucleotides to the 3′ end of new strand (and proofreads)
- Primase – makes RNA primer; ligase – joins Okazaki fragments (also topoisomerase relieves strain)
- GM traits: insect/pest resistance (Bt toxin), herbicide resistance, virus/disease resistance (also drought/salinity tolerance)
- Environmental science helps understand interactions of humans with the environment, identify problems and find solutions for sustainable use and conservation
- In-situ conservation: conserving species within their natural habitats
- Methods (other than national reserves): sanctuaries, forest reserves, biosphere reserves, conservation of wetlands/mangroves, protecting sacred groves, community conservation areas, legal protection of species (any three)
- Ramsar convention: international treaty (1971, Ramsar, Iran) for conservation and wise use of wetlands of international importance
- NW Sri Lanka Ramsar sites: Wilpattu wetland cluster, Vankalai Sanctuary (also Anawilundawa, Mannar area)
Scan notes: Old-syllabus 2018 paper. Paper I complete (Q1-50). Paper II Part A (Q1-4) present; Part B essay page (Q5-10) missing from scan, so essays are omitted. Low-confidence MCQs: Q7 (diatoms make option 2 arguable), Q44, Q45.
G.C.E. (Advanced Level) — Biology
Old syllabus (pre-2019) · Re-set practice paper
Every question tests the same concept as question of the same number in the 2019 (Old) paper, re-written by MEDVision. Source coverage: Paper I + full Paper II.
A researcher proposes that a fungicide reduces leaf-spot disease in chilli plants and tests the idea through several trials. Which statement about the scientific method is correct?
- 1Every scientific investigation must include a control group.
- 2A theory, once accepted, can never be modified.
- 3A hypothesis repeatedly supported by experimental evidence gains acceptance, but it is never proven absolutely.
- 4Predictions are not required in order to test a hypothesis.
- 5A hypothesis is formulated only after experiments have been completed.
Which of the following correctly matches a property of water with its biological significance?
- 1High specific heat capacity: cooling of the human body by sweating
- 2Adhesion: pond skaters walking on the water surface
- 3High latent heat of fusion: cell contents and water bodies resist freezing because much heat must be lost before ice forms
- 4Cohesion: dissolving of ionic compounds in the cytoplasm
- 5High latent heat of vaporisation: stable temperature of large lakes throughout the day
Which statement about eukaryotic cell organelles is correct?
- 1The Golgi apparatus is the main site of steroid hormone synthesis.
- 2Ribosomes are composed of protein and transfer RNA.
- 3Rough endoplasmic reticulum consists mainly of branched tubules with no cisternae.
- 4Peroxisomes contain enzymes that transfer hydrogen from substrates to oxygen, producing hydrogen peroxide.
- 5Lysosomes are bounded by a double membrane.
The lining of the urinary bladder must prevent urine from seeping between its epithelial cells. Which statement about cell junctions is correct?
- 1Gap junctions are the main junctions found between plant cell walls.
- 2Anchoring junctions allow ions to pass directly between the cytoplasm of adjacent cells.
- 3Plasmodesmata connect adjacent animal epithelial cells.
- 4Desmosomes form a continuous seal that stops fluid leaking between epithelial cells.
- 5Tight junctions bind neighbouring plasma membranes so closely that extracellular fluid cannot leak between the cells.
Which of the following correctly describes an event in the eukaryotic cell cycle?
- 1The nuclear envelope re-forms during anaphase.
- 2DNA replication takes place during the G₂ phase.
- 3Chromosomes first begin to condense during telophase.
- 4The centromeres of the chromosomes lie on the equatorial plane during metaphase.
- 5The spindle first begins to form during anaphase.
Which statement about glycolysis is correct?
- 1Glycolysis takes place in the cytosol whether or not oxygen is present.
- 2Glucose is converted to fructose‑1,6‑bisphosphate without the use of ATP.
- 3There is a net gain of four ATP per glucose molecule.
- 4Glycolysis occurs in the mitochondrial matrix.
- 5The end product of glycolysis is acetyl coenzyme A.
Which statement about the Krebs cycle is correct?
- 1The Krebs cycle takes place in the cytosol.
- 2The Krebs cycle can continue indefinitely in the absence of oxygen.
- 3Most of the ATP of aerobic respiration is formed directly in the Krebs cycle.
- 4FADH₂ is oxidised within the Krebs cycle to form ATP directly.
- 5Carbon dioxide is released in decarboxylation reactions of the cycle in the mitochondrial matrix.
Which generalisation is true for Kingdom Protista as classified in the A/L syllabus?
- 1None of its members has a cell wall.
- 2All of its multicellular members are photosynthetic.
- 3None of its members possesses cilia.
- 4All its members share a single common ancestor (monophyletic).
- 5None of its members stores starch.
A taxonomist wants to group a set of birds according to their evolutionary relationships. Which criterion is most suitable?
- 1Number of toes on each foot
- 2Similarity of nucleotide sequences in their ribosomal RNA genes
- 3Colour of the feathers
- 4Presence or absence of a crest
- 5Length of the beak
Which statement is true for Kingdom Plantae?
- 1All heterosporous plants are independent of water for fertilisation.
- 2All homosporous plants lack vascular tissue.
- 3In all tracheophytes, the sporophyte is the dominant generation.
- 4All seed plants produce flowers.
- 5The gametophytes of all seedless vascular plants are non-photosynthetic.
A student wishes to place an unknown flatworm in its correct class using a single feature. Which feature is most suitable?
- 1Presence of a mouth
- 2Presence of eye spots
- 3Dorso-ventrally flattened body
- 4Nature of the body surface: ciliated epidermis or non-ciliated tegument
- 5Leaf-like body shape
In a transverse section of part of the human small intestine, which feature confirms that the section is from the duodenum?
- 1Glands in the submucosa that secrete alkaline mucus
- 2Villi projecting into the lumen
- 3Lacteals in the villi
- 4Inner circular and outer longitudinal muscle layers
- 5Goblet cells in the epithelium
A red blood cell enters the liver through the hepatic artery. Which sequence correctly shows its route to a lung?
- 1hepatic artery → hepatic portal vein → inferior vena cava → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary artery
- 2hepatic artery → liver sinusoids → hepatic vein → inferior vena cava → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary artery
- 3hepatic artery → hepatic vein → superior vena cava → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary vein
- 4hepatic artery → liver sinusoids → hepatic vein → inferior vena cava → left atrium → left ventricle → aorta
- 5hepatic artery → hepatic portal vein → hepatic vein → inferior vena cava → right atrium → pulmonary vein
Which white blood cell is correctly matched with its function?
- 1Basophil: production of antibodies
- 2Neutrophil: release of heparin
- 3Eosinophil: defence against parasitic worms and moderation of allergic reactions
- 4B lymphocyte: phagocytosis of bacteria
- 5Monocyte: release of histamine
Which statement about the movement of water and ions in flowering plants is correct?
- 1Uptake of K⁺ into guard cells is driven by ATP-powered proton pumps, lowering their water potential.
- 2The Casparian strip of the endodermis stops all ions from entering the xylem.
- 3The vacuolar pathway offers the least resistance to water movement across the root cortex.
- 4When stomata open, K⁺ ions move out of the guard cells.
- 5Mineral ions enter root hair cells only by simple diffusion.
Which statement about translocation in the phloem is correct?
- 1Glucose is the main sugar transported in phloem.
- 2Loading of sucrose into sieve tubes is passive and needs no ATP.
- 3Phloem sap contains no inorganic ions.
- 4Translocation occurs only downwards, from the leaves to the roots.
- 5Plant hormones and systemic pesticides can be carried in the phloem, both upwards and downwards.
A human spinal nerve is best described as containing
- 1only axons of motor neurones.
- 2only dendrons of sensory neurones.
- 3cell bodies of both sensory and motor neurones.
- 4long dendrites (dendrons) of sensory neurones and axons of motor neurones.
- 5axons of interneurones only.
Which statement about the human autonomic nervous system is correct?
- 1Sympathetic preganglionic fibres are longer than the postganglionic fibres.
- 2Both sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions supply cardiac muscle, smooth muscle and glands.
- 3Sweat glands of the skin receive both sympathetic and parasympathetic fibres.
- 4The parasympathetic division predominates in a stressful situation.
- 5Sympathetic stimulation increases digestive secretions.
Which of the following receptor–stimulus type pairings is INCORRECT?
- 1Rods of the retina: photoreceptors
- 2Hair cells of the organ of Corti: mechanoreceptors
- 3Olfactory cells of the nasal epithelium: mechanoreceptors
- 4Taste receptor cells: chemoreceptors
- 5Pacinian corpuscles: mechanoreceptors
Which statement about antidiuretic hormone (ADH) in humans is correct?
- 1ADH makes the distal tubule and collecting duct more permeable to water, producing a small volume of concentrated urine.
- 2ADH is synthesised in the posterior pituitary.
- 3ADH secretion increases when blood osmotic pressure falls.
- 4ADH causes arterioles to dilate.
- 5ADH acts mainly on the proximal convoluted tubule.
In a healthy person, which component of blood plasma is largely retained in the glomerular capillaries during ultrafiltration?
- 1Glucose
- 2Albumin
- 3Urea
- 4Amino acids
- 5Sodium ions
Which statement about the human skull is correct?
- 1The cranium consists of 14 bones.
- 2The maxilla is the only movable bone of the skull.
- 3The frontal bone contributes to both the forehead (face) and the cranium.
- 4The zygomatic arch is formed entirely by the zygomatic bone.
- 5The nasal bones contain air sinuses.
Which statement about the bones and joints of the human upper limb is correct?
- 1The glenoid cavity is part of the humerus.
- 2All eight carpals articulate with the radius.
- 3The phalanges articulate directly with the carpals.
- 4The elbow joint is formed by the humerus and scapula.
- 5The saddle joint between the trapezium and the first metacarpal allows the thumb to be opposed.
Consider the following statements about the smooth muscle of the wall of the human small intestine.
A – Its cells are spindle-shaped.
B – Each cell has a single, centrally placed nucleus.
C – Its cells are branched.
D – Its cells show cross-striations due to sarcomeres.
E – It contracts slowly and is slow to fatigue.
Which of the above is/are correct?
- 1A and B only
- 2A, B and E only
- 3A, C and E only
- 4B, D and E only
- 5C and D only
Which statement about plant movements is correct?
- 1Nastic movements depend on the direction of the stimulus.
- 2Growth of a pollen tube towards the ovule is a thigmotropism.
- 3Tropisms are directional growth curvatures of a plant part caused by unequal distribution of auxin.
- 4Tropic responses involve movement of the whole plant.
- 5Folding of Mimosa leaflets when touched is a tropism.
Which of the following pairings of an asexual reproduction method and an organism is INCORRECT?
- 1Multiple fission: Spirogyra
- 2Binary fission: Paramecium
- 3Budding: yeast
- 4Multiple fission: Plasmodium
- 5Sporangiospore formation: Rhizopus
In man, spermatozoa become motile and gain the ability to fertilise (mature) mainly while they are in the
- 1seminiferous tubules.
- 2vas deferens.
- 3epididymis.
- 4seminal vesicles.
- 5rete testis.
Which feature of sexual reproduction is shared by all land plants (embryophytes)?
- 1All need external water for fertilisation.
- 2All are heterosporous.
- 3The gametophyte is the dominant generation in all of them.
- 4All produce pollen tubes.
- 5The egg is retained and fertilised within a female structure of the parent plant.
Which statement about the life cycle of Pogonatum is correct?
- 1The sporophyte is independent and lives longer than the gametophyte.
- 2Male and female sex organs are borne on separate gametophyte plants.
- 3Each archegonium contains several eggs.
- 4The sporophyte consists of true roots, stem and leaves.
- 5Spores are produced by mitosis in the capsule.
Which statement about fertilisation in flowering plants is correct?
- 1The generative nucleus fertilises the egg directly, without dividing.
- 2Double fertilisation is common in gymnosperms.
- 3Parthenocarpic fruits contain fertilised seeds.
- 4The endosperm develops from the triploid nucleus formed when one male gamete fuses with the two polar nuclei.
- 5The zygote is formed by fusion of the tube nucleus with the egg.
To find out whether a tall pea plant is homozygous or heterozygous, it should be crossed with
- 1a homozygous dwarf (recessive) plant.
- 2another tall plant from the same F₁.
- 3a homozygous tall plant.
- 4one of its parents, whatever its phenotype.
- 5a randomly chosen F₂ plant.
What is the expected result of repeated inbreeding in a crop population?
- 1An increase in genetic diversity
- 2The production of hybrid vigour
- 3A decrease in the frequency of homozygous individuals
- 4An increase in homozygosity, giving true-breeding (pure) lines
- 5The elimination of inbreeding depression
Two plants, each heterozygous for two genes (AaBb, with A and B on the same parental chromosome), are crossed. The F₂ shows only a 3:1 phenotypic ratio instead of 9:3:3:1. What is the most likely reason?
- 1Incomplete dominance at locus A
- 2Codominance at both loci
- 3Independent assortment of the two genes
- 4Multiple alleles at locus B
- 5Complete linkage of the two genes on the same chromosome
Which statement about the layers of the Earth's atmosphere is correct?
- 1The ozone layer lies within the troposphere.
- 2The mesosphere extends from about 50 km to about 85 km above the Earth's surface.
- 3Temperature decreases with altitude throughout the stratosphere.
- 4Most of the water vapour and dust is found in the stratosphere.
- 5The thermosphere lies directly above the troposphere.
In which option do all three organisms belong to the same category for Sri Lanka (endemic, exotic or migrant)?
- 1Sri Lanka junglefowl, purple-faced langur, tilapia
- 2Indian pitta, barn swallow, forest wagtail
- 3Rubber, kithul, water hyacinth
- 4Water hyacinth, Sri Lanka blue magpie, barn swallow
- 5Black ruby barb, guppy, snakehead
Which option shows the following groups in the order in which they first appeared on Earth (earliest first)?
- 1Insects, bryophytes, dinosaurs, conifers
- 2Conifers, bryophytes, insects, dinosaurs
- 3Bryophytes, conifers, dinosaurs, insects
- 4Bryophytes, insects, conifers, dinosaurs
- 5Dinosaurs, conifers, insects, bryophytes
Which statement correctly describes cyanobacteria?
- 1They photosynthesise in chloroplasts.
- 2They survive unfavourable conditions by forming endospores.
- 3They reproduce sexually by fusion of gametes.
- 4They use atmospheric nitrogen as an energy source.
- 5They are prokaryotes with oxygen-releasing photosynthesis, and some fix nitrogen in heterocysts.
Which statement about viruses is correct?
- 1Lytic viruses release their progeny by bursting the host cell.
- 2Viruses can multiply in sterile nutrient broth.
- 3Viruses are retained by bacteriological filters.
- 4Mad cow disease is caused by a virus.
- 5A virus particle contains both DNA and RNA.
Which of the following correctly pairs an industrially produced enzyme with a microorganism used to produce it?
- 1Cellulase: Lactobacillus
- 2Amylase: Nitrobacter
- 3Lipase: Rhizopus
- 4Invertase: Rhizobium
- 5Protease: Azotobacter
Food intoxication is caused by eating toxins already formed in the food. Which pair of bacteria both cause food intoxication?
- 1Salmonella and Shigella
- 2Vibrio and Salmonella
- 3Shigella and Clostridium botulinum
- 4Salmonella and Vibrio parahaemolyticus
- 5Staphylococcus aureus and Clostridium botulinum
Consider the following statements about enzyme cofactors.
A – They are non-protein components needed for the activity of some enzymes.
B – Every enzyme requires a cofactor.
C – Prosthetic groups are tightly (permanently) bound to the enzyme.
D – Coenzymes are organic molecules that bind loosely to the enzyme.
E – All cofactors are organic molecules.
Which of the above is/are correct?
- 1A, C and D only
- 2A, B and C only
- 3B, D and E only
- 4A, D and E only
- 5C, D and E only
Consider the following statements about modes of nutrition.
A – Parasitism is a form of symbiosis.
B – Rhizobium is heterotrophic.
C – Cuscuta is an epiphyte.
D – Holozoic nutrition involves ingestion, digestion, absorption, assimilation and egestion.
E – Orchids growing on tree branches are parasites of the tree.
Which of the above is/are correct?
- 1A and B only
- 2A, B and D only
- 3B, C and E only
- 4A, D and E only
- 5C and D only
Which of the following brain regions are responsible for the normal rhythmic control of breathing in man?
A – Cerebellum
B – Medulla oblongata
C – Thalamus
D – Pons
E – Corpus callosum
- 1A and B only
- 2B and C only
- 3B and D only
- 4C and D only
- 5D and E only
Which of the following are functions of the human medulla oblongata?
A – Regulation of heart rate
B – Control of the diameter of blood vessels
C – Pupillary light reflex
D – Reflex control of coughing and swallowing
E – Maintenance of balance
- 1A, B and C only
- 2A, C and E only
- 3B, D and E only
- 4A, B and D only
- 5C, D and E only
Consider the following comparisons of ammonia, urea and uric acid.
A – Toxicity: ammonia > urea > uric acid
B – Solubility in water: ammonia > urea > uric acid
C – Energy needed for synthesis: ammonia > urea > uric acid
D – Water needed for excretion: ammonia > urea > uric acid
E – Number of nitrogen atoms per molecule: ammonia > urea > uric acid
Which of the above is/are correct?
- 1A and B only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3B, C and E only
- 4C, D and E only
- 5A, B and D only
Consider the following statements about the human female reproductive cycle.
A – The ovarian cycle consists of a follicular phase and a luteal phase.
B – Development of new follicles begins during menstruation.
C – Menstruation is triggered by the LH surge.
D – If fertilisation does not occur, the corpus luteum degenerates into a corpus albicans.
E – Throughout pregnancy, progesterone is secreted only by the corpus luteum.
Which of the above is/are correct?
- 1A, B and C only
- 2A, C and E only
- 3A, B and D only
- 4B, D and E only
- 5C, D and E only
Which of the following are required for transcription of a gene?
A – DNA helicase
B – A DNA template strand
C – RNA polymerase
D – Ribosomes
E – DNA ligase
- 1A, B and C only
- 2B, C and D only
- 3A, C and E only
- 4B and C only
- 5C, D and E only
Which of the following biomes occur mainly in tropical and subtropical latitudes?
A – Savanna
B – Hot desert
C – Taiga (boreal forest)
D – Tundra
E – Chaparral
- 1A and C only
- 2B and D only
- 3A and B only
- 4C and E only
- 5D and E only
Consider the following statements about genetically modified organisms (GMOs).
A – They contain one or more genes transferred from another organism.
B – They usually differ from the parent organism in only one or a few traits.
C – They are produced by conventional hybridisation.
D – They are accepted worldwide without public controversy.
E – None has yet been released for commercial cultivation.
Which of the above is/are correct?
- 1A and B only
- 2A and C only
- 3B and D only
- 4A, B and C only
- 5C, D and E only
Consider the following pairings of microorganisms with their mode of nutrition.
A – Green sulphur bacteria: photoautotrophs
B – Purple sulphur bacteria: chemoheterotrophs
C – Nitrosomonas: chemoautotrophs
D – Mushrooms: chemoheterotrophs
E – Chemoautotrophs obtain energy by oxidising organic compounds.
Which of the above is/are correct?
- 1A, B and C only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3B, D and E only
- 4A, D and E only
- 5C, D and E only
(i) List three characteristics shared by all living organisms.
(ii) Describe what is meant by each of the following levels of protein structure: (a) primary (b) secondary (c) tertiary (d) quaternary.
(iii) Outline the structure of the vacuole of a mature plant cell.
(iv) Give four roles of the vacuole in plant cells.
(v) Give three functions carried out by smooth endoplasmic reticulum but not by rough endoplasmic reticulum.
(i) How does cytokinesis in a plant cell differ from cytokinesis in an animal cell?
(ii) Define the term kinetochore.
(iii) Name the three types of enzyme cofactor and give one example of each.
(iv) List the three structural components of an ATP molecule.
(i) Give the scientific name of the leopard found in Sri Lanka.
(ii) Outline the rules followed by biologists when giving scientific names to organisms.
(iii) Name the main storage substance of Allomyces.
(iv) In one animal class, the main nitrogenous excretory product changes with the habitat or life stage of the animal. Name this class.
(v) What type of symmetry does an adult sea cucumber show?
(i) (a) Give two symptoms of vitamin B deficiency in man. (b) Write the dental formula of a healthy adult human.
(ii) (a) Name the site that secretes enterogastrone in man. (b) State its function.
(iii) (a) Two animals have the following surface area to volume ratios. Animal X | 6.5 cm⁻¹; Animal Y | 0.4 cm⁻¹. Which animal could meet its gas-exchange needs through its body surface? (b) Name the muscles that bring about normal inspiration and expiration in man.
(iv) Give an example of a group of organisms that uses each of the following for excretion or osmoregulation: (a) contractile vacuoles (b) salt glands.
(v) (a) Apart from their position, give one structural difference between cortical and juxtamedullary nephrons. (b) Give two major causes of kidney stone formation in man.
(i) Explain the term double circulation.
(ii) (a) A normal ECG trace has a small first wave (P), a sharp spike complex (QRS) and a broader final wave (T). State the cardiac event represented by each. (b) What is coronary bypass surgery?
(iii) Four adult men have these blood haemoglobin levels. P | 11.0 g/dL; Q | 14.8 g/dL; R | 9.5 g/dL; S | 15.5 g/dL. Which of them has/have a level below the minimum for a healthy adult male?
(iv) Define imbibition.
(v) (a) Name the theory that explains the movement of water in xylem. (b) Outline the principles on which this upward movement of water depends.
(i) (a) Name the structural and functional unit of the human nervous system. (b) Explain the term resting potential of a neurone.
(ii) (a) Name the neurotransmitter released at the endings of human motor neurones. (b) Give two factors that increase the speed at which an impulse travels along a neurone.
(iii) Four regions of the human brain are described: P, the anterior part of the cerebral hemisphere behind the forehead; Q, the lowest part of the brainstem, continuous with the spinal cord; R, the posterior part of the cerebral hemisphere; S, the folded structure lying below the back of the cerebrum. (a) Name P, Q, R and S. (b) Which of them develop from the embryonic hindbrain? (c) Which of them coordinates voluntary muscular movements?
(iv) (a) Give the main advantage of binocular vision in man. (b) Trace, in order, the path by which sound vibrations travel from the outside air to the sensory receptor cells of the ear.
(v) (a) Where is the thyroid gland located in man? (b) Name the thyroid hormone involved in calcium homeostasis.
(i) (a) What is a hydrostatic skeleton? (b) Name the bone cells that deposit inorganic salts in bone tissue.
(ii) (a) Which bone forms the sides and most of the roof of the human cranium? (b) What are fontanelles?
(iii) Apart from support and maintenance of upright posture, give two functions of the human vertebral column.
(iv) Give two features by which a female pelvis differs from a male pelvis.
(v) Apart from contractility, give two functional properties common to all muscle tissues.
(i) (a) Give three advantages of asexual reproduction. (b) Give the main advantage of sexual reproduction.
(ii) (a) Which gland contributes most of the volume of human semen? (b) What is the function of Leydig cells?
(iii) (a) In the cortex of a section of human ovary, a large spherical cell is seen surrounded by a clear non-cellular layer and then by several layers of cuboidal cells. Identify this structure. (b) Name the ovarian structure that secretes progesterone.
(iv) (a) For about how long does a human ovum remain viable after ovulation? (b) In which trimester can the foetal heartbeat first be detected?
(v) Name one bacterial sexually transmitted disease of humans.
(i) Name three tissues that give mechanical support to plants.
(ii) (a) State the significance of seed dormancy. (b) Give three causes of seed dormancy.
(iii) (a) Name a plant growth substance that (1) promotes and (2) inhibits seed germination. (b) List, in order, the events of seed germination.
(iv) State the type of exotoxin produced by each of Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Clostridium tetani and Vibrio cholerae.
(v) (a) A child who recovers from chickenpox is not infected again. Name this type of immunity. (b) Name the specific molecules responsible for it.
(i) An F₁ individual is crossed with one of its parents. Name this type of cross and give its purpose.
(ii) Name the type of inheritance that gives each of the following F₂ phenotypic ratios: (a) red : pink : white flowers = 1 : 2 : 1 (b) blood groups A : AB : O = 1 : 2 : 1 (c) red : white flowers = 1 : 1
(iii) List the factors that can change allele frequencies in a population.
(iv) Give three agriculturally useful traits introduced into genetically modified crops.
(v) Apart from hormones, name two substances made by recombinant DNA technology that are used to treat human disease.
(i) Name the energy sources thought to have driven the formation of organic molecules from simple molecules during the origin of life.
(ii) Define extinction of a species.
(iii) Explain briefly what is meant by a keystone species.
(iv) State the objectives of (a) CITES and (b) the Convention on Biological Diversity.
(v) Give four harmful effects on human health of hydrocarbons as air pollutants.
(i) Give two morphological forms of viruses.
(ii) State the usual sterilisation method for each of: (a) nutrient agar (b) glass Petri dishes (c) a heat-sensitive enzyme solution.
(iii) Give two harmful effects of soil microorganisms on plants.
(iv) Name two symbiotic associations between microorganisms and plant roots.
(v) Name one bacterial species used to make biopesticides.
Describe the structure of a chloroplast, with the aid of a labelled diagram.
Explain what photorespiration is, and discuss how it affects the efficiency of photosynthesis.
Describe the structure of a transverse section of a mature dicot stem that has undergone secondary growth, as seen under the light microscope.
Explain the process of secondary growth in a dicot stem.
Describe the structure of the human heart.
Describe the coronary circulation in man and explain the consequences of blockage of the coronary arteries.
Describe the structure of a nephron in the human kidney, with the aid of a labelled diagram.
Explain how the nephron and its associated blood vessels work together to form urine.
Describe the normal microbiota of the human body and explain their importance to human health.
Explain why certain recessive traits in humans occur only, or more frequently, in males than in females.
Write a short note on micropropagation of plants.
Write a short note on global warming.
Write a short note on natural classification of organisms.
Answer key — this booklet
Answer key — original 2019 (Old) paper (MEDVision model answers)
For students working from the original paper. Shaded cells: check against the official marking scheme (amber = likely, red = disputed).
Paper I — reviews
Paper II — marking points
- Life characteristics (any 3): cellular organisation, metabolism, growth & development, reproduction, irritability/response, homeostasis, adaptation/evolution, heredity
- Primary: sequence of amino acids linked by peptide bonds
- Secondary: regular coiling/folding of polypeptide into α-helix or β-pleated sheet stabilised by hydrogen bonds
- Tertiary: further 3D folding of a polypeptide held by H bonds, ionic bonds, disulphide bridges, hydrophobic interactions
- Quaternary: association of two or more polypeptide chains (e.g. haemoglobin)
- Vacuole: large central sac bounded by a single membrane, the tonoplast, containing cell sap
- Vacuole functions: maintain turgor, store food/ions, store pigments, store waste/toxic compounds, hydrolytic (lysosome-like) digestion, growth by water uptake
- SER functions: lipid/steroid synthesis, detoxification of drugs/poisons, carbohydrate metabolism (glycogen breakdown), storage of Ca²⁺ (in muscle)
- Animal cells divide by a cleavage furrow (constriction inward); plant cells form a cell plate from Golgi vesicles growing outward
- Kinetochore: protein structure on the centromere of each chromatid where spindle microtubules attach
- Activators/inorganic ions — e.g. Zn²⁺, Mg²⁺, Cl⁻
- Coenzymes — e.g. NAD, FAD, coenzyme A
- Prosthetic groups — e.g. haem, FAD (tightly bound)
- ATP components: adenine (base), ribose (pentose sugar), three phosphate groups
- Sri Lankan leopard: Panthera pardus kotiya
- Binomial: genus name + specific epithet; genus capitalised, species lowercase
- Names in Latin/latinised form; italicised when printed or underlined separately when handwritten
- Each species has one unique name; earliest valid name has priority; author name may follow
- Allomyces storage: glycogen (and oil)
- Class: Amphibia (aquatic forms/larvae excrete ammonia, terrestrial adults urea)
- Adult sea cucumber: pentaradial (radial) symmetry
- Vitamin B deficiency: beriberi (B1), pellagra (B3), anaemia (B12/folate), cracked lips/angular stomatitis (B2), dermatitis, neuritis
- Adult dentition: I 2/2, C 1/1, PM 2/2, M 3/3 = 32
- Enterogastrone secreted by mucosa of duodenum
- Function: inhibits gastric secretion and gastric motility (slows stomach emptying)
- Animal X (high SA:V, 6.5 cm⁻¹) can respire through body surface
- Inspiration: diaphragm and external intercostal muscles; quiet expiration: relaxation of these (forced expiration: internal intercostals, abdominal muscles)
- Contractile vacuoles: freshwater protists (e.g. Amoeba, Paramecium); salt glands: marine birds/reptiles
- Juxtamedullary nephrons have long loops of Henle reaching deep into medulla (cortical nephrons short loops); vasa recta associated
- Kidney stone causes: low water intake/dehydration, high dietary Ca/oxalate, high uric acid, urinary infections, hyperparathyroidism
- Double circulation: blood passes through heart twice per complete circuit — pulmonary and systemic circuits
- P wave: atrial depolarisation (atrial systole)
- QRS complex: ventricular depolarisation (ventricular systole)
- T wave: ventricular repolarisation
- Bypass: grafting a vessel (e.g. saphenous vein) to route blood around a blocked coronary artery
- Below normal adult male Hb (minimum ~13 g/dL): P (11.0) and R (9.5)
- Imbibition: absorption of water by hydrophilic colloids (cellulose, proteins, starch) causing swelling
- Cohesion–tension theory
- Principles: transpiration pull generates tension; cohesion of water molecules; adhesion to xylem walls; continuous water column; (root pressure, capillarity contribute)
- Functional unit: neurone
- Resting potential: potential difference (~−70 mV) across membrane of a non-conducting neurone, inside negative relative to outside
- Neurotransmitter: acetylcholine
- Speed increased by myelination (saltatory conduction) and larger axon diameter (also higher temperature)
- P: frontal lobe of cerebrum; Q: medulla oblongata; R: occipital lobe of cerebrum; S: cerebellum
- Hind-brain derivatives: Q and S
- Coordination of voluntary movement: S (cerebellum)
- Binocular vision gives depth perception/3D vision (judging distance)
- Hearing: pinna → external auditory canal → tympanic membrane → malleus → incus → stapes → oval window → perilymph → (endolymph) → basilar membrane → hair cells of organ of Corti
- Thyroid lies in the neck anterior to trachea, below larynx; calcitonin lowers blood Ca²⁺
- Hydrostatic skeleton: fluid held under pressure in a closed body compartment against which muscles act (e.g. earthworm)
- Osteoblasts deposit inorganic salts
- Parietal bones form sides and most of roof of cranium
- Fontanelles: membrane-covered unossified gaps between cranial bones of infant skull
- Vertebral column: protects spinal cord, attachment of muscles/ribs, allows movement/flexibility, shock absorption, supports head
- Female pelvis: wider/shallower, larger rounded pelvic inlet, wider subpubic angle (>90°), shorter broader sacrum, less prominent ischial spines
- Muscle properties: excitability/irritability, extensibility, elasticity, conductivity
- Asexual advantages: single parent sufficient, rapid increase in numbers, offspring genetically identical (keeps good traits), less energy, no gametes needed
- Sexual advantage: genetic variation, allowing adaptation/evolution
- Seminal vesicles secrete most of semen
- Leydig (interstitial) cells secrete testosterone
- Structure: primary follicle (oocyte, zona pellucida, layers of granulosa cells)
- Progesterone source: corpus luteum
- Ovum viable about 24 hours (12–24 h)
- Foetal heartbeat detected first in first trimester
- Bacterial STD: gonorrhoea, syphilis, chlamydia
- Support tissues: collenchyma, sclerenchyma, xylem (and turgid parenchyma)
- Dormancy significance: survival through unfavourable conditions, germination at suitable time, dispersal over time
- Causes: impermeable seed coat, immature embryo, inhibitors (ABA), hard seed coat restricting embryo, need for light/after-ripening
- Activation: gibberellin; inhibition: abscisic acid
- Germination sequence: imbibition → activation of enzymes (GA triggers amylase) → hydrolysis/mobilisation of food reserves → respiration and growth → radicle emergence → plumule emergence
- C. diphtheriae: cytotoxin; C. tetani: neurotoxin; V. cholerae: enterotoxin
- Naturally acquired active immunity
- Antibodies (immunoglobulins)
- Back cross: F1 crossed with one of its parents; purpose — recover/strengthen parental traits or (if recessive parent) determine genotype
- Red:pink:white 1:2:1 — incomplete dominance
- A:AB:O 1:2:1 — codominance (with multiple alleles; Iᴬ and Iᴮ both expressed in AB)
- Red:white 1:1 in F2 — not Mendelian; likely sex-linked inheritance (or test-cross-type ratio); accept per marking scheme
- Allele frequency changes: mutation, natural selection, genetic drift, gene flow (migration), non-random mating
- GM traits: pest (insect) resistance, herbicide tolerance, disease/virus resistance, improved nutrition (Golden rice), longer shelf life, drought/salt tolerance
- Recombinant products: vaccines (hepatitis B), interferon, clotting factor VIII, antibodies, tissue plasminogen activator
- Energy sources: lightning (electric discharge), UV radiation, volcanic heat, radioactivity
- Extinction: complete disappearance of a species when no individuals remain
- Keystone species: species with a disproportionately large effect on community structure relative to its abundance; removal causes major changes
- CITES: regulates/control international trade in endangered wild animals and plants to prevent threat to survival
- CBD: conservation of biodiversity, sustainable use of its components, fair and equitable sharing of benefits from genetic resources
- Hydrocarbon effects: respiratory irritation, eye irritation, headache/dizziness, cancers (carcinogenic, e.g. benzene → leukaemia), formation of photochemical smog, damage to nervous system
- Virus forms: helical, polyhedral (icosahedral), complex (and enveloped)
- Nutrient agar: autoclaving (121 °C, 15 psi, 15 min)
- Petri dishes: hot-air oven/dry heat (or autoclaving; disposable — irradiation)
- Enzyme solution: membrane filtration
- Soil microbes adverse: cause plant diseases (wilts, root rots), denitrification reduces soil nitrate, compete for nutrients
- Root symbioses: Rhizobium in legume root nodules; mycorrhizae (fungi); Frankia in non-legumes
- Biopesticide: Bacillus thuringiensis
- Lens/discoid shaped, about 4–10 μm long
- Double membrane envelope (outer and inner membranes) with intermembrane space
- Inner fluid matrix: stroma
- Thylakoid membrane system; stacks of thylakoids called grana
- Grana connected by stroma (intergranal) lamellae
- Thylakoid lumen enclosed inside thylakoids
- Photosynthetic pigments (chlorophyll a, b, carotenoids) and photosystems I and II, ETC and ATP synthase in thylakoid membranes
- Stroma contains enzymes of Calvin cycle (RuBisCO), circular DNA, 70S ribosomes, starch grains, lipid droplets (plastoglobuli)
- Labelled diagram
- RuBisCO can act as an oxygenase as well as a carboxylase
- Under high temperature, high O₂/low CO₂ (stomata closed), RuBisCO fixes O₂ to RuBP
- Produces one 3-phosphoglycerate and one 2-phosphoglycolate
- Phosphoglycolate metabolised via chloroplast, peroxisome and mitochondrion
- CO₂ released in mitochondria; uses ATP; produces no sugar/ATP
- Occurs in light and consumes O₂, releases CO₂ — hence 'photorespiration'
- Reduces efficiency: fixed carbon lost, RuBP diverted from Calvin cycle, energy wasted
- May reduce carbon fixation by up to ~25–50% in C3 plants in hot dry conditions
- C4 and CAM plants minimise photorespiration by concentrating CO₂ around RuBisCO
- Possible benefit: protects against photo-damage when CO₂ is low
- Outermost periderm: cork (phellem) with dead suberised cells, cork cambium (phellogen), phelloderm
- Lenticels in periderm
- Remains of cortex (parenchyma, collenchyma) in young secondary stem
- Secondary phloem outside vascular cambium; crushed primary phloem outside it
- Phloem fibres, sieve tubes, companion cells, phloem parenchyma
- Continuous ring of vascular cambium
- Large mass of secondary xylem with annual rings (spring/early wood and autumn/late wood)
- Heartwood (central, non-functional) and sapwood (outer, functional)
- Xylem/medullary rays radiating through xylem and phloem
- Primary xylem and pith at centre
- Labelled diagram
- Fascicular cambium present in vascular bundles
- Parenchyma of medullary rays between bundles dedifferentiates to form interfascicular cambium
- These join to form a complete cambium ring
- Fusiform initials divide periclinally: inward cells form secondary xylem, outward secondary phloem
- More xylem than phloem produced
- Ray initials form vascular rays for radial transport
- Cambium also divides anticlinally to increase circumference
- Seasonal activity produces annual rings
- Cortex/epidermis rupture as girth increases
- Cork cambium (phellogen) arises in cortex, producing cork outward and phelloderm inward = periderm
- Lenticels formed for gas exchange; bark = all tissues outside vascular cambium
- Located in thoracic cavity between lungs, in mediastinum, slightly to left
- Enclosed by double-layered pericardium with pericardial fluid
- Wall: epicardium, myocardium (cardiac muscle), endocardium
- Four chambers: two thin-walled atria, two thick-walled ventricles; left ventricle wall thickest
- Septum separates right and left sides
- Tricuspid valve between right atrium and ventricle; bicuspid (mitral) between left chambers
- Chordae tendineae and papillary muscles hold AV valves
- Semilunar valves at bases of pulmonary trunk and aorta
- Vessels: venae cavae to right atrium, pulmonary artery from right ventricle, pulmonary veins to left atrium, aorta from left ventricle
- Conducting tissue: SA node, AV node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibres
- Coronary arteries supply heart muscle
- Right and left coronary arteries arise from base of the aorta
- Branch over the heart surface and supply myocardium with O₂ and nutrients
- Capillaries in myocardium; deoxygenated blood collected by cardiac veins
- Cardiac veins drain into coronary sinus, which opens into right atrium
- Blood flow mainly during diastole
- Blockage by atherosclerosis (fatty plaques) or thrombus narrows lumen
- Reduced supply → myocardial ischaemia → angina pectoris (chest pain)
- Complete block → myocardial infarction (heart attack), death of muscle
- Can cause arrhythmias, heart failure, sudden death
- Treated by angioplasty/stents or bypass surgery
- Nephron = functional unit of kidney (~1 million per kidney)
- Renal corpuscle: Bowman's capsule enclosing glomerulus, in cortex
- Bowman's capsule inner layer of podocytes, outer squamous epithelium
- Proximal convoluted tubule: cuboidal epithelium with microvilli and many mitochondria
- Loop of Henle: descending and ascending limbs extending into medulla
- Distal convoluted tubule in cortex
- Opens into collecting duct running through medulla to renal pelvis
- Cortical vs juxtamedullary nephrons
- Blood supply: afferent arteriole → glomerulus → efferent arteriole → peritubular capillaries / vasa recta
- Labelled diagram
- Ultrafiltration in glomerulus: high pressure as efferent arteriole narrower than afferent
- Filtration through fenestrated endothelium, basement membrane, podocyte slits; proteins/cells retained
- Glomerular filtrate ~180 L/day
- Selective reabsorption in PCT: all glucose, amino acids, most Na⁺, water, HCO₃⁻ by active/passive transport
- Descending limb permeable to water; ascending limb pumps out NaCl — countercurrent multiplier creates medullary gradient
- Vasa recta maintain the gradient (countercurrent exchange)
- DCT: regulated reabsorption of Na⁺ (aldosterone), secretion of K⁺, H⁺; pH regulation
- Tubular secretion of H⁺, K⁺, NH₃, drugs, creatinine
- Collecting duct: water reabsorption controlled by ADH, producing concentrated urine
- Peritubular capillaries take back reabsorbed substances
- Urine passes to renal pelvis
- Microorganisms normally colonising body surfaces without causing disease
- Resident and transient microbiota
- Skin: Staphylococcus epidermidis, Propionibacterium, Corynebacterium, yeasts
- Mouth/upper respiratory tract: Streptococcus, Neisseria, Lactobacillus
- Large intestine: E. coli, Bacteroides, Bifidobacterium, Clostridium (most abundant)
- Vagina: Lactobacillus (maintains acid pH)
- Internal organs and blood normally sterile
- Roles: competitive exclusion of pathogens, production of antimicrobial substances/acids
- Synthesis of vitamins K and B in gut
- Aid digestion of some substances; stimulate immune system development
- Can become opportunistic pathogens when immunity falls or they move to new sites; antibiotics disrupt them
- Human males are XY, females XX
- Y chromosome small, lacks most genes present on X
- Sex-linked (X-linked) genes carried on non-homologous region of X
- Males hemizygous: a single recessive allele on X is expressed
- Females need two recessive alleles (homozygous) to express; heterozygotes are carriers
- Probability of two recessive alleles is low, so trait rarer in females
- Affected males inherit allele from carrier mother; father does not pass X to sons
- Examples: red-green colour blindness, haemophilia, Duchenne muscular dystrophy
- Y-linked (holandric) traits like hypertrichosis of ears occur only in males, passed father to son
- Sex-limited traits expressed only in one sex
- Tissue culture technique to produce large numbers of plants from small explants
- Based on totipotency of plant cells
- Explant (shoot tip, meristem, leaf) taken and surface-sterilised
- Grown aseptically on nutrient medium with sugars, minerals, vitamins, agar and growth regulators
- Callus formation; high cytokinin:auxin ratio → shoots; high auxin → roots
- Plantlets hardened (acclimatised) before transfer to soil
- Advantages: rapid mass production, genetically identical clones, disease-free (meristem) plants, year-round, little space
- Used for orchids, banana, anthurium, conservation of rare plants
- Disadvantages: costly, needs skill, low genetic diversity
- Rise in average global temperature due to enhanced greenhouse effect
- Greenhouse gases: CO₂, CH₄, N₂O, CFCs, water vapour
- Absorb and re-radiate infrared radiation from earth
- Sources: fossil fuel burning, deforestation, agriculture (paddy, livestock CH₄), fertilisers
- Effects: melting of polar ice/glaciers, sea level rise, flooding of coastal areas
- Climate change: extreme weather, altered rainfall, droughts
- Loss of biodiversity, coral bleaching, spread of vector-borne diseases, reduced crop yields
- Mitigation: reduce fossil fuels, renewable energy, reforestation, Kyoto Protocol/Paris Agreement
- Classification based on evolutionary (phylogenetic) relationships
- Uses many characters: morphology, anatomy, embryology, cytology, biochemistry, DNA/protein sequences
- Groups organisms with common ancestry
- Contrast with artificial classification based on few convenient characters
- Hierarchical taxa: domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
- Three-domain system (Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya) based on rRNA
- Predictive value; reflects evolution; can change with new evidence
- Examples of natural groups: mammals, angiosperms
Scan notes: All 50 MCQs and all Paper II questions present; OCR mostly clean. Q2C brain diagram read from image (P frontal lobe, Q medulla/brainstem, R occipital lobe, S cerebellum). ECG figure in Q2B(ii) assumed standard PQRST. Q4A(ii)(c) (red:white 1:1 in F2) is ambiguous; answer tentative.
G.C.E. (Advanced Level) — Biology
Current syllabus (2019 onward) · Re-set practice paper
Every question tests the same concept as question of the same number in the 2019 (New) paper, re-written by MEDVision. Source coverage: Paper I + full Paper II.
Living things are organised in a hierarchy of levels. Which is the lowest level at which all the characteristics of life, such as metabolism, growth and reproduction, can be observed?
- 1A protein molecule
- 2A mitochondrion
- 3A cell
- 4A tissue
- 5An organ system
Which of the following is a function performed by certain nucleotides or nucleotide derivatives in living cells?
- 1They are the main building blocks of storage polysaccharides.
- 2They act as coenzymes (organic cofactors), e.g. NAD⁺ and FAD.
- 3They carry oxygen in the blood of vertebrates.
- 4They contain hexose sugars that provide energy on oxidation.
- 5They form the structural framework of plant cell walls.
Which of the following statements about microscopes is correct?
- 1In a light microscope, light passes through the objective lens before it reaches the specimen.
- 2The transmission electron microscope is used to watch the movement of living cells.
- 3The scanning electron microscope is mainly used to study internal structures in ultra-thin sections.
- 4Electron microscopes focus visible light using electromagnetic lenses.
- 5Magnification and resolving power are important properties of both light and electron microscopes.
Which of the following statements about the cytoskeleton of a eukaryotic cell is correct?
- 1Microfilaments are hollow tubes made of tubulin.
- 2Intermediate filaments are made of actin and drive amoeboid movement.
- 3Microtubules act as tracks along which motor proteins carry vesicles and organelles.
- 4Keratin is the main protein of microtubules.
- 5Microfilaments form the spindle fibres that pull chromatids apart.
Which of the following events is correctly matched with the phase of the cell cycle in which it occurs?
- 1S phase – condensation of chromatin into chromosomes
- 2G₂ phase – synthesis of proteins such as tubulin needed for mitosis
- 3G₁ phase – replication of DNA
- 4Metaphase – beginning of spindle formation
- 5Prophase – division of the cytoplasm
Which of the following statements about chlorophyll is correct?
- 1Chlorophylls absorb red and blue-violet light strongly and reflect mostly green light.
- 2Chlorophyll b forms the reaction-centre pigment of both photosystems.
- 3Chlorophyll a protects the photosystems by dissipating excess light energy.
- 4The reaction-centre chlorophyll of photosystem I is P680.
- 5Chlorophylls absorb green light most efficiently.
Which compound is formed when glucose is broken down by yeast in the absence of oxygen, by human muscle during an oxygen debt, and by a cell respiring aerobically?
- 1Acetaldehyde
- 2Acetyl CoA
- 3Oxaloacetate
- 4Citrate
- 5Pyruvate
Which of the following animals belongs to the simplest phylum in which a true coelom is present?
- 1Earthworm
- 2Planarian
- 3Ascaris (roundworm)
- 4Hydra
- 5Sponge
A leech and a cockroach both possess which of the following?
- 1A clitellum
- 2Parapodia
- 3A ventral, solid nerve cord with ganglia
- 4A chitinous exoskeleton
- 5A closed circulation with capillaries
Which of the following plants is most closely related, in evolutionary terms, to the liverwort Marchantia?
- 1Selaginella
- 2Nephrolepis
- 3Cycas
- 4Pogonatum
- 5Lycopodium
Which of the following is a characteristic of dicotyledonous flowering plants?
- 1The perianth is usually not differentiated into calyx and corolla.
- 2The pollen grains typically have a single aperture.
- 3The ovules are enclosed within an ovary formed by the carpels.
- 4The vascular bundles are scattered throughout the stem.
- 5The stamens produce megaspores.
Which of the following statements about the epidermis of flowering plants is correct?
- 1It is a meristematic tissue whose cells divide continuously.
- 2It is a permanent tissue that is usually one cell layer thick.
- 3Root hairs are multicellular outgrowths of the epidermis.
- 4Suberin in the cuticle reduces water loss from leaves.
- 5All of its cells contain many chloroplasts.
Which of the following features helps a land plant increase its photosynthesis when it grows among other plants?
- 1Very small leaves in plants of shaded, humid forests
- 2Leaves held vertically to capture weak light
- 3Reduced branching of the shoot
- 4Leaves with stomata on the upper surface only
- 5Tall stems that raise the leaves above neighbouring plants
Which of the following occurs when stomata open in the morning?
- 1K⁺ ions move out of the guard cells.
- 2The CO₂ concentration in the substomatal cavity rises.
- 3The water potential of the guard cells increases.
- 4K⁺ ions are actively taken into the guard cells and water follows by osmosis.
- 5The guard cells lose turgor.
Which of the following statements about the mineral nutrition of plants is correct?
- 1Iron is a macronutrient.
- 2Deficiency symptoms of nitrogen first appear in the youngest leaves.
- 3Magnesium is a component of cytochromes.
- 4Sulfur deficiency first appears in the oldest leaves.
- 5Molybdenum is needed for nitrogen metabolism as a cofactor of nitrate reductase.
Which feature of sexual reproduction is shared by mosses, ferns, conifers and flowering plants?
- 1They all produce two kinds of spores.
- 2The egg is retained within a female structure where fertilisation takes place.
- 3Water is not needed for fertilisation in any of them.
- 4The sporophyte always depends on the gametophyte for nutrition.
- 5The gametophyte is free-living in all of them.
Regarding how plants perceive and respond to light, which statement is correct?
- 1Blue-light photoreceptors and phytochromes are the two major classes of plant photoreceptors.
- 2Phototropism results from faster cell elongation on the illuminated side of the stem.
- 3Light-dependent germination of lettuce seeds is controlled only by blue-light receptors.
- 4Phytochromes absorb mainly green light.
- 5Cryptochromes are the main red-light receptors.
Which of the following connective tissues normally contains no fibres in its matrix?
- 1Dense regular connective tissue of tendons
- 2Areolar connective tissue
- 3Blood
- 4Hyaline cartilage
- 5Adipose tissue
Which of the following animals is correctly matched with its type of feeding?
- 1Caterpillar eating a leaf – fluid feeder
- 2Python swallowing a rat – suspension feeder
- 3Mussel – suspension (filter) feeder
- 4Butterfly sucking nectar – substrate feeder
- 5Housefly larva living in carrion – fluid feeder
Which of the following statements about the digestion of nucleic acids in humans is correct?
- 1Pepsin hydrolyses DNA in the stomach.
- 2Salivary nucleases begin nucleic acid digestion in the mouth.
- 3Nucleotidases split nucleosides into nitrogenous bases and sugars.
- 4Pancreatic nucleases hydrolyse DNA and RNA into nucleotides in the small intestine.
- 5Nucleosidases convert nucleic acids into nucleotides.
A person whose arterial blood pressure is abnormally low is most likely to experience
- 1dizziness and fainting due to reduced blood flow to the brain.
- 2rupture of a cerebral blood vessel (stroke).
- 3kidney damage caused by high glomerular pressure.
- 4formation of an aneurysm in the aorta.
- 5thickening of the wall of the left ventricle.
Which group of cells is involved in the internal (second line) innate defence of the human body?
- 1B lymphocytes and plasma cells
- 2Helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells
- 3Memory B cells and memory T cells
- 4B lymphocytes and macrophages
- 5Neutrophils, macrophages and natural killer cells
Which of the following animals is correctly matched with its main nitrogenous excretory product?
- 1Pigeon – urea
- 2Cockroach – ammonia
- 3Adult toad – uric acid
- 4Shark – urea
- 5Human – uric acid
After a head injury, a patient walks unsteadily and cannot smoothly coordinate voluntary movements such as reaching for a cup. Which part of the brain is most likely damaged?
- 1Hypothalamus
- 2Thalamus
- 3Medulla oblongata
- 4Pons
- 5Cerebellum
Which sequence correctly shows the path of light to the photoreceptors and then the path of the resulting nerve signal in the human eye?
- 1Cornea → vitreous humour → lens → aqueous humour → photoreceptors → ganglion cells → bipolar cells → optic nerve → occipital lobe
- 2Cornea → aqueous humour → lens → vitreous humour → photoreceptors → ganglion cells → bipolar cells → optic nerve → temporal lobe
- 3Cornea → aqueous humour → lens → vitreous humour → photoreceptors → bipolar cells → ganglion cells → optic nerve → occipital lobe
- 4Lens → cornea → aqueous humour → vitreous humour → photoreceptors → bipolar cells → ganglion cells → optic nerve → occipital lobe
- 5Cornea → aqueous humour → lens → vitreous humour → photoreceptors → bipolar cells → ganglion cells → optic nerve → frontal lobe
Which of the following hormones is correctly matched with its function?
- 1Melatonin – regulation of biological (circadian) rhythms
- 2Oxytocin – stimulation of milk synthesis
- 3Parathyroid hormone – lowering of blood calcium
- 4Thymosin – maturation of B lymphocytes
- 5Glucagon – stimulation of glycogen synthesis in the liver
During spermatogenesis in humans, at which step is the chromosome number reduced from 46 to 23?
- 1Spermatogonium → primary spermatocyte
- 2Spermatid → spermatozoon
- 3Primary spermatocyte → secondary spermatocytes
- 4Secondary spermatocyte → spermatids
- 5Primordial germ cell → spermatogonium
The blood levels of four hormones (W, X, Y and Z) during a 28-day human ovarian/menstrual cycle are described below.
W – rises slightly early in the follicular phase, then falls, with a small peak at mid-cycle.
X – rises steadily during the follicular phase to a peak about one day before ovulation, with a second, smaller rise in the luteal phase.
Y – stays low except for a very sharp, short peak at about day 14.
Z – stays low in the follicular phase and reaches a large peak around day 21.
Which of the following correctly identifies W, X, Y and Z?
- 1W – LH, X – progesterone, Y – FSH, Z – estradiol
- 2W – FSH, X – progesterone, Y – LH, Z – estradiol
- 3W – estradiol, X – FSH, Y – LH, Z – progesterone
- 4W – FSH, X – estradiol, Y – LH, Z – progesterone
- 5W – LH, X – estradiol, Y – FSH, Z – progesterone
Which of the following statements about the human skeleton and joints is correct?
- 1The elbow is a hinge joint formed by the humerus with the radius and ulna.
- 2The fibula takes part in forming the knee joint.
- 3The thoracic and sacral curvatures of the vertebral column are secondary curvatures.
- 4Osteoporosis is a degenerative disease of the articular cartilage.
- 5The arches of the foot distribute body weight only when standing still.
A single mutant allele of the β-globin gene causes anaemia, episodes of pain, damage to several organs and increased resistance to malaria. This is an example of
- 1incomplete dominance.
- 2epistasis.
- 3polygenic inheritance.
- 4pleiotropy.
- 5sex-linked inheritance.
Two plants heterozygous for a single gene (Rr) are crossed. Which of the following statements about this cross is correct?
- 1It is a dihybrid cross.
- 2The probability that an offspring receives r from both parents is ½.
- 3With complete dominance, the probability of an offspring showing the dominant phenotype is ¼.
- 4If R and r show incomplete dominance, the offspring phenotypes appear in a 1 : 2 : 1 ratio.
- 5R and r are linked alleles.
A human egg cell carrying 24 chromosomes is fertilised by a normal sperm. The resulting zygote
- 1is trisomic, and would have Down syndrome if the extra chromosome is chromosome 21.
- 2is triploid.
- 3is monosomic and would develop Turner syndrome.
- 4is tetraploid.
- 5has the normal chromosome number of 46.
A point mutation changes the mRNA codon GGA to GGG. Both codons code for glycine, so the polypeptide is unchanged. This mutation is
- 1a frameshift mutation caused by insertion.
- 2a silent substitution mutation.
- 3a missense mutation.
- 4a nonsense mutation.
- 5a deletion mutation.
A DNA polymerase obtained from a thermophilic bacterium such as Thermus aquaticus is used in the polymerase chain reaction mainly because it
- 1does not need primers.
- 2has very strong proofreading activity.
- 3remains active after repeated heating to about 95 °C.
- 4works best at low temperatures.
- 5synthesises its own RNA primers.
To insert a gene into a bacterial plasmid vector, it is essential that
- 1the gene has the same base sequence as the plasmid.
- 2the DNA containing the gene and the plasmid are cut with the same restriction enzyme to give complementary sticky ends.
- 3the gene carries its own origin of replication.
- 4the gene and the plasmid are of the same length.
- 5the gene is taken from a bacterium.
In Sri Lanka, dry patana grasslands are mainly found in the
- 1lower montane slopes of the intermediate zone and drier parts of the wet zone, e.g. the Uva basin.
- 2upper montane region of the wet zone, e.g. Horton Plains.
- 3lowlands of the dry zone.
- 4coastal arid zone.
- 5lowlands of the wet zone.
Biodiversity provides many ecosystem services. Which item below is NOT one of these environmental service values?
- 1Regulation of the climate
- 2Recharge of groundwater
- 3Purification of water
- 4Preparation of disaster management plans by authorities
- 5Prevention of soil erosion
Which one of these acts against, rather than adds to, the enhanced greenhouse effect?
- 1Methane released from paddy fields
- 2Ozone in the troposphere
- 3Water vapour in the atmosphere
- 4Uptake of CO₂ by marine phytoplankton
- 5Burning of fossil fuels
Which of the following statements about culture media used in microbiology laboratories is correct?
- 1Agar is the main nutrient source for most microorganisms.
- 2Glucose is commonly used as the carbon source in media for growing fungi.
- 3Potato dextrose agar is mainly used to grow bacteria.
- 4Sodium chloride is an essential ingredient of every culture medium.
- 5All microorganisms can be grown on artificial media.
Water from a well was found to contain large numbers of faecal coliform bacteria. Which disease is LEAST likely to be acquired by drinking this water?
- 1Cholera
- 2Typhoid
- 3Bacillary dysentery
- 4Hepatitis A
- 5Tetanus
Consider the following statements about ATP and energy in cells.
A – ATP is produced by photophosphorylation in mitochondria.
B – Energy is released when ATP is oxidised.
C – Energy from ATP hydrolysis can drive the pumping of ions that maintains electrical gradients across nerve cell membranes.
D – Some ATP (or GTP) is formed by substrate-level phosphorylation in the Krebs cycle.
E – Anabolic reactions release the energy used to make ATP.
Which of the above statements are correct?
- 1A and B only
- 2A and C only
- 3B and E only
- 4C and D only
- 5D and E only
In which of the following vertebrate classes are BOTH internal and external fertilisation found?
A – Chondrichthyes
B – Osteichthyes
C – Amphibia
D – Reptilia
E – Aves
- 1A and B only
- 2A and D only
- 3B and C only
- 4C and D only
- 5D and E only
Which of the following respiratory pigments are correctly matched with the animals in which they occur?
A – Myoglobin – muscles of fishes
B – Haemocyanin – blood of earthworms
C – Chlorocruorin – some annelids
D – Haemerythrin – some annelids
E – Chlorocruorin – insects
- 1A, B and C only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3B, C and E only
- 4C, D and E only
- 5A, D and E only
Which of the following are effects of tobacco smoking on the human body?
A – Increased secretion of mucus by goblet cells of the airways
B – Paralysis of the cilia of the airways
C – Reduced oxygen transport because carbon monoxide binds to haemoglobin
D – Tuberculosis caused directly by tobacco smoke
E – Lowering of heart rate by nicotine
- 1A and B only
- 2A, B and C only
- 3B, C and D only
- 4C, D and E only
- 5A, D and E only
Which of the following contribute to maintaining the resting membrane potential of a neuron?
A – Unequal distribution of Na⁺ and K⁺ ions across the membrane
B – The Na⁺/K⁺ pump moving three Na⁺ out for every two K⁺ in
C – Greater permeability of the resting membrane to K⁺ than to Na⁺
D – Opening of voltage-gated Na⁺ channels at rest
E – Equal permeability of the membrane to Na⁺ and K⁺
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A and D only
- 3B, C and E only
- 4C and D only
- 5A, B and C only
Consider the following statements about parthenogenesis.
A – A complete individual develops from an unfertilised egg.
B – Worker honey bees are produced by parthenogenesis.
C – It occurs in some species of lizards.
D – In honey bees it produces only diploid females.
E – It occurs in all invertebrates.
Which of the above statements are correct?
- 1A and B only
- 2B and D only
- 3C and E only
- 4A and E only
- 5A and C only
Which of the following animals are correctly matched with the type of skeleton they have?
A – Earthworm – coelomic fluid acting as a hydrostatic skeleton
B – Sea urchin – endoskeleton of calcium carbonate plates
C – Tortoise – bony plates in addition to an endoskeleton
D – Hydra – pseudocoelomic fluid acting as a hydrostatic skeleton
E – Ascaris – gastrovascular cavity acting as a hydrostatic skeleton
- 1A and B only
- 2A, B and C only
- 3B, C and D only
- 4C, D and E only
- 5A, D and E only
Each of the following lists biomes in order from near the North Pole towards the equator.
A – Tundra → coniferous forest → temperate grassland → desert → tropical rain forest
B – Tundra → coniferous forest → temperate broadleaf forest → chaparral → desert
C – Coniferous forest → tundra → temperate grassland → savanna → tropical rain forest
D – Tundra → temperate broadleaf forest → coniferous forest → desert → tropical rain forest
E – Tundra → coniferous forest → savanna → temperate grassland → tropical rain forest
Which sequences are correct?
- 1A and C only
- 2B and D only
- 3A and B only
- 4C and E only
- 5D and E only
Which of the following microorganisms are correctly matched with the industrial product made using them?
A – Lactobacillus bulgaricus – yoghurt
B – Acetobacter – vinegar
C – Rhizopus – lipase
D – Saccharomyces cerevisiae – citric acid
E – Penicillium – vitamin C
- 1A, B and C only
- 2A, B and D only
- 3B, C and E only
- 4C, D and E only
- 5A, D and E only
Consider the following statements about microbial spoilage of food.
A – Rancidity results when proteolytic microbes produce amines from fats.
B – Putrefaction is the anaerobic breakdown of proteins, producing foul-smelling compounds.
C – Souring of milk is caused mainly by lipolytic bacteria.
D – Saccharolytic microbes ferment carbohydrates in food and produce acids.
E – Food spoilage takes place only under aerobic conditions.
Which of the above statements are correct?
- 1A and B only
- 2A and C only
- 3C and E only
- 4B and E only
- 5B and D only
(i) Name three major classes of lipids found in living organisms.
(ii) Which class of lipids forms the main framework of the plasma membrane?
(iii) Distinguish between a saturated and an unsaturated fatty acid in terms of structure.
(iv) List the functions of the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
(v) Name three types of vacuoles found in cells.
(vi) State the significance of mitotic cell division to living organisms.
(i) In which part of the chloroplast does the Calvin cycle take place?
(ii) Name, in order, the three phases of the Calvin cycle.
(iii) Where in the chloroplast do the light-dependent reactions occur?
(iv) Name the products of the light-dependent reactions.
(v) Explain how a high concentration of O₂ around the leaves affects photosynthesis in a C₃ plant.
(i) Outline, in sequence, the stages proposed for the chemical (biochemical) origin of life on Earth.
(ii) What is meant by a polyphyletic group?
(iii) Describe a zygosporangium and state its role in the life cycle of the fungus that forms it.
(iv) Name a plant phylum whose members (a) produce seeds but still have flagellated sperm, (b) lack a vascular system and have flagellated sperm.
(v) Name the structures used by a liver fluke to maintain its osmotic balance.
(vi) What type of body cavity is found in a roundworm?
(i) State three functions of epithelial tissue in animals.
(ii) List the structural features of plant meristematic cells.
(iii) Name three types of specialised cells found in the plant epidermis.
(iv) A student is given strips of potato tuber of equal size, a series of sucrose solutions from 0.15 M to 0.40 M, Petri dishes and graph paper. Describe how the student could use these to estimate the water potential of the potato tissue.
(v) State the functions of calcium in plants.
(i) Name two plant genera whose gametophytes are photosynthetic.
(ii) Which group of plants has the most reduced gametophytes?
(iii) What are sori and where are they found?
(iv) Define pollination in seed plants.
(v) State the functions of cytokinins in plants.
(i) State the position of the caecum in the human gut.
(ii) Which cells of the gastric glands secrete pepsinogen?
(iii) What is the importance of buffers present in saliva?
(iv) By what method is each of the following absorbed into the cells of the villi: (a) amino acids, (b) fructose?
(v) Into which blood vessel do the capillaries of the villi drain?
(vi) Explain the advantage of double circulation in mammals.
(vii) What is hypertension? State its possible consequences to the body.
(i) Give three differences between active and passive immunity.
(ii) Name the two types of nephrons in the human kidney.
(iii) A creatinine molecule is filtered at the glomerulus. List, in order, the structures it passes through until it leaves the kidney.
(iv) Name two disorders of the human urinary system.
(v) In a median section of the human brain, P lies below the thalamus and above the pituitary; Q is the bulge of the brainstem in front of the cerebellum; R is the lowest part of the brainstem continuous with the spinal cord; S is the large, folded upper part; T lies behind the brainstem below the occipital lobes. Name P–T.
(vi) Which of the parts P–T is mainly involved in (a) maintaining posture, (b) coordinating the movements of running, (c) regulating thirst?
(i) What is a sensory receptor?
(ii) Where are the receptors for sound located in the human ear?
(iii) Name two tropic hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary.
(iv) Give one example of positive feedback in the human endocrine system.
(v) Explain why the blood glucose level remains high in type 2 diabetes.
(i) Why are the human testes located in the scrotum?
(ii) Trace the path of sperm from the seminiferous tubules to the exterior.
(iii) Name a nutrient for sperm provided by the prostate secretion.
(iv) Name the structures in the ovary that secrete hormones.
(v) What is fertilisation?
(vi) In which phase of the uterine cycle does implantation take place?
(vii) What is detected in early pregnancy tests and how?
(viii) Name two assisted reproductive technologies.
(ix) State functions of the human skeleton other than support, protection and movement.
(x) Which joint permits the nodding movement of the head?
(xi) In which region of the vertebral column are vertebrae with bifid spinous processes found?
(xii) What is a sarcomere? Name the theory that explains muscle contraction.
(i) What is a pedigree chart?
(ii) What information is needed to construct a pedigree chart for a family?
(iii) In a pedigree chart, what is represented by (a) a shaded square, (b) an unshaded circle?
(iv) In the Hardy–Weinberg equation p² + 2pq + q² = 1, what do (a) p, (b) p² represent?
(v) In a population of 100,000 people that is in Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium, 9,000 people show a recessive trait. Calculate how many people are heterozygous for this trait. Show your working.
(i) What is the role of RNA polymerase (primase) in DNA replication, and why is it necessary?
(ii) Name two gene products that are not polypeptides.
(iii) What is the ultimate source of genetic variation?
(iv) What information is shown by a restriction map?
(v) State applications of DNA fingerprinting.
(vi) Name a natural vector commonly used to deliver foreign DNA into plant cells.
(i) Define habitat.
(ii) Give one example each of the following interactions in an ecosystem: (a) abiotic factor affecting a biotic component, (b) biotic component affecting an abiotic factor, (c) interaction between two biotic components.
(iii) What is meant by ecosystem diversity?
(iv) What is a flagship species? Name two flagship species of Sri Lanka.
(v) State the problems caused by open dumping of solid waste.
(vi) Describe a sanitary landfill.
Describe the general properties of enzymes.
Explain how pH, temperature, competitive inhibitors and non-competitive inhibitors affect the rate of enzyme-catalysed reactions.
Describe the internal structure of a dicotyledonous leaf as seen in transverse section, stating the function of each tissue. Draw a labelled diagram.
Explain how organic solutes are translocated in the phloem of flowering plants.
Describe how the lungs are ventilated in humans.
Explain how breathing is regulated homeostatically in humans.
Discuss the importance of polyploid plants in agriculture.
Describe the environmental problems that may result from using genetically modified organisms in agriculture.
Describe the characteristic features of the inland wetland ecosystems of Sri Lanka.
Explain the effects of releasing wastewater into natural water bodies.
Write a short note on: Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection.
Write a short note on: the energy budget of an animal.
Write a short note on: the extra-embryonic (fetal) membranes of amniotes.
Answer key — this booklet
Answer key — original 2019 (New) paper (MEDVision model answers)
For students working from the original paper. Shaded cells: check against the official marking scheme (amber = likely, red = disputed).
Paper I — reviews
Paper II — marking points
- Three major lipid types: fats/oils (triglycerides), phospholipids, steroids (also waxes)
- Phospholipids form the main lipid of the cell membrane (bilayer)
- Saturated fatty acids have only C–C single bonds (max H); unsaturated have one or more C=C double bonds (kinks)
- RER: synthesis of secretory/membrane proteins on ribosomes; glycoprotein formation (adding carbohydrates); membrane production; transport of proteins in transport vesicles to Golgi
- Vacuoles: central (sap) vacuole of plants, food vacuole, contractile vacuole (also gas vacuoles in some prokaryotes)
- Mitosis: growth of multicellular organisms; repair/replacement of cells; asexual reproduction; produces genetically identical cells (maintains chromosome number)
- Calvin cycle occurs in the stroma of the chloroplast
- Three steps: carbon fixation (by Rubisco), reduction (to G3P), regeneration of RuBP
- Light reactions occur on the thylakoid membranes
- Products of light reaction: ATP, NADPH, O₂
- High O₂ makes Rubisco act as an oxygenase (photorespiration)
- RuBP is oxidised, CO₂ is released and ATP is consumed without sugar production, so photosynthetic productivity falls
- Stages: abiotic synthesis of small organic molecules → joining into macromolecules (polymers) → packaging into protobionts (membrane-bound droplets) → origin of self-replicating molecules (RNA) giving inheritance
- Polyphyletic: a group whose members derive from more than one ancestor, the most recent common ancestor not being included
- Zygosporangium: thick-walled, resistant structure of zygomycete fungi (e.g. Mucor/Rhizopus) formed by fusion of hyphal gametangia; contains multiple diploid nuclei, survives harsh conditions and undergoes meiosis to form haploid spores
- Seeds + flagellated sperm: Cycadophyta (also Ginkgophyta)
- No vascular system + flagellated sperm: Hepatophyta / Bryophyta / Anthocerophyta
- Flukes maintain osmotic balance with flame cells (protonephridia)
- Nematode body cavity: pseudocoelom
- Epithelial functions: protection, absorption, secretion (also excretion, sensory reception)
- Meristematic cells: small, thin primary cell walls, dense cytoplasm with large nucleus, small/no vacuoles, no intercellular spaces, isodiametric
- Specialised epidermal cells: guard cells, trichomes, root hairs
- Blot strips and measure initial length of each strip accurately on graph paper
- Place two strips in each sucrose solution (0.15–0.40 M), cover and leave for a fixed time (e.g. 30–60 min)
- Measure final length; calculate change/percentage change in length
- Plot change in length against sucrose concentration
- Find the concentration where length change is zero; its solute potential (= water potential of solution) equals tissue water potential
- Calcium: component of middle lamella (calcium pectate); maintains membrane structure/permeability; enzyme activation/cofactor; second messenger in signalling; required for cell division (spindle)
- Genera with photosynthetic gametophytes: e.g. Marchantia, Pogonatum, Nephrolepis, Lycopodium (any two)
- Least developed (most reduced) gametophytes: angiosperms (flowering plants)
- Sori: clusters of sporangia on the underside of fern leaves (sporophylls), often covered by an indusium
- Pollination: transfer of pollen from anther (microsporangium) to stigma (angiosperms) or to the ovule/micropyle (gymnosperms)
- Cytokinins: stimulate cell division (cytokinesis); promote lateral bud growth (counter apical dominance); delay leaf senescence; promote shoot formation/differentiation in tissue culture with auxin; stimulate seed germination
- Caecum: at the junction of the ileum and the colon (start of large intestine), with appendix attached
- Pepsinogen secreted by chief cells (zymogen/peptic cells)
- Salivary buffers (bicarbonate) neutralise acids, keep pH near neutral for salivary amylase and protect teeth from decay
- Amino acids: active transport; fructose: passive (facilitated diffusion); (glucose: active)
- Capillaries of villi converge into the hepatic portal vein
- Double circulation: blood returns to heart after lungs and is pumped again at high pressure, so systemic blood flows fast and efficiently; oxygenated and deoxygenated blood do not mix
- Hypertension: persistently high arterial blood pressure (≥140/90 mmHg)
- Consequences: heart attack/heart failure, stroke, kidney damage (renal failure), atherosclerosis, retinal damage/blindness, aneurysm
- Active: own body produces antibodies; passive: antibodies received from outside (mother, injection)
- Active: develops slowly; passive: immediate
- Active: long-lasting with memory cells; passive: short-lived, no memory
- Nephron types: cortical nephrons and juxtamedullary nephrons
- Creatinine: Bowman's capsule → PCT → descending limb of loop of Henle → ascending limb → DCT → collecting duct → renal pelvis → ureter
- Urinary disorders: kidney stones (renal calculi), urinary tract infection, chronic kidney disease/renal failure, nephritis
- Parts: P hypothalamus, Q pons Varolii, R medulla oblongata, S cerebrum (cerebral cortex), T cerebellum
- Maintaining posture: cerebellum; coordination of running: cerebellum; regulation of thirst: hypothalamus
- Sensory receptor: a specialised cell/structure (or sensory neuron ending) that detects a stimulus and converts it into nerve impulses (transduction)
- Sound receptors: hair cells of the organ of Corti in the cochlea (inner ear)
- Tropic hormones: FSH, LH, TSH, ACTH (any two)
- Positive feedback: oxytocin release during childbirth increasing uterine contractions; or oxytocin in milk ejection; or estradiol-triggered LH surge before ovulation
- Type 2 diabetes: target cells lose responsiveness to insulin (insulin resistance) and/or insulin secretion is reduced
- So glucose uptake by cells and conversion to glycogen fall, keeping blood glucose high
- Testes in scrotum keep temperature ~2–3 °C below body temperature, required for spermatogenesis
- Sperm path: seminiferous tubules → rete testis → epididymis → vas deferens → ejaculatory duct → urethra
- Prostate secretion provides citrate (citric acid) as nutrient
- Hormone-producing structures in ovary: follicles (granulosa/theca cells) and corpus luteum
- Fertilization: fusion of haploid sperm nucleus with haploid ovum nucleus to form a diploid zygote
- Implantation occurs in the secretory phase of the uterine cycle
- Early pregnancy tests detect hCG in urine/blood using antibodies
- ART: IVF, ICSI, IUI (artificial insemination), GIFT
- Other skeletal functions: blood cell formation (haemopoiesis in red marrow), mineral (Ca, P) storage, fat storage, hearing (ear ossicles)
- Nodding: occipital condyles articulating with the atlas (atlanto-occipital joint)
- Bifid spinous process: cervical vertebrae (C3–C6)
- Sarcomere: the contractile unit of a myofibril between two adjacent Z lines
- Sliding filament theory
- Pedigree chart: a diagram showing the occurrence of a trait across generations of a family and the relationships among members
- Data: family members across several generations, their sex, relationships (parents, offspring, siblings, marriages) and whether each shows the trait
- Filled square: male showing (affected by) the trait
- Open circle: female not showing the trait (unaffected)
- p: frequency of the dominant allele in the population
- p²: frequency of homozygous dominant genotype
- q² = 9,000/100,000 = 0.09, so q = 0.3 and p = 0.7
- 2pq = 2 × 0.7 × 0.3 = 0.42 → about 42,000 heterozygous persons
- RNA polymerase (primase) synthesises a short RNA primer complementary to the template
- DNA polymerase III can add nucleotides only to a free 3′-OH end, so the primer is essential to start DNA synthesis (leading strand and each Okazaki fragment)
- Non-polypeptide gene products: rRNA, tRNA (also snRNA, miRNA)
- Ultimate source of genetic variation: mutation (plus recombination during sexual reproduction)
- Restriction map: positions of restriction enzyme sites on a DNA molecule, number of sites, distances between them and sizes of fragments
- DNA fingerprinting: forensic identification of criminals, paternity/parentage testing, identifying human remains, studying evolutionary relationships
- Plant DNA delivery: Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens
- Habitat: the place/environment where an organism or population naturally lives
- Abiotic → biotic: e.g. light affecting plant growth / temperature on animal distribution
- Biotic → abiotic: e.g. plant roots/decomposers forming soil, transpiration raising humidity
- Biotic ↔ biotic: e.g. predation, competition, mutualism (bees and flowers)
- Ecosystem diversity: variety of ecosystems (habitats, communities and processes) in a region/biosphere
- Flagship species: a charismatic species used to attract public support for conservation of a habitat
- Sri Lankan flagship species: Asian elephant, Sri Lankan leopard, purple-faced leaf monkey, Sri Lanka junglefowl
- Open dumping: bad odour, breeding of vectors (flies, mosquitoes, rats) and spread of disease, leachate contaminating ground/surface water, emission of methane and other gases, fire hazards, aesthetic loss, soil pollution
- Sanitary landfill: engineered site where waste is spread in layers, compacted and covered daily with soil, with impermeable liner, leachate collection/treatment and gas venting/collection
- Enzymes are biological catalysts, mostly globular proteins (some RNA – ribozymes)
- Speed up reactions by lowering activation energy
- Not used up or changed at the end of the reaction; needed in small amounts
- Do not alter the equilibrium/end products of a reaction; catalyse reversible reactions in either direction
- Highly specific to substrate and reaction due to the shape of the active site
- Form enzyme–substrate complex (lock-and-key / induced fit)
- Sensitive to temperature; denatured at high temperature, inactive at low
- Each has an optimum pH
- Some require cofactors (metal ions) or coenzymes (e.g. NAD⁺, vitamins)
- Activity affected by inhibitors and activators; can be regulated (allosteric, feedback)
- High turnover number
- Rate depends on enzyme and substrate concentration
- Each enzyme has an optimum pH at which activity is maximum (e.g. pepsin ~2, trypsin ~8)
- pH changes alter ionisation of R groups, breaking ionic/hydrogen bonds and changing active site shape
- Extreme pH denatures the enzyme; rate drops either side of optimum
- Rising temperature increases kinetic energy and collisions, so rate increases up to the optimum (~35–40 °C for human enzymes)
- Above optimum, bonds break, protein denatures and the rate drops sharply; denaturation is irreversible
- Low temperatures inactivate enzymes reversibly
- Competitive inhibitors resemble the substrate and bind to the active site, blocking substrate entry
- Competitive inhibition can be overcome by increasing substrate concentration (e.g. malonate inhibiting succinate dehydrogenase)
- Non-competitive inhibitors bind elsewhere (allosteric site) and change the active site shape
- Non-competitive inhibition is not overcome by raising substrate concentration; e.g. heavy metal ions, cyanide
- Inhibitors may be reversible or irreversible; inhibition is used in metabolic regulation (feedback inhibition)
- Upper epidermis: single layer, no chloroplasts, covered by waxy cuticle — protection, reduces water loss, transmits light
- Lower epidermis: single layer with many stomata (guard cells with chloroplasts) — gaseous exchange and transpiration
- Trichomes may be present — reduce water loss/protection
- Palisade mesophyll: elongated columnar cells beneath upper epidermis, packed with chloroplasts — main site of photosynthesis
- Spongy mesophyll: irregular cells with large air spaces — gas diffusion, some photosynthesis
- Substomatal air chamber connects to air spaces
- Midrib vascular bundle: xylem towards upper side, phloem towards lower side
- Xylem transports water and minerals and gives support; phloem transports sugars
- Bundle sheath cells around veins — regulate movement between vascular tissue and mesophyll
- Collenchyma beneath epidermis of midrib and parenchyma ground tissue — mechanical support / storage
- Leaf veins (lateral bundles) distribute water and collect photosynthates; labelled diagram expected
- Translocation: transport of organic solutes (mainly sucrose) in sieve tubes from source to sink
- Explained by the pressure-flow (mass-flow) hypothesis
- At source (leaf), sucrose is actively loaded into sieve tubes (via companion cells, H⁺–sucrose cotransport using ATP)
- Solute potential falls, water potential of sieve tube decreases
- Water enters sieve tube from adjacent xylem by osmosis
- Hydrostatic (turgor) pressure builds up at the source end
- At sink (roots, fruits, storage organs), sucrose is unloaded/used
- Water potential at sink rises, water leaves to xylem, lowering pressure
- Pressure gradient pushes phloem sap by bulk flow from source to sink
- Flow can be in either direction, depending on source–sink positions
- Xylem recycles water from sink back to source
- Ventilation is by negative-pressure breathing, changing thoracic volume
- Inspiration: external intercostal muscles contract, ribs and sternum move up and outward
- Diaphragm contracts and flattens (moves down)
- Thoracic cavity volume increases; pleural pressure drops, lungs expand
- Alveolar/intrapulmonary pressure falls below atmospheric
- Air flows in through nose → pharynx → larynx → trachea → bronchi → bronchioles → alveoli
- Quiet expiration is passive: external intercostals and diaphragm relax
- Elastic recoil of lungs; ribs move down and inward, diaphragm domes up
- Thoracic volume decreases, alveolar pressure rises above atmospheric, air expelled
- Forced expiration: internal intercostals and abdominal muscles contract
- Pleural membranes/fluid reduce friction and keep lungs attached to chest wall
- Breathing centres in the medulla oblongata (and pons) set rhythm by sending impulses to intercostal muscles and diaphragm
- Pons regulates/smooths the rhythm with the medulla
- Main controlled variable: CO₂ (via blood/CSF pH)
- Increase in CO₂ (e.g. exercise) → CO₂ forms carbonic acid → H⁺ increases → pH of CSF and blood falls
- Central chemoreceptors in medulla detect the pH drop
- Peripheral chemoreceptors in aortic and carotid bodies detect CO₂/H⁺ and (very low) O₂ and send impulses to medulla
- Medulla increases rate and depth of breathing
- More CO₂ is expelled, pH returns to normal — negative feedback
- When CO₂ falls, breathing rate decreases
- Stretch receptors in lungs prevent over-inflation (Hering–Breuer reflex)
- Higher brain centres (cerebrum) allow voluntary control for a short time
- Polyploids have more than two complete chromosome sets (autopolyploids, allopolyploids)
- Larger cells → larger plants, leaves, flowers, fruits (gigas effect), higher yield
- Higher content of useful products (sugars, vitamins, proteins)
- Triploids are sterile → seedless fruits (banana, seedless watermelon)
- Allopolyploidy produces new species combining desirable traits of two species (e.g. bread wheat – hexaploid, Triticale, cotton)
- Restores fertility of sterile interspecific hybrids by chromosome doubling
- Increased vigour and tolerance to pests, diseases and environmental stress
- Longer flowering/better quality ornamental flowers
- Induced artificially using colchicine
- Examples: potato, sugarcane, strawberry, coffee, apple, tobacco
- Gene flow: transgenes transfer to wild relatives via pollen, creating 'superweeds' (e.g. herbicide-resistant weeds)
- Herbicide-tolerant crops encourage heavy herbicide use, polluting soil and water
- Pests evolve resistance to Bt toxin, reducing effectiveness
- Harm to non-target organisms (e.g. beneficial insects, pollinators, soil organisms)
- Loss of biodiversity as GM monocultures replace traditional varieties (genetic erosion)
- GM organisms may become invasive and outcompete native species
- Disruption of food chains/ecological balance
- Changes in soil microbial communities from root exudates/residues
- Possible horizontal gene transfer (e.g. antibiotic-resistance marker genes to microbes)
- Unpredictable long-term effects and difficulty recalling released GMOs
- Contamination of organic/non-GM crops
- Inland wetlands: freshwater areas where land is permanently/seasonally covered by water — e.g. rivers/streams, flood plains, villus, marshes, swamp forests, tanks (reservoirs)
- Mostly freshwater with low salinity; water may be still or flowing
- Soils are waterlogged, anaerobic and rich in organic matter
- Flood plains and villus (e.g. Mahaweli flood plains) seasonally inundated, grassy
- Marshes dominated by herbaceous plants, sedges and grasses
- Freshwater swamp forests with woody trees (e.g. Walidda / Mitragyna, Kaduru/Barringtonia) e.g. Bellanwila–Attidiya, Muthurajawela parts
- Tanks/reservoirs are man-made (ancient irrigation tanks)
- Aquatic plants: submerged, floating and emergent (Nymphaea, Hydrilla, Aponogeton)
- Rich fauna: fish, amphibians, aquatic birds (migratory), crocodiles, invertebrates
- Functions: flood control, groundwater recharge, water purification, sediment trapping, habitat and breeding grounds
- Support livelihoods: fisheries, irrigation, drinking water, recreation
- Threats: filling, pollution, invasive species (e.g. water hyacinth, Salvinia)
- Wastewater: domestic sewage, industrial effluent, agricultural runoff
- Organic matter increases BOD; decomposition depletes dissolved O₂ → death of fish and aquatic organisms
- Nitrates and phosphates cause eutrophication: algal blooms, reduced light, O₂ depletion
- Toxic algal blooms (cyanobacteria) harm humans and animals
- Pathogens spread waterborne diseases (cholera, typhoid, dysentery, hepatitis A)
- Heavy metals (Hg, Cd, Pb, As) are toxic and biomagnify through food chains
- Pesticides/chemicals poison aquatic life and bioaccumulate
- Oil and grease form surface films reducing gas exchange
- Thermal pollution lowers O₂ solubility and stresses organisms
- Suspended solids increase turbidity, reduce photosynthesis and smother benthic habitats
- Changes pH and causes bad odour (H₂S), aesthetic loss
- Loss of biodiversity; contaminated drinking water and groundwater; economic loss (fisheries, tourism)
- Proposed by Charles Darwin and Alfred Russel Wallace (Origin of Species, 1859)
- Organisms produce more offspring than can survive (overproduction)
- Population size remains relatively constant due to limited resources
- Struggle for existence / competition among individuals
- Individuals of a population vary in their traits
- Many variations are heritable
- Individuals with traits better suited to the environment survive and reproduce more (survival of the fittest)
- Favourable heritable traits accumulate in the population over generations
- Leads to adaptation and, over long periods, origin of new species
- Examples: industrial melanism of peppered moth, antibiotic resistance in bacteria
- Energy budget: how an animal allocates energy obtained from food
- Energy taken in as food; part lost in faeces (and urine) as undigested/unabsorbed material
- Remaining energy is absorbed/assimilated
- Assimilated energy is used first for basal (BMR) or standard metabolic rate (SMR) — maintenance
- Also for activity, temperature regulation (in endotherms) and digestion
- Surplus used for growth, reproduction and storage (fat, glycogen)
- Endotherms spend more on thermoregulation than ectotherms
- Small animals have higher metabolic rate per unit mass
- Budget varies with size, activity, environment, age and reproductive state
- Four extra-embryonic membranes in amniotes: amnion, chorion, yolk sac, allantois
- Amnion: encloses embryo in amniotic fluid — protects against shock and dehydration
- Chorion: outermost membrane; with allantois contributes to placenta; secretes hCG; gas exchange
- Chorionic villi invade endometrium to form the placenta
- Yolk sac: early site of blood cell formation and primordial germ cells in mammals; stores yolk in birds/reptiles
- Allantois: in mammals forms umbilical blood vessels and part of urinary bladder; in birds/reptiles stores nitrogenous wastes and gas exchange
- Derived from trophoblast/embryonic tissues
- Adaptation for development on land (amniotic egg)
Scan notes: All 50 MCQs and all Paper II questions present; OCR clean. Figures for MCQ 28 (hormone graph), P2 3A(v) (brain labels) and 4A(iii) (pedigree symbols) were read from page images. Brain label P read as hypothalamus (arrow ends near hypothalamus/pituitary stalk). Lower-confidence keys: Q8, Q10, Q11, Q12, Q36, Q37, Q38, Q43, Q48.
G.C.E. (Advanced Level) — Biology
Current syllabus (2019 onward) · Re-set practice paper
Every question tests the same concept as question of the same number in the 2020 paper, re-written by MEDVision. Source coverage: Paper I + full Paper II.
Conditions on the primitive Earth included an atmosphere with no free oxygen and shallow seas rich in abiotically formed organic compounds. The earliest living cells that arose under these conditions were most probably
- 1autotrophic, aerobic eukaryotes.
- 2heterotrophic, anaerobic prokaryotes.
- 3autotrophic, anaerobic prokaryotes.
- 4heterotrophic, aerobic eukaryotes.
- 5photoautotrophic, aerobic prokaryotes.
Which one of the following statements about proteins is correct?
- 1Their α-helix and β-pleated sheet are maintained mainly by disulphide bridges.
- 2They are assembled from about thirty different kinds of amino acids.
- 3Phosphorus is a constituent element of every amino acid.
- 4Some of them act as carriers that move substances across membranes or in the blood.
- 5Treatment with a detergent does not alter their three-dimensional shape.
A student wants to observe a stained cheek-cell preparation under a compound light microscope. The steps are: P – sharpening the image with the fine adjustment knob; Q – bringing the cells into view with the coarse adjustment knob; R – tilting the mirror to illuminate the field. The correct order of these steps is
- 1P, Q, R
- 2R, P, Q
- 3R, Q, P
- 4Q, R, P
- 5Q, P, R
Consider the following cell features: A – a cell surface (plasma) membrane; B – a nuclear envelope; C – 70S ribosomes; D – cytosol in which subcellular components are suspended; E – formation of a spindle during cell division. Which of these are found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
- 1A and C only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3B, C and D only
- 4A, D and E only
- 5A, B, C and D only
Which one of the following statements about the eukaryotic cell cycle is correct?
- 1Chiasmata are first formed during anaphase I of meiosis.
- 2DNA is replicated during the G₂ phase.
- 3The nuclear envelope is reassembled during cytokinesis.
- 4Assembly of the mitotic spindle starts in prophase.
- 5Sister chromatids separate during metaphase of mitosis.
Which one of the following statements about adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is correct?
- 1It is a nucleoside made of adenine, ribose and three phosphate groups.
- 2Its sugar component is deoxyribose.
- 3Removal of its terminal phosphate to give ADP and Pi releases about 30.5 kJ mol⁻¹.
- 4ATP made in chloroplasts using light energy is formed by oxidative phosphorylation.
- 5The link reaction (pyruvate oxidation) produces ATP by substrate-level phosphorylation.
Which one of the following is a general property of enzymes?
- 1They raise the activation energy needed to start a reaction.
- 2The products they form are the same as those of the uncatalysed reaction.
- 3Each enzyme acts on a wide range of unrelated substrates.
- 4A small fraction of the enzyme is consumed in every reaction.
- 5Any region on the surface of the enzyme can catalyse the reaction.
Three statements on chemical evolution are given: X – simple organic compounds such as amino acids and sugars formed abiotically and accumulated in the early seas; Y – these monomers later joined together to form macromolecules such as polypeptides and nucleic acids; Z – all protocells possessed DNA as their hereditary material enclosed by a lipid bilayer. Which of these is/are correct?
- 1X only
- 2Y only
- 3X and Y only
- 4Y and Z only
- 5X, Y and Z
Four features are coded as follows. Cell organisation: P = prokaryotic, E = eukaryotic. Peptidoglycan in the wall: + = present, − = absent. RNA polymerase: 1 = one kind, M = several kinds. Effect of streptomycin: I = growth inhibited, N = growth not inhibited. Which organism is matched with the correct combination?
- 1Anabaena — P, +, M, I
- 2Methanococcus — P, +, 1, N
- 3Chlamydomonas — E, +, M, I
- 4Aspergillus — E, −, M, N
- 5Hydra — E, −, 1, N
Which option lists, in the correct order, an animal with flame-cell protonephridia, an animal with a mantle, and an animal with cnidocytes (stinging cells)?
- 1Taenia, octopus and sea anemone
- 2Ascaris, snail and Hydra
- 3Fasciola, earthworm and Obelia
- 4Starfish, mussel and Physalia
- 5Hydra, squid and Planaria
Selaginella is regarded as closer to seed plants than Lycopodium is. Which feature of Selaginella, absent in Lycopodium, supports this view?
- 1Presence of true roots
- 2Presence of microphylls
- 3Production of two kinds of spores
- 4Spore-bearing cones
- 5A dominant sporophyte
Consider these features: P – epidermal structures made of keratin; Q – fertilisation inside the body of the female; R – some members produce offspring from unfertilised eggs; S – some members live in the sea; T – a placenta nourishes the embryo. Which features occur in members of all three classes Reptilia, Aves and Mammalia?
- 1P and Q only
- 2P, Q and R only
- 3P, Q and S only
- 4Q, S and T only
- 5P, R and S only
Which feature distinguishes collenchyma cells from parenchyma cells?
- 1Collenchyma cells are dead at maturity.
- 2Collenchyma walls are impregnated with lignin.
- 3Collenchyma cells have primary walls unevenly thickened with cellulose and pectin.
- 4Collenchyma is located mainly within xylem and phloem.
- 5Collenchyma cells have a large central vacuole.
Which one of the following statements about the shoot apical meristem is correct?
- 1It is responsible for the increase in girth of the stem.
- 2It adds secondary xylem inwards and secondary phloem outwards.
- 3It consists of small, undifferentiated cells capable of repeated division.
- 4It contributes to both primary and secondary growth.
- 5It is made up of mature sclerenchyma cells.
Glucose is dissolved in a beaker of pure water at constant atmospheric pressure. How do the solute potential (Ψs) and water potential (Ψ) of the liquid change?
- 1Ψs rises and Ψ rises
- 2Ψs becomes more negative and Ψ falls
- 3Ψs becomes more negative and Ψ rises
- 4Ψs is unchanged and Ψ falls
- 5Ψs rises and Ψ falls
Which one of the following statements about osmosis is correct?
- 1It is the net movement of water through a fully permeable membrane.
- 2Water moves from a region of lower to a region of higher water potential.
- 3It requires energy from ATP.
- 4It is the process by which water from the soil solution enters root hair cells.
- 5It lowers the turgor pressure in sieve tubes at the source.
Deficiency of which pair of mineral elements first produces yellowing (chlorosis) in the older, mature leaves of a plant?
- 1N and Mg
- 2Fe and S
- 3Ca and B
- 4Mn and Fe
- 5Cu and Zn
In a flowering plant, after double fertilisation, the seed develops from the
- 1zygote.
- 2primary endosperm nucleus.
- 3ovule.
- 4ovary wall.
- 5nucellus alone.
Four plant hormones are listed: P – auxin (IAA); Q – ethylene; R – cytokinin; S – abscisic acid. Which of them promote senescence of leaves?
- 1P and R only
- 2Q and S only
- 3R and S only
- 4P and Q only
- 5Q, R and S only
Which of the following pairs consists only of homosporous plants?
- 1Selaginella and Pinus
- 2Marchantia and Lycopodium
- 3Cycas and Nephrolepis
- 4Selaginella and Lycopodium
- 5Gnetum and Pogonatum
Which option correctly gives, in order, the mineral elements mainly needed in man for (i) formation of bones and teeth as a phosphate salt, (ii) maintenance of acid–base balance, and (iii) transmission of nerve impulses and muscle contraction?
- 1Fe, Mg and P
- 2Na, K and I
- 3P, Cl and Ca
- 4K, Fe and Cl
- 5I, Na and Mg
Consider these pairs: P – coagulation of blood; conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. Q – uptake of O₂ in the alveoli; active transport by alveolar cells. R – transport of CO₂ in the blood; carbonic anhydrase in erythrocytes. S – flow of lymph; contraction of the heart. In which pairs does the second contribute to the first?
- 1P and Q
- 2P and R
- 3Q and S
- 4R and S
- 5Q and R
A resting adult has: inspiratory reserve volume 3000 ml, tidal volume 500 ml, expiratory reserve volume 1200 ml and residual volume 1200 ml. What are the inspiratory capacity, functional residual capacity and vital capacity, in that order?
- 13500 ml, 1700 ml and 4700 ml
- 24200 ml, 2400 ml and 5900 ml
- 33500 ml, 2400 ml and 5900 ml
- 43500 ml, 2400 ml and 4700 ml
- 51700 ml, 2400 ml and 4700 ml
Which of the following excretory structures discharges its contents into the alimentary canal?
- 1Antennal glands of a crayfish
- 2Contractile vacuole of Amoeba
- 3Malpighian tubules of a grasshopper
- 4Protonephridia of Planaria
- 5Nasal salt glands of a marine bird
Which part of the human brain is correctly matched with one of its functions?
- 1Medulla oblongata — regulation of body temperature
- 2Cerebellum — regulation of hunger and thirst
- 3Midbrain — reflex turning of the eyes and head towards a sudden flash or sound
- 4Thalamus — maintenance of balance and posture
- 5Pons — secretion of releasing hormones
Light entering the human eye passes through the layers of the retina from the vitreous humour towards the choroid. In which order does it meet them?
- 1Photoreceptors, bipolar cells, ganglion cells, pigmented epithelium
- 2Ganglion cells, bipolar cells, photoreceptors, pigmented epithelium
- 3Pigmented epithelium, photoreceptors, bipolar cells, ganglion cells
- 4Bipolar cells, ganglion cells, photoreceptors, pigmented epithelium
- 5Ganglion cells, photoreceptors, bipolar cells, pigmented epithelium
Which of the following is brought about by stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system in man?
- 1Increased secretion of digestive juices
- 2Constriction of the pupil
- 3Ejaculation of semen
- 4Reduction of heart rate
- 5Contraction of the bladder wall to empty urine
Which pituitary hormone acts directly on non-endocrine tissues and also stimulates another tissue to release hormones?
- 1Luteinising hormone
- 2Prolactin
- 3Adrenocorticotropic hormone
- 4Growth hormone (somatotropin)
- 5Thyroid-stimulating hormone
Which one of the following statements about asexual reproduction in animals is correct?
- 1The offspring differ genetically from the parent.
- 2New individuals are formed by meiosis.
- 3A single isolated individual can quickly produce many offspring.
- 4It speeds up adaptation in a fluctuating environment.
- 5In parthenogenesis an embryo develops from a sperm without an egg.
Which one of the following statements about the human skull is correct?
- 1The sphenoid is one of the facial bones.
- 2The vomer forms part of the cranium.
- 3The zygomatic arch is formed by the zygomatic and parietal bones.
- 4The mastoid process is part of the occipital bone.
- 5Paranasal sinuses occur in the frontal and maxillary bones.
Which statement correctly describes hybrid vigour (heterosis)?
- 1It results from increased homozygosity.
- 2It arises from increased heterozygosity, which masks harmful recessive alleles, and is greatest in the F₁.
- 3It is increased by repeated self-pollination.
- 4It is maintained when F₁ hybrids are crossed among themselves.
- 5It is usually lower in the F₁ than in the parents.
During DNA replication, the enzyme topoisomerase
- 1joins Okazaki fragments together.
- 2breaks the hydrogen bonds between base pairs.
- 3relieves the torsional strain ahead of the replication fork by cutting and rejoining DNA strands.
- 4binds to the separated single strands to keep them apart.
- 5synthesises the RNA primer.
Translation in eukaryotic cells differs from that in prokaryotic cells because in eukaryotes
- 1it begins only after the mRNA has been processed and exported from the nucleus.
- 2it takes place inside the nucleus.
- 3different stop codons are used.
- 4it always starts at a GUG codon.
- 5polysomes are never formed.
Which option lists biomes in increasing order of mean annual precipitation?
- 1Tropical rain forest, savanna, desert
- 2Desert, temperate grassland, tropical rain forest
- 3Temperate broadleaf forest, arctic tundra, savanna
- 4Savanna, desert, temperate broadleaf forest
- 5Tropical rain forest, desert, arctic tundra
Which option consists only of organisms that are currently threatened with extinction?
- 1Dodo, Sri Lankan leopard and blue whale
- 2Tilapia, Lantana and purple-faced langur
- 3Sri Lankan leopard, purple-faced langur and Asian elephant
- 4Water hyacinth, giant panda and woolly mammoth
- 5Giant African land snail, Sri Lankan elephant and passenger pigeon
Consider these international agreements: P – Kyoto Protocol; Q – Ramsar Convention; R – Montreal Protocol; S – Stockholm Convention. Which of them help to reduce global warming?
- 1P only
- 2P and Q only
- 3P and R only
- 4P, R and S only
- 5Q and S only
Which one of the following statements about microorganisms is correct?
- 1All fungi obtain food either saprophytically or parasitically.
- 2Purple non-sulphur bacteria are photoautotrophs using CO₂ as their carbon source.
- 3Streptococci divide in several planes to form grape-like clusters.
- 4In cyanobacteria, nitrogenase is located in akinetes.
- 5Mycoplasmas lack cell walls and almost all are parasites of animals or plants.
Which one of the following statements about the virulence of bacterial pathogens is correct?
- 1Endotoxins are heat-labile proteins secreted by Gram-positive bacteria.
- 2Capsules and pili are used mainly to penetrate deep into host tissue.
- 3Lecithinase dissolves the hyaluronic acid that cements host cells together.
- 4Phospholipases produced by some pathogens damage host cell membranes and aid invasion.
- 5Pathogens obtain nutrients from host cells without altering host metabolism.
Which one of the following statements about the role of microorganisms in nutrient cycling is correct?
- 1Mineralisation of organic matter by decomposers releases O₂.
- 2Methanotrophs produce methane in ocean sediments.
- 3In waterlogged, O₂-poor soil, Pseudomonas reduces nitrate to N₂ gas.
- 4Rhizobium fixes nitrogen only while free-living in soil.
- 5Every fungus in the rhizosphere benefits the plant.
Which disease is correctly paired with its causative microorganism?
- 1Typhoid — Vibrio sp.
- 2Cholera — Shigella sp.
- 3Botulism — Clostridium sp.
- 4Bacillary dysentery — Salmonella sp.
- 5Tetanus — Staphylococcus sp.
Which of the following statements about tissues of the human respiratory system are correct? A – Alveolar walls are lined by a single layer of flat cells. B – The trachea is lined by a single layer of ciliated cells whose nuclei lie at different levels. C – The bronchi are lined by keratinised stratified squamous epithelium. D – The airways are supported by cartilage whose matrix contains chondroitin sulphate. E – Transitional epithelium lines the bronchioles.
- 1A and B only
- 2A, B and D only
- 3B, C and D only
- 4A, D and E only
- 5C and E only
Ingested food meets substances in the mouth, stomach and small intestine. Which sequences are correct for these three regions in order? A – lysozyme, HCl, trypsin. B – salivary amylase, pepsin, bile salts. C – mucus, carboxypeptidase, lipase. D – IgA, pepsin, aminopeptidase. E – salivary amylase, trypsin, bile.
- 1A and B only
- 2A, B and D only
- 3A, C and D only
- 4B and E only
- 5B, D and E only
Which circulatory feature–animal pairings are correct? A – Haemolymph bathes the organs directly (open system) — grasshopper. B – Blood returns to the heart through ostia — spider. C – Two-chambered heart — shark. D – Pulmonary veins present — carp. E – No blood capillaries — earthworm.
- 1A and B only
- 2A, B and C only
- 3A, C and D only
- 4B, C and E only
- 5C, D and E only
Which of the following statements about antibodies are correct? A – They are immunoglobulins secreted by plasma cells. B – Each has antigen-binding sites that fit a specific epitope. C – They carry epitopes that trigger the immune response. D – They neutralise toxins and mark microbes for phagocytosis. E – They kill virus-infected cells using perforin.
- 1A and B only
- 2A, B and D only
- 3A, C and D only
- 4B, D and E only
- 5C and E only
Which of the following cells in the human testis are haploid? A – Spermatogonia. B – Secondary spermatocytes. C – Spermatids. D – Sertoli cells. E – Primary spermatocytes.
- 1A and E only
- 2B and C only
- 3B, C and D only
- 4A, B and C only
- 5C and D only
Which of the following statements about the adult human vertebral column are correct? A – It consists of 33 separate bones. B – The lumbar curvature develops when the child begins to stand and walk. C – Cervical vertebrae have transverse foramina through which the vertebral arteries pass. D – Twelve thoracic vertebrae articulate with the ribs. E – Lumbar vertebrae have bifid spinous processes.
- 1A and B only
- 2B, C and D only
- 3A, C and D only
- 4C and D only
- 5B and E only
Which of the following are conclusions Mendel drew from his pea experiments? A – The F₂ of a monohybrid cross shows a 3:1 phenotypic ratio. B – Factors for two characters lie on the same chromosome. C – Each character is controlled by a pair of factors, one received from each parent. D – The F₂ of a dihybrid cross shows a 9:3:3:1 genotypic ratio. E – Factors are located on chromosomes, as he observed under the microscope.
- 1A and C only
- 2A, B and C only
- 3A, C and D only
- 4C and E only
- 5A, C and E only
A single base in the coding sequence of a gene is replaced by another base. Which of the following could result? A – No change in the amino acid sequence. B – A shift in the reading frame. C – A shortened polypeptide. D – Replacement of one amino acid, as in sickle-cell anaemia. E – Loss of the whole gene.
- 1A and B only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3B, C and D only
- 4B and E only
- 5A, B, C and D only
In a food web: grass is eaten by grasshoppers, rabbits and mice; frogs eat grasshoppers; snakes eat frogs and mice; foxes eat rabbits; hawks eat frogs, mice, rabbits and snakes. Which pairs can occupy the same trophic level? A – hawk and snake. B – fox and frog. C – mouse and frog. D – frog and hawk. E – grasshopper and fox.
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A and B only
- 3B, C and D only
- 4A, D and E only
- 5C and E only
Which of the following statements about the treatment of water for drinking are correct? A – Aluminium sulphate makes suspended particles and microbes clump together and settle. B – Ozone or chlorine is used to kill microorganisms. C – In sand filters, microbes are removed by being absorbed into the sand grains. D – An activated sludge tank is used to remove microorganisms. E – Primary treatment removes about 90% of the organic matter.
- 1A and B only
- 2A, B and C only
- 3A, B and D only
- 4C and D only
- 5B, D and E only
(i) Define irritability as a characteristic of living organisms.
(ii) Give the monomer units that make up (a) a protein and (b) hemicellulose.
(iii) State two functions shared by NAD⁺, NADP⁺ and FAD in cells.
(iv) Name the cellular structure responsible for cytoplasmic streaming and chromosome movement, and list its structural components.
(v) Where in a plant cell is the secondary wall deposited? Name one substance other than cellulose found in it.
(i) Name three events that generate genetic variation during meiosis.
(ii) Which group of photosynthetic pigments protects plant cells from harmful reactive oxygen molecules?
(iii) Explain what is meant by the action spectrum of photosynthesis.
(iv) In a C4 plant, name the two cell types in which CO₂ is fixed, and for each give the CO₂ acceptor and the enzyme that fixes CO₂.
(v) How are these two cell types closely linked to each other?
(i) Name the geological eon in which eukaryotic cells first appeared.
(ii) Arrange in chronological order: P – origin of mammals; Q – origin of seed plants; R – angiosperms becoming dominant.
(iii) Give three features of free-living flatworms that are absent in parasitic flatworms.
(iv) State where the male and the female gametophytes are located in seed plants.
(v) Construct a dichotomous key using cell wall, multicellularity, gas-filled floats, pellicle and cilia to separate Euglena, Paramecium, Amoeba, Ulva, Sargassum and diatoms.
(i) Name the three processes that bring about growth in plants.
(ii) Give one function each of the vascular cambium and the cork cambium.
(iii) Name the structure through which (a) gas exchange occurs in woody stems and (b) guttation occurs.
(iv) Describe, step by step, the events in guard cells from the uptake of K⁺ ions to the opening of the stoma.
(v) Explain how chilling below a critical temperature affects plant cell membranes.
(i) In a life-cycle diagram showing alternation of generations of a land plant (gametophyte → gametes → D → sporophyte → E → gametophyte), name processes A (gametophyte to gametes), B (gametes to D) and C (sporophyte to E), and structures D and E.
(ii) Name the type of symbiosis in which (a) both partners benefit and (b) one partner benefits while the other is unaffected.
(iii) A person is 153 cm tall and weighs 50 kg. (a) Calculate the body mass index. (b) Using the WHO cut-off, calculate to one decimal place the minimum weight at which this person would not be considered undernourished.
(iv) Name a fat-soluble vitamin with antioxidant activity.
(v) Name two hormones of the human digestive tract whose actions oppose each other.
(i) (a) Give one function common to epithelial and connective tissues. (b) Give three features visible under the light microscope that identify dense connective tissue.
(ii) State the role of (a) the SA node and (b) the AV node of the human heart.
(iii) Sketch a normal ECG trace and label the waves.
(iv) What events do the first and last waves of the trace represent?
(v) Writing haemoglobin as Hb, give the equation for the reaction that takes place in red blood cells in the lung capillaries.
(i) What are interferons?
(ii) Apart from the glomerulus, name two capillary networks associated with a nephron.
(iii) Explain why dialysis is used for patients with kidney failure.
(iv) Give one similarity between nervous and hormonal coordination.
(v) Name two animal phyla whose members have a brain, a ventral nerve cord and segmental ganglia.
(i) (a) What are the ventricles of the human brain? (b) Name the three regions that make up the brain stem.
(ii) Give two functions of the spinal cord.
(iii) Why is the refractory period important in nerve impulse conduction?
(iv) Name the progressive disorder of the elderly that causes tremor and loss of control of muscle movement.
(v) Define a hormone.
(i) (a) Give three functions of Sertoli cells. (b) What is the role of the acrosome? (c) Where in the male reproductive tract do sperm mature?
(ii) (a) Name two techniques used to detect genetic disorders in a foetus. (b) Trace the route by which deoxygenated foetal blood is oxygenated and returned to the foetus.
(iii) Name a phylum whose members have an endoskeleton of calcium carbonate plates.
(iv) (a) Explain why the first pair of ribs does not move during inspiration. (b) Give three features of the vertebral column that help maintain upright posture.
(v) (a) What is the function of the arches of the foot? (b) Name two sites of ball-and-socket joints in the body.
(i) Give four features that made the garden pea suitable for Mendel's genetic experiments.
(ii) (a) Define pleiotropy. (b) Give two human examples.
(iii) Distinguish between intergenic DNA and introns.
(iv) State whether colour blindness, Down syndrome and Turner syndrome result from a gene mutation, trisomy or monosomy.
(v) (a) Explain why a chelating agent, proteolytic enzymes and cold ethanol are used in DNA isolation. (b) Give two essential features of a cloning vector.
(i) Define primary production.
(ii) (a) A graph shows ellipses of rainfall (mm) against altitude (m) for four Sri Lankan ecosystems: savanna, tropical thorn scrub, wet patana and tropical dry mixed evergreen forest. State which ecosystem occupies (1) the lowest rainfall at low altitude, (2) higher rainfall at low altitude, (3) about 1000 m altitude with 1300–2000 mm rainfall, and (4) high altitude with high rainfall. (b) Which of these ecosystems occurs in both the dry and intermediate zones?
(iii) Name an endemic plant of Sri Lanka's lowland wet evergreen forests.
(iv) Name a Sri Lankan plant at very high risk of extinction in the wild.
(v) (a) Which group of organisms removes the most CO₂ from the atmosphere? (b) Name the main global environmental problem threatening them.
(i) (a) Name a bacterium that is an obligate anaerobe. (b) How do akinetes benefit cyanobacteria?
(ii) (a) The SARS-CoV-2 virus is roughly spherical; to which morphological type of virus does it belong? (b) How does a viroid differ structurally from a virus?
(iii) Name two diseases prevented by subunit vaccines.
(iv) Name a microorganism used to produce (a) citric acid from sucrose, (b) invertase and (c) streptomycin.
(v) (a) Name two products of microbial putrefaction of food. (b) Explain why drinking water is tested for coliforms rather than for pathogens directly.
Describe how glucose is completely oxidised by aerobic respiration in human liver cells, including the location of each stage and the ATP yield.
Describe the ways in which light influences the growth, development and physiology of plants.
Explain the structural and physiological adaptations that allow plants to capture as much light as possible.
Give a brief account, with a labelled diagram, of the structure of the human eye.
Explain how the eye and the brain work together to produce vision.
Describe the human menstrual cycle and explain how it is regulated by hormones.
Give a brief account of how microorganisms are used in agriculture.
Explain the principle and the main applications of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
Write a short note on: Salt marshes of Sri Lanka.
Write a short note on: Epigenetics.
Write a short note on: Reproduction in Ascomycota OR Biological control of the dengue vector.
Answer key — this booklet
Answer key — original 2020 paper (MEDVision model answers)
For students working from the original paper. Shaded cells: check against the official marking scheme (amber = likely, red = disputed).
Paper I — reviews
Paper II — marking points
- Irritability: the ability of an organism to sense changes (stimuli) in the internal or external environment and respond to them
- Monomer of protein: amino acids
- Monomer of hemicellulose: monosaccharides such as xylose, arabinose, glucose, mannose and galactose (pentoses/hexoses)
- Common functions of NAD⁺, NADP⁺, FAD: act as coenzymes; act as electron/hydrogen carriers (acceptors) in redox reactions
- Structure for cytoplasmic streaming and chromosome movement: cytoskeleton
- Its components: microtubules (tubulin), microfilaments (actin) and intermediate filaments
- Secondary wall is laid down between the plasma membrane and the primary cell wall
- Substance other than cellulose in secondary wall: lignin (also hemicellulose/suberin)
- Variation in meiosis: crossing over (prophase I), independent assortment of homologous chromosomes (metaphase I/anaphase I), random fertilisation (also accepted: random orientation of chromatids in metaphase II)
- Pigment that prevents formation of harmful reactive oxygen species: carotenoids (photoprotection)
- Action spectrum: a graph or profile showing how effectively different wavelengths of light drive photosynthesis (rate plotted against wavelength)
- Mesophyll cells: CO₂ acceptor phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP); enzyme PEP carboxylase
- Bundle sheath cells: CO₂ acceptor RuBP; enzyme RuBisCO
- The two cell types are connected by many plasmodesmata
- First eukaryotes appeared in the Proterozoic eon
- Chronological order: Q (seed plants) → P (mammals) → R (angiosperm dominance)
- Features of free-living flatworms (Turbellaria) absent in parasitic forms: ciliated epidermis; well-developed sense organs such as eyespots/ocelli and auricles; no thick tegument/cuticle; no hooks or suckers for attachment (simple life cycle without intermediate hosts)
- Male gametophyte: pollen grain, found in the microsporangium (pollen sac/anther) and later on the stigma or ovule
- Female gametophyte: embryo sac (or the female gametophyte inside the ovule in gymnosperms), within the megasporangium (nucellus) of the ovule
- Key: cell wall present → go to 2; cell wall absent → go to 4
- 2: multicellular → go to 3; unicellular → Diatoms
- 3: gas-filled floats present → Sargassum; absent → Ulva
- 4: pellicle present → go to 5; pellicle absent → Amoeba
- 5: cilia present → Paramecium; cilia absent → Euglena
- Three processes of plant growth: cell division, cell enlargement (elongation), cell differentiation
- Vascular cambium: produces secondary xylem and secondary phloem, giving secondary growth (increase in girth)
- Cork cambium (phellogen): produces cork (phellem) and phelloderm, forming the protective periderm
- Gas exchange in woody stems happens through lenticels
- Guttation happens through hydathodes
- Stomatal opening: K⁺ accumulates in guard cells (driven by a proton pump) → water potential of guard cells falls → water enters by osmosis → guard cells become turgid → the unevenly thickened walls (radially oriented cellulose microfibrils) make them bow outward → pore opens
- Below the critical temperature, membrane lipids change from a fluid to a solid (gel/crystalline) state, so the membrane loses fluidity
- As a result membrane permeability and the function of transport proteins are altered, solutes leak out and the cell is damaged
- A: mitosis (gamete formation)
- B: fertilisation
- C: meiosis
- D: zygote
- E: spores
- Beneficial to both partners: mutualism
- Beneficial to one with no effect on the other: commensalism
- BMI = mass/height² = 50 / (1.53)² = 50 / 2.3409 ≈ 21.4 kg m⁻²
- Minimum non-malnourished BMI = 18.5, so minimum weight = 18.5 × 2.3409 ≈ 43.3 kg
- Fat-soluble antioxidant vitamin: vitamin E (vitamin A/β-carotene also accepted)
- Antagonistic gut hormones: gastrin (stimulates gastric secretion and motility) and secretin or CCK (inhibit gastric activity); ghrelin and leptin/PYY are also an accepted pair
- Common function of epithelial and connective tissue: protection (support/binding also accepted)
- Dense connective tissue features: densely packed collagen fibres; fibres arranged in parallel bundles (regular); fibroblasts arranged in rows between the fibres; little ground substance/matrix; few cells
- SA node: pacemaker that starts each cardiac impulse and sets the rate and timing of contraction, spreading excitation over both atria
- AV node: delays the impulse (~0.1 s) so the atria empty before the ventricles contract, then passes the impulse to the bundle of His and Purkinje fibres
- ECG drawing: P wave, QRS complex, T wave, labelled in order on a baseline
- P wave: atrial depolarisation
- T wave: ventricular repolarisation
- Equation in lung capillaries: Hb + 4O₂ → Hb(O₂)₄ (oxyhaemoglobin), or HHb + O₂ → HbO₂ + H⁺
- Interferons: proteins secreted by virus-infected body cells that make neighbouring cells resistant to viral replication (part of innate defence; they also activate macrophages/NK cells)
- Capillary networks of the nephron besides the glomerulus: peritubular capillaries and the vasa recta
- Dialysis: artificial removal of nitrogenous wastes (urea), excess salts and water from the blood of patients whose kidneys have failed, by diffusion across a selectively permeable membrane against dialysis fluid
- Similarity of nervous and hormonal coordination: both use chemical signalling molecules (neurotransmitters/hormones) that bind specific receptors on target cells; both maintain homeostasis and coordinate body functions
- Phyla with a brain, ventral nerve cord and segmented ganglia: Annelida and Arthropoda
- Ventricles: interconnected fluid-filled cavities inside the brain that contain cerebrospinal fluid and are continuous with the central canal of the spinal cord
- Brain stem: midbrain, pons Varolii, medulla oblongata
- Spinal cord functions: conducts impulses between the brain and the body (ascending and descending tracts); acts as a centre for spinal reflexes
- Refractory period: ensures one-way propagation of the impulse along the axon (no backward travel) and limits the maximum frequency of impulses
- Progressive motor disorder of the elderly: Parkinson's disease
- Hormone: a chemical messenger secreted by endocrine glands/cells into the blood, carried to target cells where it causes specific responses at low concentration
- Sertoli cell functions: nourish developing sperm; support spermatogenesis; form the blood–testis barrier; secrete inhibin (and androgen-binding protein); phagocytose excess cytoplasm
- Acrosome: contains hydrolytic enzymes that digest the egg's protective layers (zona pellucida) so the sperm can penetrate it
- Sperm mature (gain motility) in the epididymis
- Prenatal diagnosis methods: amniocentesis, chorionic villus sampling (also ultrasound and fetal blood sampling)
- Fetal oxygenation pathway: umbilical arteries → placenta (gas exchange with maternal blood) → umbilical vein → back to the foetus (via the ductus venosus to the inferior vena cava)
- Phylum with an endoskeleton of CaCO₃ plates: Echinodermata
- First pair of ribs is firmly fixed to the manubrium and the first thoracic vertebra, so it does not move
- Features of the vertebral column that support upright posture: four curvatures (cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral); larger lumbar vertebral bodies that carry weight; intervertebral discs absorbing shock; ligaments and muscles attached to processes
- Foot arches: distribute body weight between heel and toes, absorb shock, and give a lever for walking (spring-like)
- Ball-and-socket joints: shoulder joint and hip joint
- Pea features: many contrasting, easily distinguished characters; naturally self-pollinating but easy to cross-pollinate; short generation time; produces many seeds/offspring; easy to grow
- Pleiotropy: a single gene affecting several phenotypic characters
- Examples in man: sickle-cell anaemia; cystic fibrosis (also Marfan syndrome, phenylketonuria)
- Intergenic DNA: non-coding DNA lying between genes
- Introns: non-coding intervening sequences within a gene that are transcribed but removed from pre-mRNA by splicing
- Colour blindness: gene mutation (X-linked recessive)
- Down syndrome: trisomy (21)
- Turner syndrome: monosomy (45, XO)
- Chelating agent (EDTA): binds Mg²⁺/divalent ions so DNases cannot act, protecting the DNA
- Proteolytic enzymes: digest proteins, including histones bound to DNA
- Cold ethanol: precipitates DNA out of the aqueous solution
- Cloning vector features: an origin of replication; restriction sites for inserting DNA; selectable marker genes (e.g. antibiotic resistance)
- Primary production: the amount of light (chemical) energy converted to chemical energy in organic compounds by autotrophs in a given area and time
- Diagram: lowest-rainfall, low-altitude ellipse = B (tropical thorn scrub); low-altitude ellipse with more rainfall = D (tropical dry mixed evergreen forest)
- Mid-altitude ellipse (~1000 m, 1300–2000 mm) = A (savanna); high-altitude, high-rainfall ellipse = C (wet patana)
- Ecosystem in both the dry and intermediate zones: savanna (A)
- Endemic plant of lowland rain forest: e.g. Hora / Dun / Na (Mesua) / Bu hora (Dipterocarpus spp.)
- Critically endangered plant in the wild: e.g. Wesak orchid or another listed species
- Group contributing most to CO₂ removal: phytoplankton (marine algae and cyanobacteria)
- Major global issue affecting them: global warming/climate change, through ocean warming and ocean acidification
- Obligate anaerobe: Clostridium tetani / C. botulinum (or methanogens)
- Akinetes: thick-walled resting cells that help cyanobacteria survive unfavourable conditions and germinate when conditions improve
- Roughly spherical viruses such as SARS-CoV-2 belong to the enveloped morphological form (NIE forms: helical, polyhedral, enveloped, complex)
- Viroid: a naked, small circular single-stranded RNA molecule with no protein coat (capsid)
- Subunit vaccines: hepatitis B; human papilloma virus (also influenza, pertussis)
- Citric acid from sucrose: Aspergillus niger
- Invertase: Saccharomyces cerevisiae
- Streptomycin: Streptomyces griseus
- Putrefaction products: ammonia, hydrogen sulphide (also amines such as putrescine/cadaverine, indole, skatole)
- Coliforms are tested because pathogens are usually few, varied and hard or dangerous to detect directly, while coliforms are abundant in faeces, easy and cheap to detect, and their presence shows faecal contamination
- Takes place in four stages: glycolysis (cytosol), pyruvate oxidation and Krebs cycle (mitochondrial matrix), oxidative phosphorylation (inner mitochondrial membrane)
- Glycolysis: glucose is phosphorylated by ATP (hexokinase) → glucose-6-phosphate → fructose-1,6-bisphosphate (a second ATP is used)
- Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate splits into two 3C sugars (G3P), which are oxidised; NAD⁺ is reduced to NADH and ATP is formed by substrate-level phosphorylation
- Net result of glycolysis: 2 pyruvate, 2 ATP, 2 NADH per glucose
- In liver cells, cytosolic NADH electrons enter the mitochondria via the malate–aspartate shuttle (≈2.5 ATP each)
- Pyruvate enters the matrix by active transport and is oxidatively decarboxylated to acetyl CoA (CO₂ released, NADH formed) by the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex
- Krebs cycle: acetyl CoA (2C) + oxaloacetate (4C) → citrate (6C), which is decarboxylated and oxidised back to oxaloacetate
- Per turn: 2 CO₂, 3 NADH, 1 FADH₂, 1 ATP (via GTP, substrate-level); two turns per glucose
- Electron transport chain: NADH/FADH₂ pass electrons through protein complexes (via ubiquinone and cytochromes) on the inner membrane
- The energy released pumps H⁺ into the intermembrane space, building a proton gradient (proton-motive force)
- O₂ is the final electron acceptor and is reduced to water
- Chemiosmosis: H⁺ flows back through ATP synthase, which phosphorylates ADP → ATP (oxidative phosphorylation)
- Yield: ~2.5 ATP per NADH and ~1.5 ATP per FADH₂; total ≈ 32 ATP per glucose in liver (malate–aspartate shuttle), 30 ATP with the glycerol-phosphate shuttle
- Overall: C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ → 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + energy (ATP + heat)
- Light is the energy source for photosynthesis (absorbed by chlorophylls and carotenoids); light intensity, quality and duration affect the rate
- Photomorphogenesis: light controls the development of form
- Etiolation in darkness (long internodes, pale leaves, unexpanded leaves); de-etiolation (greening) in light via phytochrome
- Phototropism: shoots bend towards unilateral light because auxin moves to the shaded side (blue light, phototropin receptors)
- Phytochrome (Pr ⇌ Pfr) responses to red/far-red light: seed germination of small seeds (e.g. lettuce), shade-avoidance responses
- Photoperiodism: flowering controlled by the length of the night — short-day, long-day and day-neutral plants
- Light sets circadian rhythms (e.g. sleep movements of leaves, stomatal rhythms)
- Blue light causes stomatal opening (activates the H⁺ pump in guard cells)
- Light affects chloroplast movement and the arrangement and size of leaves (sun vs shade leaves)
- Light stimulates chlorophyll synthesis and anthocyanin formation
- Very strong light causes photo-oxidation and photoinhibition; carotenoids protect against this
- Light intensity affects transpiration (by opening stomata and raising leaf temperature)
- Leaves are broad and thin, giving a large surface area and short diffusion distance
- Phyllotaxy (spiral/alternate/opposite arrangement) and leaf mosaic reduce mutual shading
- Petioles of different lengths and leaves oriented perpendicular to the light
- Phototropic growth of shoots towards light; positioning by leaf movements (heliotropism)
- Tall stems, branching and crown shape; climbers and epiphytes reach the canopy
- Transparent epidermis with a thin cuticle lets light pass through
- Palisade mesophyll of elongated, tightly packed cells rich in chloroplasts sits just below the upper epidermis
- Chloroplasts move within cells to optimise light absorption
- Several pigments (chlorophyll a, b and carotenoids) widen the range of wavelengths absorbed
- Thylakoids stacked into grana, with photosystems containing antenna complexes that collect light
- Shade leaves are larger and thinner with more chlorophyll; sun leaves are thicker
- C4/CAM adaptations make use of high light intensity
- Spherical eyeball in the orbit, moved by six extrinsic muscles; protected by eyelids, lashes and tear (lacrimal) glands
- Wall has three layers: sclera/cornea, choroid, retina
- Sclera: tough white fibrous outer layer; the front part is the transparent cornea, which refracts light
- Conjunctiva covers the front of the sclera and lines the eyelids
- Choroid: pigmented, vascular middle layer that nourishes the retina and absorbs stray light
- At the front, the choroid forms the ciliary body (ciliary muscles and suspensory ligaments) and the iris, with the pupil at its centre
- Iris has circular and radial muscles that control pupil size
- Biconvex, elastic, transparent lens held by suspensory ligaments
- Retina: innermost layer with pigmented epithelium, photoreceptors (rods and cones), bipolar cells and ganglion cells
- Fovea (in the macula lutea) has only cones and gives the sharpest vision; the blind spot is where the optic nerve leaves and has no photoreceptors
- Aqueous humour (anterior chamber) and vitreous humour (posterior chamber) keep the eye's shape and help refract light
- A labelled diagram is expected
- Light is refracted by the cornea, aqueous humour, lens and vitreous humour to focus an inverted image on the retina
- Accommodation: for near objects the ciliary muscles contract, suspensory ligaments slacken and the lens becomes more convex; the reverse happens for distant objects
- The iris adjusts pupil size to the light intensity (pupillary reflex)
- Photoreceptors: rods (rhodopsin) for dim light and black-and-white vision; cones (photopsins, three types: red, green, blue) for colour and acuity
- Light changes retinal from cis to trans, activating rhodopsin; this closes Na⁺ channels, the rod hyperpolarises and releases less glutamate
- Signal passes to bipolar cells and then ganglion cells (with integration by horizontal and amacrine cells); ganglion cells fire action potentials
- Ganglion axons form the optic nerve
- At the optic chiasma, fibres from the nasal halves of the retinas cross over
- The impulses reach the lateral geniculate nuclei of the thalamus and then the primary visual cortex in the occipital lobe
- The brain interprets the image: corrects the inversion, perceives colour, shape and movement, and combines images from both eyes for binocular/stereoscopic depth perception
- The midbrain coordinates visual reflexes (eye movements, pupillary reflex)
- A ~28-day cycle made of the ovarian cycle (follicular phase, ovulation, luteal phase) and the uterine cycle (menstrual, proliferative, secretory phases)
- Hypothalamus releases GnRH, which stimulates the anterior pituitary to secrete FSH and LH
- Follicular phase: FSH and LH stimulate several follicles to grow; one becomes the dominant Graafian follicle
- Growing follicles secrete oestrogen; while levels are low it has negative feedback on GnRH/FSH/LH
- Menstrual phase (days 1–5): when oestrogen and progesterone fall, the functional layer of the endometrium is shed with blood
- Proliferative phase: rising oestrogen makes the endometrium regenerate and thicken
- High oestrogen near mid-cycle switches to positive feedback, causing an LH surge (and FSH rise)
- The LH surge triggers ovulation (~day 14): secondary oocyte released
- Luteal phase: LH converts the remaining follicle into the corpus luteum, which secretes progesterone and oestrogen
- Secretory phase: progesterone makes the endometrium more vascular and glandular, ready for implantation
- Progesterone and oestrogen exert negative feedback on the hypothalamus/pituitary, so FSH and LH fall (inhibin also suppresses FSH)
- If fertilisation does not occur, the corpus luteum degenerates into the corpus albicans, hormone levels drop and menstruation follows
- If pregnancy occurs, hCG from the embryo maintains the corpus luteum
- A graph of hormone levels against the follicle and endometrial changes is expected
- Biological nitrogen fixation: symbiotic Rhizobium in legume root nodules, Frankia; free-living Azotobacter, cyanobacteria (Anabaena–Azolla in paddy)
- Biofertilisers: Rhizobium inoculants, Azolla, cyanobacteria, phosphate-solubilising bacteria
- Mycorrhizal fungi improve the uptake of P and water
- Decomposition and nutrient recycling; composting and making organic manure
- Biological control of pests and diseases: Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt toxin), Beauveria/Metarhizium (entomopathogenic fungi), NPV viruses, Trichoderma against fungal pathogens
- Production of plant growth hormones (gibberellins from Gibberella fujikuroi)
- Silage making through lactic acid bacteria fermentation for animal fodder
- Agrobacterium tumefaciens (Ti plasmid) as a vector for producing transgenic crops (e.g. Bt crops)
- Production of biogas from farm wastes by methanogens
- Single-cell protein and probiotics for animal feed; rumen microbes digest cellulose
- Vaccines and antibiotics for livestock
- Bioremediation of agrochemical-contaminated soils
- PCR amplifies a specific DNA segment in vitro through cycles of denaturation, annealing with primers and extension by Taq polymerase, producing millions of copies
- Amplifying genes for cloning and genetic engineering
- Diagnosis of infectious diseases (e.g. RT-PCR for COVID-19, HIV, TB, dengue) even from very small samples
- Detection of genetic disorders and carrier screening (e.g. sickle cell, thalassaemia, cystic fibrosis), including prenatal diagnosis
- Forensic science: DNA fingerprinting/profiling from tiny samples of blood, hair or semen at crime scenes
- Paternity and relationship testing
- DNA sequencing and genome projects
- Studying ancient DNA (fossils, mummies) and evolutionary relationships
- Detection of GMOs and food authenticity testing
- Detecting cancer-related mutations and monitoring cancer
- Identification and classification of microbes and species (DNA barcoding), including environmental samples
- Site-directed mutagenesis and research on gene expression (quantitative PCR)
- Coastal wetland ecosystems in intertidal areas, often behind mangroves or around lagoons and estuaries
- Found mainly in the dry zone, e.g. Mannar, Puttalam, Jaffna peninsula, Hambantota (Bundala)
- Soil is waterlogged, saline and often high in salt
- Vegetation is dominated by salt-tolerant halophytes: herbs, shrubs and grasses (e.g. Salicornia, Suaeda, Halosarcia)
- Plants show succulence and other adaptations for salt and water stress
- Habitat for crustaceans, molluscs, fish fry and migratory wading birds (important bird habitat)
- Functions: coastal protection, nutrient cycling, filtering pollutants, carbon storage, nursery grounds
- Threats: conversion to salterns and prawn farms, land filling, pollution, development
- Study of heritable changes in gene expression that do not involve changes in DNA base sequence
- DNA methylation (methyl groups added to cytosine) usually silences genes
- Histone modification: acetylation loosens chromatin and promotes transcription; deacetylation/methylation can condense it and repress transcription
- Chromatin remodelling changes whether DNA can be reached by transcription machinery
- Non-coding RNAs (miRNA, siRNA) also regulate gene expression
- Epigenetic marks can pass through cell divisions and sometimes to offspring
- Examples: X-chromosome inactivation (Barr body), genomic imprinting, cell differentiation
- Influenced by environment (diet, stress, toxins); linked to cancer and other diseases
- Ascomycota – asexual: conidia produced at the tips of conidiophores; budding in yeasts; fragmentation
- Ascomycota – sexual: hyphae of compatible mating types meet; plasmogamy forms a dikaryotic (n+n) stage of ascogenous hyphae
- Karyogamy in the ascus forms a diploid nucleus, which undergoes meiosis (usually followed by mitosis) to produce 8 ascospores in an ascus
- Asci are often borne in ascocarps (fruiting bodies, e.g. cup fungi); ascospores are released and germinate into new haploid mycelium
- OR Dengue vector control: the vector is Aedes aegypti / A. albopictus; biological control uses natural enemies to reduce mosquito populations
- Larvivorous fish (e.g. guppy, Gambusia) in water containers
- Bacillus thuringiensis israelensis (Bti) toxins kill larvae; copepods (Mesocyclops) eat larvae
- Wolbachia-infected mosquitoes reduce dengue virus transmission; sterile insect technique; predatory Toxorhynchites larvae
Scan notes: All 50 MCQs and all Paper II questions were legible. Figures (Q49 food web; P2 2B life-cycle sketch; P2 4B rainfall/altitude ellipse diagram) were read from the page images. The 'Maha madu' option in MCQ 35 was taken as given. Q17 (N and P vs Mg and S) is ambiguous by NIE deficiency tables.
G.C.E. (Advanced Level) — Biology
Current syllabus (2019 onward) · Re-set practice paper
Every question tests the same concept as question of the same number in the 2021 (2022) paper, re-written by MEDVision. Source coverage: Paper I + full Paper II.
A student boils each of five sugar solutions with Benedict's reagent without first hydrolysing them. Which solution will remain blue, showing that the sugar is non-reducing?
- 1Fructose
- 2Lactose
- 3Sucrose
- 4Maltose
- 5Glucose
The fluid mosaic model describes the plasma membrane as a 'fluid'. Which statement best accounts for this property?
- 1The membrane is built mainly from carbohydrates with a few embedded proteins.
- 2Integral proteins are held only loosely on the membrane surface by ionic attractions.
- 3Individual phospholipid molecules can drift sideways within their own layer of the bilayer.
- 4Phospholipid heads bind directly to actin filaments to hold the cell in shape.
- 5Glycolipids form channels through which neighbouring cells exchange signals.
Which of the following pairs an organelle with a role it actually performs in a plant cell?
- 1Glyoxysome - exocytosis of cellular waste
- 2Golgi apparatus - synthesis of ribosomal RNA
- 3Smooth endoplasmic reticulum - synthesis of secretory proteins
- 4Peroxisome - a step of photorespiration, together with chloroplasts and mitochondria
- 5Nucleolus - synthesis of steroid hormones
The following events take place during meiosis I. P - Bivalents become aligned on the equatorial plate. Q - Homologous chromosomes pair closely through a synaptonemal complex. R - Centrosomes separate and the spindle forms. S - Segments are exchanged between non-sister chromatids. In which order do they occur?
- 1Q, R, S, P
- 2Q, S, R, P
- 3R, Q, S, P
- 4Q, S, P, R
- 5S, Q, R, P
Which statement about the photosynthetic pigments of a flowering plant is correct?
- 1Chlorophyll a absorbs mostly green light and reflects red light.
- 2Chlorophylls and carotenoids are held in protein complexes within the thylakoid membranes.
- 3Carotenoids are dissolved in the stroma of the chloroplast.
- 4Chlorophyll b is the pigment that protects the chloroplast from damage by excess light.
- 5Carotenoids absorb exactly the same wavelengths as chlorophyll a.
Which statement about the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis is correct?
- 1Cyclic electron flow involves photosystem II only.
- 2Cyclic electron flow produces both ATP and NADPH.
- 3Photosystem I replaces its lost electrons directly by splitting water.
- 4Electrons travel from photosystem I to photosystem II through an electron transport chain.
- 5Electrons from the primary acceptor of photosystem I are used, via ferredoxin, to reduce NADP+ to NADPH.
Which observation was a cornerstone of the explanation of evolution by natural selection put forward by Darwin and Wallace?
- 1Organs that are used more become better developed during an individual's life.
- 2Characteristics acquired during a lifetime are inherited by the offspring.
- 3Populations tend to produce far more young than the available resources can support.
- 4Mutations in DNA provide the new variation on which selection acts.
- 5Alleles separate during gamete formation.
Consider three features: P - a circular chromosome; Q - DNA associated with histone proteins; R - more than one kind of RNA polymerase. Which list gives, in order, a genus showing P, a genus showing Q and a genus showing R?
- 1Paramecium, Nostoc and Halobacterium
- 2Halobacterium, Nostoc and Rhizobium
- 3Escherichia, Paramecium and Halobacterium
- 4Nostoc, Escherichia and Paramecium
- 5Rhizobium, Streptococcus and Paramecium
Statement A: Among the bryophytes, hornworts are the group most closely related to the vascular plants. Statement B: Lycophytes and ferns disperse by means of spores. Which of the following is correct?
- 1Only A is correct.
- 2Only B is correct.
- 3Both are correct and B explains A.
- 4Both are correct but B does not explain A.
- 5Both are incorrect.
Which list gives, in order, a protist with a contractile vacuole, a protist with a pellicle, a protist with a multicellular thallus and a protist with a cell wall?
- 1Ulva, Amoeba, Paramecium and Gelidium
- 2Paramecium, Amoeba, Ulva and diatoms
- 3Amoeba, Euglena, Sargassum and diatoms
- 4Euglena, Sargassum, Ulva and Amoeba
- 5Gelidium, Paramecium, Amoeba and Ulva
Which of the following pairs of features can both occur in members of one animal phylum? P - Water vascular system present; heart absent. Q - Jointed appendages present; heart absent. R - Digestive cavity with a single opening; tentacles around the mouth. S - Anus absent; reproduction by fission or budding.
- 1P and Q only
- 2P and R only
- 3P, R and S only
- 4Q, R and S only
- 5P, Q and R only
Which statement correctly describes companion cells in the phloem of flowering plants?
- 1They lose their nuclei as they mature.
- 2They have thick, lignified secondary walls.
- 3They lie beside the sieve cells of conifers.
- 4They are linked to sieve-tube elements by many plasmodesmata and help load and unload sugars.
- 5They are dead at maturity and give the phloem mechanical support.
Which statement about the form and arrangement of leaves is correct?
- 1In a dim forest understorey, steeply vertical leaves capture light most efficiently.
- 2Plants of arctic, alpine and very dry habitats tend to bear the smallest leaves.
- 3The palisade and spongy mesophyll layers are clearly distinguishable in maize leaves.
- 4Net venation identifies every flowering plant.
- 5The pattern in which leaves are attached around a stem is called leaf orientation.
The following events occur at a source according to the pressure-flow hypothesis. P - Water enters the sieve tube from neighbouring xylem by osmosis. Q - Sucrose is loaded into the sieve tube. R - Hydrostatic pressure inside the sieve tube rises. S - The water potential inside the sieve tube falls. In which order do they occur?
- 1Q, P, S, R
- 2Q, S, P, R
- 3S, Q, R, P
- 4P, Q, S, R
- 5Q, S, R, P
A tomato plant is grown with its roots in a complete nutrient solution. For which of the following elements is the atmosphere its only source?
- 1Nitrogen
- 2Oxygen
- 3Carbon
- 4Hydrogen
- 5Sulphur
Plant X: the sporophyte is dominant, and the tiny gametophytes develop inside the spores and depend partly on food reserves from the sporophyte. Plant Y: the sporophyte is dominant, but both generations are photosynthetic and live independently. X and Y are, respectively,
- 1Cycas sp. and Selaginella sp.
- 2Selaginella sp. and Pogonatum sp.
- 3Selaginella sp. and Nephrolepis sp.
- 4Nephrolepis sp. and Selaginella sp.
- 5Cycas sp. and Nephrolepis sp.
During a long drought, guard cells lose K+ and the stomata close. Which plant hormone, whose synthesis rises under water stress, brings this about?
- 1Ethylene
- 2Cytokinin
- 3Gibberellin
- 4Abscisic acid
- 5Indole-3-acetic acid
Which tissue is correctly matched with a place where it is found in the human body?
- 1Dense regular connective tissue - lining of the trachea
- 2Simple squamous epithelium - lining of the oesophagus
- 3Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium - lining of the stomach
- 4Stratified squamous epithelium - lining of the oral cavity
- 5Simple cuboidal epithelium - lining of the small intestine
In which of the following does release of hormone (i) stimulate response (ii)? P - (i) Cholecystokinin, (ii) secretion of gastric juice. Q - (i) Gastrin, (ii) secretion of gastric juice. R - (i) Secretin, (ii) release of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas.
- 1Q only
- 2R only
- 3P and Q only
- 4Q and R only
- 5P, Q and R
In a patient, the right atrioventricular valve fails to close completely. Which effect is most likely?
- 1Blood leaks from the left ventricle into the left atrium during ventricular systole.
- 2The volume of blood pumped to the lungs in each beat falls.
- 3Less blood enters the right atrium from the venae cavae.
- 4The bicuspid valve is forced open during atrial systole.
- 5Systolic pressure in the aorta rises.
In which of the following is (ii) a direct result of (i) during the homeostatic control of breathing? P - (i) Arterial CO2 concentration rises; (ii) H+ concentration of the blood rises. Q - (i) Chemoreceptors in the carotid bodies detect raised CO2; (ii) impulses reach the medulla oblongata. R - (i) The medulla detects a fall in the pH of cerebrospinal fluid; (ii) breathing becomes slower and shallower.
- 1P only
- 2P and Q only
- 3P and R only
- 4Q and R only
- 5P, Q and R
Which statement about human B lymphocytes is correct?
- 1They complete their maturation in the thymus.
- 2They are the main effectors of cell-mediated immunity.
- 3Each B cell carries many identical antigen receptors on its plasma membrane.
- 4They can differentiate into cytotoxic T cells.
- 5They take no part in immunity that follows a natural infection.
The excretory structures of an earthworm, a crab and a planarian are, respectively,
- 1Malpighian tubules, green glands and nephridia
- 2nephridia, salt glands and body surface
- 3flame cells, Malpighian tubules and nephridia
- 4nephridia, green glands and flame cells
- 5body surface, green glands and flame cells
Which statement about the human brain is correct?
- 1The primary visual cortex lies in the frontal lobes.
- 2The corpus callosum joins the left and right halves of the cerebellum.
- 3The fourth ventricle lies within the midbrain.
- 4The brainstem develops from the embryonic midbrain and hindbrain.
- 5The thalamus is the main centre controlling the sleep-wake cycle.
After a neuron's membrane is depolarised beyond threshold, the following occur. P - The inside of the membrane becomes positive relative to the outside. Q - Voltage-gated K+ channels open and K+ diffuses out. R - Voltage-gated Na+ channels open and Na+ diffuses in. S - The membrane returns towards its resting polarity. In which order do they occur?
- 1P, R, Q, S
- 2R, P, Q, S
- 3R, Q, P, S
- 4Q, R, P, S
- 5R, S, Q, P
Which hormone is correctly paired with its main function?
- 1Cortisol - immediate fight-or-flight response
- 2Oxytocin - stimulates milk synthesis in the alveoli
- 3Thyroxine - raises the basal metabolic rate
- 4Melatonin - stimulates antibody production
- 5LH - acts on Sertoli cells to support spermatogenesis
At which stage is the human oocyte released at ovulation arrested, completing its division only after a sperm enters it?
- 1Prophase I
- 2Metaphase I
- 3Anaphase II
- 4Metaphase II
- 5Telophase I
Which statement about the amnion in human development is correct?
- 1It forms the main fetal contribution to the placenta.
- 2It secretes hCG, which maintains the corpus luteum.
- 3It forms a fluid-filled sac that completely encloses the embryo.
- 4It is the source of the primordial germ cells.
- 5It gives rise to the umbilical blood vessels.
As an infant learns to hold up its head and later to sit and stand, two secondary curvatures develop in its vertebral column. These curvatures are convex anteriorly and are found in the
- 1thoracic and sacral regions.
- 2cervical and lumbar regions.
- 3thoracic and lumbar regions.
- 4cervical and thoracic regions.
- 5lumbar and sacral regions.
Which statement about the human skeleton is correct?
- 1Nodding of the head occurs at the joint between the axis and the occipital bone.
- 2All eight carpal bones articulate with the radius at the wrist joint.
- 3Osteoarthritis is defined by a loss of bone mineral density.
- 4The maxilla is the only movable bone of the skull.
- 5The patella articulates with the lower end of the femur.
In a plant species, some individuals have grey seed coats and others have white seed coats. To explain how this one character is inherited, which of the following would be sufficient?
- 1A dihybrid cross
- 2A monohybrid cross
- 3Both a monohybrid and a dihybrid cross
- 4Knowledge of codominance
- 5Knowledge of sex linkage
In eukaryotic chromosomes, (i) non-coding sequences found inside genes and (ii) DNA lying between genes, much of which has no known function, are called, respectively,
- 1exons and heterochromatin
- 2euchromatin and introns
- 3introns and intergenic DNA
- 4heterochromatin and intergenic DNA
- 5introns and euchromatin
Which statement about the synthesis of polypeptides is correct?
- 1The mRNA base sequence is identical to that of the DNA template strand, except that U replaces T.
- 2Sixty-two of the sixty-four codons specify amino acids.
- 3A eukaryotic ribosome cannot translate a bacterial mRNA because the genetic code differs.
- 4The codon AUG starts translation and also specifies methionine.
- 5The anticodon of every tRNA molecule is AUG.
A molecular biologist prepares a diagram showing where several restriction enzymes cut a plasmid. Such a map is most useful for
- 1detecting tumours.
- 2settling disputed parentage.
- 3counting gene copy numbers in a genome.
- 4working out evolutionary relationships between species.
- 5designing a cloning vector with suitable insertion sites.
Which group consists entirely of animals typical of the arctic tundra?
- 1Moose, lynx and brown bear
- 2Musk ox, arctic fox and caribou
- 3Reindeer, Siberian tiger and wolf
- 4Polar bear, moose and arctic hare
- 5Siberian tiger, snowy owl and musk ox
Which pair gives, in order, a relict species and a species endemic to Sri Lanka?
- 1Acanthus ilicifolius and Loris tardigradus
- 2Panicum maximum and Garcinia quaesita
- 3Eichhornia crassipes and Dipterocarpus zeylanicus
- 4Lingula sp. and Macaca sinica
- 5Lantana camara and Gallus lafayettii
Which set gives, in order, a gas that depletes stratospheric ozone, a gas that causes acid rain and a greenhouse gas?
- 1Carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide and sulphur dioxide
- 2Sulphur dioxide, methyl bromide and nitrogen
- 3Chlorofluorocarbon, sulphur dioxide and methane
- 4Sulphur hexafluoride, nitrogen dioxide and hydrofluorocarbon
- 5Carbon dioxide, halon and sulphur dioxide
An antibiotic binds to bacterial RNA polymerase and blocks transcription. Which antibiotic acts in this way?
- 1Tetracycline
- 2Penicillin
- 3Rifampicin
- 4Streptomycin
- 5Daptomycin
Which statement about soil microorganisms is correct?
- 1Phosphate-solubilising bacteria release alkaline compounds to free phosphate.
- 2Actinomycetes decompose compost most efficiently in the absence of oxygen.
- 3The nitrogen-fixing partner of Azolla is a Rhizobium species.
- 4Rhizosphere microbes, including some plant-pathogenic fungi, use organic compounds exuded by roots.
- 5Azotobacter is used industrially to produce vitamin C.
Which process belongs to the primary treatment of industrial wastewater?
- 1Aeration of activated sludge
- 2Passing the effluent over a trickling filter
- 3Skimming off oil and grease
- 4Chlorination of the effluent
- 5Anaerobic digestion of sludge
Which of the following is/are common to both alcoholic fermentation and lactic acid fermentation? (A) A net gain of two ATP per glucose molecule from glycolysis. (B) Decarboxylation of pyruvate with release of CO2. (C) Regeneration of NAD+ by transfer of hydrogen from NADH to an organic molecule. (D) Formation of two pyruvate molecules from each glucose molecule. (E) Ethanal acting as the final hydrogen acceptor.
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3A and B only
- 4C and D only
- 5Any other response or combination
Which of the following occur(s) during primary growth of a root? (A) Cells of the root apical meristem divide, producing cells towards the tip and away from it. (B) Cells displaced towards the tip become part of the root cap. (C) A cork cambium forms periderm. (D) Cells left behind the meristem elongate and push the root tip through the soil. (E) An interfascicular cambium develops between the vascular bundles.
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3A and B only
- 4C and D only
- 5Any other response or combination
Which of the following statements about vertebrate circulation is/are correct? (A) No vertebrate with a single circulation possesses lungs. (B) In a fish, blood leaving the gills reaches the body tissues at low pressure. (C) A three-chambered heart is typical of single circulation. (D) In double circulation, blood passes through the lungs twice in each complete circuit of the body. (E) Myoglobin is absent from the muscles of fishes.
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3A and B only
- 4C and D only
- 5Any other response or combination
Which of the following is/are true of sensory receptors? (A) They are specialised cells or neuron endings linked to the nervous system. (B) They respond only to stimuli originating outside the body. (C) They can amplify the energy of a stimulus. (D) Their response may decline when a stimulus continues unchanged. (E) They are modified exocrine glands.
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3A and B only
- 4C and D only
- 5Any other response or combination
Which of the following is/are true of Leydig cells? (A) They lie in the interstitial tissue between the seminiferous tubules. (B) They secrete testosterone in response to LH. (C) They secrete inhibin. (D) They form the blood-testis barrier. (E) They engulf the residual cytoplasm shed by developing sperm.
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3A and B only
- 4C and D only
- 5Any other response or combination
Which of the following could explain the occurrence and the many symptoms of cystic fibrosis? (A) Y-linked inheritance. (B) X-linked recessive inheritance. (C) Inheritance of a recessive allele carried on an autosome. (D) A single defective gene affecting several organ systems (pleiotropy). (E) Autosomal dominant inheritance.
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3A and B only
- 4C and D only
- 5Any other response or combination
Which of the following ecological pyramids could be inverted? (A) Pyramid of energy of any ecosystem. (B) Pyramid of numbers of an open-ocean plankton community. (C) Pyramid of biomass of an open-ocean plankton community. (D) Pyramid of numbers of a host and its parasites. (E) Pyramid of biomass of a tropical rain forest.
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3A and B only
- 4C and D only
- 5Any other response or combination
Which feature is/are correctly matched with a microorganism? (A) Helical capsid symmetry - tobacco mosaic virus. (B) Obligate anaerobic respiration - Pseudomonas. (C) Transmitted by leafhoppers and multiplying in phloem - phytoplasma. (D) Lacking a cell wall and reproducing by budding and binary fission - Mycoplasma. (E) Photoheterotrophic nutrition - purple sulphur bacteria.
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3A and B only
- 4C and D only
- 5Any other response or combination
Which of the following is/are true of stem cells? (A) They are unspecialised cells. (B) They can renew themselves, producing more cells of the same type. (C) They always divide faster than other body cells. (D) They can give rise to specialised cell types. (E) They are found only in embryos.
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3A and B only
- 4C and D only
- 5Any other response or combination
Which of the following measures would help control both the dengue vector and the filaria vector? (A) Clearing blocked roof gutters. (B) Cleaning drains holding stagnant, polluted water. (C) Eliminating places where mosquitoes can breed. (D) Introducing larva-eating fish such as guppies into water bodies. (E) Sealing cracked septic tanks.
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3A and B only
- 4C and D only
- 5Any other response or combination
(i) Roughly how long ago did life first appear on Earth?
(ii) Briefly explain what biologists mean by (a) metabolism, (b) growth and (c) development as features of living organisms.
(iii) (a) Name three main sectors through which human food supply can be maintained sustainably. (b) What is the main driver of the excessive use of Earth's natural resources?
(iv) During which geological eon did oxygen first begin to build up in the atmosphere?
(v) Name the geological era in which each of the following occurred: (a) the first seed plants appeared; (b) plants first colonised land; (c) gymnosperms were the dominant plants.
(i) Define the classification of organisms.
(ii) List the main kinds of evidence used in modern systematics to establish relationships among organisms.
(iii) Give four structural features found only in arthropods.
(iv) Give three structural features that are unique to mammals.
(v) Name the main physiological feature shared by birds and mammals.
(i) Name the phylum of seedless plants that shares the most recent common ancestor with seed plants, and give one genus from it.
(ii) Give two features by which microphylls can be distinguished from megaphylls.
(iii) Name one structure found in the sporophytes of both bryophytes and angiosperms (do not give organelles, cells, stems or leaves).
(iv) Which structural feature is used to separate plants into two major groups?
(v) Describe the cell wall composition of members of (a) Bacteria, (b) Archaea and (c) Eukarya.
(i) (a) Which property of water allows dissolved minerals to be carried up through the xylem? (b) Name one human protein with a protective (defensive) function. (c) Name the monomer of the structural polysaccharide found in fungal cell walls.
(ii) Name an event that takes place in mitosis and in meiosis II but not in meiosis I.
(iii) (a) In C4 plants, where is CO2 first fixed? (b) Give two reasons why PEP carboxylase fixes CO2 more efficiently than RuBP carboxylase.
(iv) (a) Define secondary growth in plants. (b) Apart from light, name two factors that cause stomata to open. (c) Describe the soil in which Nepenthes typically grows.
(v) (a) What is the fate of the triploid nucleus formed by double fertilisation in angiosperms? (b) Where exactly are statoliths located in a plant?
(i) (a) Name the protein-carbohydrate complex found in the matrix of cartilage and the cells that secrete it. (b) Give one important function of cartilage other than support.
(ii) Explain the meaning of (a) protein sparing, (b) non-essential fatty acids and (c) a balanced diet.
(iii) Give two examples of non-essential amino acids.
(iv) State the normal value in a healthy adult of (a) blood pH, (b) the life span of red blood cells and (c) resting blood pressure.
(v) Explain the meaning of (a) the cardiac cycle and (b) hypertension.
(i) (a) Define anatomical dead space. (b) Give its approximate volume in a healthy adult.
(ii) Explain why nervous coordination is faster than endocrine coordination.
(iii) (a) Name the three major functional areas of the human cerebral cortex. (b) Give two differences between the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system.
(iv) Name the disease that causes progressive mental decline with confusion and memory loss.
(v) (a) Give one advantage of binocular vision. (b) State the function of the Eustachian tube.
(i) Name a phylum whose members have a hydrostatic skeleton.
(ii) (a) Give one function of the fontanelles and one function of the sutures of the human skull. (b) Which human vertebrae have a foramen in each transverse process? (c) Name two hinge joints of the human lower limb.
(iii) Name a group of animals that use salt glands for excretion.
(iv) (a) Name two substances secreted into the filtrate by the distal convoluted tubule. (b) Name the two sites in the kidney where ADH acts.
(v) Outline the roles of helper T cells in the immune response.
(i) What causes Type 1 diabetes mellitus?
(ii) Draw a flow chart showing the feedback loop by which oxytocin acts on the mammary glands during breastfeeding.
(iii) Give two advantages of asexual reproduction in invertebrates.
(iv) (a) Starting from a spermatogonial stem cell, list in order the stages in the formation of human sperm. (b) Which part of the blastocyst gives rise to the fetal portion of the placenta?
(v) (a) Describe, in words or as a sketch graph, how the blood levels of oestrogen and progesterone change over a typical 28-day cycle. (b) Describe how a Depo-Provera injection prevents pregnancy.
(i) (a) Define microaerophilic organisms. (b) Name one microaerophilic bacterium.
(ii) Explain why heterocysts have thick walls.
(iii) (a) Name two methods of sterilisation by dry heat used in a microbiology laboratory. (b) Name two methods used to disinfect drinking water.
(iv) Name one fungus and one bacterium that cause food intoxication.
(v) (a) Give two differences between subunit vaccines and live attenuated vaccines. (b) List, in order, the two stages in making vinegar from fruit juice, and name a microorganism used in each.
(i) Name the two kinds of signals that bring about epigenetic changes.
(ii) Give the main function of a signal peptide in a polypeptide.
(iii) A small single-stranded RNA folds into a cloverleaf shape. One end carries the sequence CCA-3', and a loop on the opposite side carries three unpaired bases. Identify the molecule and name (a) the 3' CCA end and (b) the loop with three exposed bases.
(iv) Which property of the genetic code allows a gene taken from one organism to produce the same polypeptide in another organism?
(v) Give two methods of introducing foreign DNA into plant cells.
(i) Name the three biomes that lie closest to the equator.
(ii) (a) Name the two dominant vegetation types of villus. (b) Name two places in Sri Lanka where villus are common.
(iii) Define (a) a population, (b) a trophic level and (c) a food chain.
(iv) (a) Name two invasive alien plants found in Sri Lankan reservoirs. (b) Name two seagrass genera common in Sri Lanka.
(v) Explain why coral reefs are described as the rain forests of the sea.
(i) Give five important ecosystem services provided by biodiversity.
(ii) Give five human activities that lead to desertification.
(iii) (a) Distinguish between environmental legislation and environmental policy. (b) Name one key law for environmental conservation in Sri Lanka.
(iv) State the main principle on which plant tissue culture is based.
(v) Explain how adding sugar preserves food.
Describe the components of a nucleotide, and explain how nucleotides are linked to form the sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA.
Describe the structure of DNA as proposed in the Watson and Crick model, with a labelled diagram.
Give an account of the structure and functions of ground tissue in plants, with diagrams of its cell types.
Describe the structure of the human pancreas, covering both its exocrine and endocrine parts.
Explain how the human pancreas contributes to the digestion of food.
Describe the innate (non-specific) defences of the human body against invading pathogens.
Explain the essential features of a cloning vector.
Outline the chemical changes that take place in food when it is spoiled by microorganisms.
Write a short note on the rules of binomial nomenclature.
Write a short note on the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and its significance for evolution.
Write a short note on the general characteristics of a fish species suitable for aquaculture.
Answer key — this booklet
Answer key — original 2021 (2022) paper (MEDVision model answers)
For students working from the original paper. Shaded cells: check against the official marking scheme (amber = likely, red = disputed).
Paper I — reviews
Paper II — marking points
- Life originated about 3.5–4.0 billion years ago (accept ~3.5 bya)
- Metabolism: the sum of all chemical reactions (anabolic and catabolic) in an organism
- Growth: an irreversible increase in dry mass/size, usually through cell division and enlargement
- Development: the progressive changes in form and function during an organism's life cycle (incl. differentiation)
- Sustainable food production: agriculture, animal husbandry/livestock, fisheries/aquaculture (sustainably managed)
- Overuse of resources is driven mainly by the rapidly growing human population and its rising consumption/demand
- Atmospheric O₂ started to rise in the Proterozoic eon (~2.7–2.4 bya, oxygen revolution by cyanobacteria)
- Colonisation of land by plants: Palaeozoic era
- Dominance of gymnosperms: Mesozoic era
- Appearance of first seed plants: Palaeozoic era (late Devonian)
- Classification: grouping organisms into categories/taxa in a hierarchy based on similarities and differences (relationships)
- Modern systematics uses evolutionary (phylogenetic) relationships based on morphology/anatomy, embryology, cytology, biochemistry and molecular data (DNA/RNA/protein sequences)
- Arthropod-only features: chitinous exoskeleton, jointed appendages, haemocoel/open circulation with dorsal heart, compound eyes, segmented body in tagmata
- (Any four) e.g. jointed legs; chitinous cuticle exoskeleton moulted (ecdysis); compound eyes; tagmatisation
- Unique mammalian features: hair/fur, mammary glands, external ear pinna, diaphragm, three middle-ear ossicles, sweat/sebaceous glands, single dentary bone in lower jaw (any three)
- Common physiological feature of birds and mammals: endothermy/homeothermy (constant body temperature)
- Phylum Pterophyta (ferns and allies, Monilophyta) – e.g. Nephrolepis / Pteris / Adiantum
- Microphylls are small, spine- or scale-like leaves
- Microphylls have a single unbranched vein (vascular strand); no leaf gap in the stele
- Common structure to bryophyte and angiosperm sporophytes: sporangium / spore-producing structure (or foot / embryo-derived tissue – accept tissue such as epidermis or stomata as per key)
- Plants are divided into two major groups by presence or absence of vascular tissue (vascular vs non-vascular plants)
- Bacteria: cell wall of peptidoglycan (murein)
- Archaea: no peptidoglycan; polysaccharides/proteins (pseudopeptidoglycan in some)
- Eukarya: cellulose (plants/algae), chitin (fungi); animals lack a cell wall
- Cohesion (and adhesion) of water molecules via hydrogen bonds allows mineral transport in xylem
- Defensive protein: antibody/immunoglobulin (or fibrinogen, thrombin, interferon)
- Monomer of chitin: N-acetylglucosamine
- Separation of sister chromatids (centromere splitting) happens in mitosis and meiosis II but not meiosis I
- In C4 plants CO₂ is first fixed in mesophyll cells (cytoplasm) by PEP carboxylase
- PEP carboxylase has a higher affinity for CO₂ than RuBisCO and no affinity for O₂, so it does not cause photorespiration and works at low CO₂
- Secondary growth: increase in girth/thickness of stems and roots produced by lateral meristems (vascular cambium and cork cambium)
- Factors opening stomata apart from light: low internal CO₂ concentration in leaf; circadian rhythm (internal clock); adequate water/turgor; K⁺ uptake by guard cells
- Nepenthes grows in nitrogen-poor (nutrient-deficient, often acidic/boggy) soil
- Triploid nucleus divides to form endosperm, which nourishes the embryo
- Statoliths (amyloplasts) are located in root cap columella cells (and endodermis of shoots)
- Matrix of cartilage contains chondroitin sulphate (protein–carbohydrate complex), secreted by chondroblasts/chondrocytes
- Other function of cartilage: reduces friction / absorbs shock at joints (smooth articular surfaces), and growth in length of long bones
- Protein sparing: use of carbohydrates and fats as energy sources so that proteins are reserved for growth and repair
- Non-essential fatty acids: fatty acids the body can synthesise, so they need not be supplied in the diet
- Balanced diet: a diet containing all nutrients in correct proportions and amounts to meet the body's needs
- Non-essential amino acids: e.g. alanine, glycine, glutamic acid, aspartic acid, serine, proline (any two)
- Normal blood pH: 7.35–7.45 (≈7.4)
- Life span of erythrocytes: about 120 days
- Resting blood pressure: about 120/80 mmHg
- Cardiac cycle: the sequence of events (contraction and relaxation of atria and ventricles) in one heartbeat, ~0.8 s
- Hypertension: persistently high arterial blood pressure at rest (about 140/90 mmHg or above)
- Anatomical dead space: volume of air in the conducting airways (nose to terminal bronchioles) not involved in gas exchange
- Volume: about 150 ml
- Nervous coordination is faster because impulses travel rapidly along neurons as electrical signals directly to target cells, whereas hormones travel slowly in the blood
- Three functional areas of cerebral cortex: sensory areas, motor areas, association areas
- Sympathetic: thoracolumbar origin; short preganglionic, long postganglionic fibres; noradrenaline at effector; prepares for 'fight or flight'
- Parasympathetic: craniosacral origin; long preganglionic, short postganglionic fibres; acetylcholine at effector; 'rest and digest'
- Disease: Alzheimer's disease
- Binocular vision gives depth perception (3-D vision) and accurate distance judgement
- Eustachian tube equalises air pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane (connects middle ear to pharynx)
- Phylum with hydrostatic skeleton: Annelida (or Cnidaria / Nematoda)
- Fontanelles: allow skull to compress/mould during birth and allow brain growth after birth
- Sutures: immovable joints that firmly unite skull bones (and allow growth at edges in young)
- Vertebrae with a foramen in each transverse process: cervical vertebrae
- Hinge joints in lower limb: knee joint, ankle joint, interphalangeal joints of toes (any two)
- Animals with salt glands: marine birds and marine reptiles (e.g. sea turtles)
- Substances secreted by DCT: H⁺, K⁺ (also NH₄⁺, drugs)
- ADH acts on distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct, increasing water permeability (aquaporins)
- Helper T cells: recognise antigens presented on class II MHC by antigen-presenting cells
- They secrete cytokines that activate B cells (humoral response) and cytotoxic T cells (cell-mediated response)
- They stimulate clonal proliferation and memory-cell formation
- Type 1 diabetes: autoimmune destruction of insulin-secreting β-cells of the pancreatic islets, so no insulin is produced
- Oxytocin flow chart (positive feedback): suckling stimulates nipple sensory receptors → impulses to hypothalamus → posterior pituitary releases oxytocin → contraction of myoepithelial cells around alveoli → milk ejection → continued suckling → more oxytocin
- Advantages of asexual reproduction: no mate required; rapid production of many offspring; well-adapted genotype preserved in a stable environment; less energy used (any two)
- Spermatogenesis sequence: spermatogonial stem cell → spermatogonium → (mitosis) primary spermatocyte → (meiosis I) secondary spermatocytes → (meiosis II) spermatids → (spermiogenesis/differentiation) spermatozoa
- Fetal portion of placenta develops from the trophoblast (chorion) of the blastocyst
- Oestrogen: low early, rises to a peak just before ovulation (~day 12–13), falls, then a second smaller rise in luteal phase (~day 21), falls before menstruation
- Progesterone: low in follicular phase, rises after ovulation to peak around day 21, falls by day 28 as corpus luteum degenerates
- Depo-Provera (medroxyprogesterone injection): inhibits ovulation by suppressing GnRH/FSH/LH secretion
- It thickens cervical mucus (blocking sperm) and thins the endometrium (preventing implantation)
- Microaerophiles: organisms that need oxygen but only at concentrations lower than in air (about 2–10%), since normal O₂ levels are toxic
- Example: Campylobacter jejuni (or Helicobacter pylori)
- Heterocysts have thick walls to keep out O₂, protecting the O₂-sensitive nitrogenase enzyme
- Dry-heat sterilisation: hot-air oven; flaming/red heating (incineration) of loops (any two)
- Disinfection of drinking water: chlorination; UV irradiation; ozonation (any two)
- Food intoxication: fungal – Aspergillus flavus (aflatoxin); bacterial – Clostridium botulinum or Staphylococcus aureus
- Subunit vaccines contain only antigenic parts of the pathogen and cannot replicate; live attenuated vaccines contain whole, weakened, living pathogens that multiply
- Subunit vaccines are safer (no reversion to virulence) but less immunogenic and usually need adjuvants/boosters; live attenuated give strong, long-lasting immunity
- Vinegar step 1: alcoholic fermentation of fruit-juice sugars to ethanol – Saccharomyces cerevisiae
- Vinegar step 2: oxidation of ethanol to acetic acid – Acetobacter aceti (or Gluconobacter)
- Signals for epigenetics: environmental signals and developmental (internal) signals
- Signal peptide directs the polypeptide to a destination – e.g. to the ER for secretion/membrane insertion or to a specific organelle
- Molecule described: transfer RNA (tRNA)
- (a) amino-acid attachment site (3′ CCA end / acceptor stem)
- (b) anticodon (anticodon loop)
- Property: the genetic code is universal (nearly the same in all organisms)
- Methods of introducing DNA into plant cells: Agrobacterium tumefaciens Ti-plasmid mediated transfer; gene gun (biolistics/microprojectile bombardment); electroporation of protoplasts; microinjection (any two)
- Biomes nearest the equator: tropical forest (rain forest), savanna, desert
- Villus dominant vegetation: grasses/sedges (herbaceous marsh vegetation) and aquatic plants (floating/submerged hydrophytes)
- Villus locations: Mahaweli flood plains, e.g. Somawathiya, Wasgamuwa, Trikonamadu / Polonnaruwa–Manampitiya area (any two)
- Population: a group of individuals of the same species living in a particular area at the same time and interbreeding
- Trophic level: the position an organism occupies in a food chain based on how it obtains energy
- Food chain: a linear sequence of organisms through which energy and nutrients pass by feeding
- Invasive aquatic plants in reservoirs: Eichhornia crassipes (water hyacinth), Salvinia molesta, Pistia stratiotes (any two)
- Seagrass genera: Halophila, Enhalus, Thalassia, Cymodocea, Halodule (any two)
- Coral reefs are called rain forests of the sea because they have very high biodiversity and very high productivity, with complex habitats and food webs
- Services of biodiversity: purification of air and water; soil formation and fertility (nutrient cycling); pollination; climate regulation; flood/erosion control; decomposition of wastes; pest control (any five)
- Human activities causing desertification: deforestation; overgrazing; over-cultivation/poor farming practices; improper irrigation causing salinisation; mining; overuse of groundwater; urbanisation (any five)
- Legislation: a law enacted by Parliament that is legally binding and enforceable
- Policy: a set of principles/guidelines adopted by government to direct decisions and actions towards goals
- Key legislation: National Environmental Act (No. 47 of 1980) (or Fauna and Flora Protection Ordinance, Forest Ordinance)
- Tissue culture is based on totipotency – any living plant cell can regenerate into a whole plant
- Sugar preserves food by creating a high osmotic pressure (low water activity), drawing water out of microbial cells by osmosis (plasmolysis) and preventing their growth
- A nucleotide has three parts: a pentose sugar, a nitrogenous base and a phosphate group
- In DNA the sugar is deoxyribose (lacks –OH at C2′); in RNA it is ribose
- Nitrogenous bases: purines (adenine, guanine – double ring) and pyrimidines (cytosine, thymine – single ring; uracil in RNA)
- The base attaches to C1′ of the sugar by an N-glycosidic bond (nucleoside)
- The phosphate attaches to C5′ of the sugar (nucleoside monophosphate = nucleotide)
- Nucleotides join by condensation (dehydration) reactions
- Phosphate on the 5′ carbon of one nucleotide bonds to the 3′–OH of the next forming a phosphodiester linkage
- Repeating sugar–phosphate units form the sugar–phosphate backbone, with bases projecting as side groups
- The strand has polarity: a free 5′ phosphate end and a free 3′ hydroxyl end
- Base sequence along the backbone carries the genetic information
- DNA consists of two polynucleotide strands wound around a common axis forming a right-handed double helix
- The two strands are antiparallel (5′→3′ and 3′→5′)
- Sugar–phosphate backbones are on the outside; bases are on the inside
- Bases pair by hydrogen bonds: A with T (2 H bonds), G with C (3 H bonds) – complementary base pairing
- A purine always pairs with a pyrimidine, giving a uniform helix width of about 2 nm
- Base pairs are stacked about 0.34 nm apart; one complete turn is 3.4 nm and contains 10 base pairs
- The helix has alternating major and minor grooves
- Complementarity means the sequence of one strand determines the other – the basis of semi-conservative replication
- Model built from Chargaff's rules (A=T, G=C) and Franklin/Wilkins X-ray diffraction data
- Hydrophobic stacking interactions between bases and van der Waals forces stabilise the helix
- Labelled diagram of double helix and base pairing expected
- Ground tissue is all tissue that is neither dermal nor vascular; it forms cortex, pith and mesophyll; derived from ground meristem
- Three types: parenchyma, collenchyma and sclerenchyma
- Parenchyma: living, thin primary walls, large central vacuole, isodiametric, loosely packed with intercellular spaces, can divide (totipotent)
- Parenchyma functions: photosynthesis (chlorenchyma in mesophyll), storage of starch/water/oil, secretion, gas exchange (aerenchyma), wound healing and regeneration
- Collenchyma: living, elongated cells with unevenly thickened primary walls (cellulose and pectin, thickened at corners); found below epidermis of young stems and petioles
- Collenchyma function: flexible mechanical support for growing parts without restricting growth
- Sclerenchyma: thick secondary walls impregnated with lignin; usually dead at maturity, no protoplast
- Sclerenchyma types: fibres (long, tapering, in bundles) and sclereids (stone cells, variable shapes, e.g. in nut shells and pear flesh)
- Sclerenchyma function: rigid mechanical support and strength in non-growing parts; protection (seed coats, shells)
- Ground tissue also helps lateral transport of water/solutes and provides buoyancy in aquatic plants (aerenchyma)
- Diagrams of the three cell types expected
- Elongated, soft, lobulated gland lying behind the stomach in the curve of the duodenum, retroperitoneal
- Divided into head (in C-loop of duodenum), neck, body and tail (reaching the spleen)
- Mixed gland – both exocrine and endocrine
- Exocrine part: acini made of secretory cells producing digestive enzymes, plus duct cells secreting bicarbonate-rich fluid
- Acini drain into small ducts that join the main pancreatic duct running through the gland
- Main pancreatic duct joins the common bile duct to form the hepatopancreatic ampulla, opening into the duodenum via the sphincter of Oddi (accessory duct may be present)
- Endocrine part: islets of Langerhans scattered among the acini
- Islets contain α cells (glucagon), β cells (insulin) and δ cells (somatostatin); richly supplied with blood capillaries
- Covered by thin connective tissue capsule with septa dividing it into lobules
- Secretes pancreatic juice (~1.2–1.5 L/day) into the duodenum
- Bicarbonate ions neutralise acidic chyme, giving the alkaline pH needed by pancreatic and intestinal enzymes and protecting the duodenal mucosa
- Pancreatic amylase hydrolyses starch/glycogen to maltose (and other disaccharides)
- Proteases secreted as inactive forms: trypsinogen activated by enterokinase (enteropeptidase) to trypsin; trypsin activates chymotrypsinogen and procarboxypeptidase
- Trypsin and chymotrypsin break proteins into smaller polypeptides; carboxypeptidase removes amino acids from the carboxyl end
- Pancreatic lipase hydrolyses emulsified fats into fatty acids and monoglycerides (with bile salts)
- Nucleases (DNase, RNase) hydrolyse nucleic acids to nucleotides
- Inactive secretion of proteases protects the pancreas from self-digestion
- Secretion controlled by hormones: secretin (bicarbonate-rich juice) and CCK (enzyme-rich juice), plus vagal stimulation
- Innate immunity is present from birth, non-specific, acts rapidly, has no memory, and is the same with repeated exposure
- First line – physical barriers: intact skin (keratinised epidermis), mucous membranes, mucus trapping microbes, cilia sweeping mucus out of airways
- Chemical barriers: lysozyme in tears, saliva and mucus; acidic pH of skin, stomach HCl; sebum/fatty acids; vaginal acidity
- Normal microbiota competing with pathogens
- Second line – internal defences: phagocytic cells – neutrophils, macrophages, eosinophils (attack parasites), dendritic cells
- Phagocytes recognise pathogen molecules via Toll-like receptors, then engulf and digest them in lysosomes
- Natural killer cells detect and kill virus-infected and cancer cells by releasing chemicals that cause apoptosis
- Antimicrobial proteins: interferons (inhibit viral replication in neighbouring cells), complement system (lysis, opsonisation, inflammation)
- Inflammatory response: mast cells release histamine → vasodilation and increased permeability → redness, heat, swelling, pain; phagocytes and fluid migrate into tissue; pus formation
- Fever: pyrogens reset hypothalamic set-point, inhibiting microbial growth and boosting phagocytosis
- Septic shock as an overwhelming systemic inflammatory response
- Innate responses also activate adaptive immunity (antigen presentation by dendritic cells/macrophages)
- A cloning vector is a DNA molecule that carries foreign DNA into a host cell and replicates there (e.g. plasmids, bacteriophages, cosmids, BACs, YACs)
- Origin of replication (ori) so it can replicate independently in the host
- High copy number for producing many copies of the inserted gene
- Unique restriction sites (multiple cloning site/polylinker) where foreign DNA can be inserted, each site occurring once
- Selectable marker genes, e.g. antibiotic-resistance genes (ampR, tetR), to identify transformed cells
- Screening marker for recombinants, e.g. lacZ gene (blue–white screening) or insertional inactivation
- Small size for easy isolation and transfer into host cells
- Ability to accommodate an insert of suitable size
- Expression vectors also carry promoter, ribosome-binding site and terminator to express the inserted gene
- Should be stable in the host and non-pathogenic
- Spoilage is any change making food unacceptable, caused by microbes using food nutrients and releasing metabolic products
- Carbohydrates: fermented to acids (lactic, acetic), alcohol and CO₂ – souring, gas production, sliminess (dextran/capsule polysaccharides)
- Proteins: proteolysis to peptides and amino acids, then deamination/decarboxylation producing ammonia, amines (putrescine, cadaverine), H₂S, indole and mercaptans – putrefaction with foul odour
- Lipids: lipases hydrolyse fats to fatty acids and glycerol; oxidation of fatty acids gives aldehydes and ketones – rancidity
- Pectin breakdown by pectinases causes softening/soft rot of fruits and vegetables
- Production of pigments causes discolouration; production of toxins (e.g. mycotoxins) may occur
- Changes in pH (acidification or alkalinisation from ammonia) and texture (slime, softening)
- Examples: souring of milk (lactic acid from lactose), rotting of meat/fish, rancid butter
- Each organism has a scientific name of two parts – genus name and specific epithet (binomial system by Linnaeus)
- Genus name begins with a capital letter; specific epithet begins with a simple letter
- Names are in Latin or Latinised form
- Name is italicised when printed, or each word underlined separately when handwritten
- Genus name can be abbreviated to its initial once written in full (e.g. H. sapiens)
- The author's name (who first described the species) may follow, not italicised
- Each species has only one valid scientific name; the earliest validly published name has priority
- Names are governed by international codes (ICN for plants/algae/fungi, ICZN for animals, ICNB for bacteria)
- States that allele and genotype frequencies in a population remain constant from generation to generation unless disturbed
- p + q = 1 (allele frequencies); p² + 2pq + q² = 1 (genotype frequencies)
- Conditions: very large population; random mating; no mutation; no gene flow (migration); no natural selection
- Such a population is not evolving – it acts as a null model
- Evolution = change in allele frequencies; departure from H–W shows microevolution is occurring
- Causes of change: natural selection, genetic drift (bottleneck, founder effect), gene flow, mutation, non-random mating
- Used to calculate carrier frequency of recessive alleles (e.g. heterozygotes for genetic diseases)
- Fast growth rate, reaching marketable size quickly
- Able to tolerate a wide range of environmental conditions (temperature, salinity, oxygen, crowding)
- Accepts artificial/supplementary feed and has efficient food conversion; preferably feeds low on the food chain (herbivore/omnivore)
- Easily bred in captivity; high fecundity; seed (fingerlings) readily available
- Resistant to diseases and parasites
- Can be stocked at high density; non-cannibalistic and compatible with other species (polyculture)
- High consumer acceptance and market value; good taste and nutritive value
- Hardy, withstands handling and transport
- Examples: tilapia, carps (common, Indian major), milkfish, sea bass
Scan notes: All 50 MCQs and all Paper II questions were present. The OCR dropped options C and D of MCQ 10, so they were read from page image p-02. The 4A(iii) tRNA diagram was read from p-16, and 2B(v) from p-13. MCQs 46 and 50 depend on how the examiners' key treats pleiotropy and vector habitats, so they are flagged low confidence.
G.C.E. (Advanced Level) — Biology
Current syllabus (2019 onward) · Re-set practice paper
Every question tests the same concept as question of the same number in the 2022 (2023) paper, re-written by MEDVision. Source coverage: Paper I + Paper II essays only (Part A not in file; one essay unreadable).
Which statement about lipids such as triglycerides is correct?
- 1Triglycerides are polymers made of repeating glycerol monomers.
- 2An unsaturated fatty acid has no carbon–carbon double bonds in its chain.
- 3Compared with a carbohydrate, a lipid contains proportionally much less oxygen, so its H:O ratio exceeds 2:1.
- 4Fatty acids are linked to glycerol by glycosidic bonds.
- 5A phospholipid molecule carries three fatty acid chains and one phosphate group.
Which statement about the compound light microscope is correct?
- 1Using light of a shorter wavelength improves its resolving power.
- 2The objective lens further magnifies the image formed by the eyepiece.
- 3Its limit of resolution is about 0.2 mm.
- 4Its lenses form the image mainly by reflecting light.
- 5Its maximum useful magnification is about 5000 times.
Which of the following is carried out by both the rough and the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
- 1Storage of Ca²⁺ in muscle cells
- 2Detoxification of drugs in liver cells
- 3Adding carbohydrate chains to newly made secretory proteins
- 4Budding off vesicles that carry their products to the Golgi apparatus
- 5Synthesis of steroid hormones
Which statement about organelles of a eukaryotic cell is correct?
- 1Stalked particles (ATP synthase) are located on the outer mitochondrial membrane.
- 2The nuclear lamina is a protein meshwork lining the inner nuclear membrane, to which chromatin is attached.
- 3Chloroplast ribosomes are found inside the thylakoid lumen.
- 4Cellulose microfibrils are assembled inside Golgi cisternae.
- 5Glyoxysomes convert fatty acids into glycolipids.
Which statement about factors affecting enzyme activity is correct?
- 1Most competitive inhibitors bind covalently and irreversibly to the active site.
- 2Coenzymes are small protein molecules bound to the enzyme.
- 3Non-competitive inhibitors compete with the substrate for the active site.
- 4Cooling an enzyme below its optimum temperature permanently denatures it.
- 5Heating an enzyme well above its optimum breaks weak bonds, so the active site loses its shape.
Which statement about the mitochondrial electron transport chain is correct?
- 1It is located in the mitochondrial matrix.
- 2Oxygen is the first carrier to accept electrons from NADH.
- 3Oxidation of one FADH₂ yields about 3 ATP.
- 4It consists of protein complexes together with non-protein carriers such as ubiquinone.
- 5Oxidation of one NADH yields about 1.5 ATP.
Consider four events in the aerobic breakdown of one glucose molecule.
P – Electrons are passed from reduced coenzymes to carriers in the inner mitochondrial membrane
Q – ATP is made by ATP synthase using the proton gradient
R – CO₂ is removed as pyruvate is converted to acetyl CoA
S – ATP (or GTP) is formed directly from succinyl CoA in the Krebs cycle
Which is the correct order of these events?
- 1P, Q, R, S
- 2R, P, S, Q
- 3R, S, P, Q
- 4S, R, Q, P
- 5R, S, Q, P
Three eras are X – Palaeozoic, Y – Mesozoic, Z – Cenozoic. Five events are P – dominance of dinosaurs, Q – colonisation of land by plants, R – appearance of humans, S – appearance of the first flowering plants, T – origin of amphibians. Which gives the correct era–event combinations?
- 1X-P, Y-Q, Z-R, X-S, Y-T
- 2X-Q, Y-P, Z-R, Y-S, X-T
- 3X-Q, Y-P, Z-S, Y-R, X-T
- 4X-T, Z-P, Y-R, X-S, Y-Q
- 5X-Q, Y-T, Z-R, Y-S, X-P
Which of the following is regarded as an artificial group of convenience rather than a natural group of organisms?
- 1Animalia
- 2Fungi
- 3Archaea
- 4Chordata
- 5Protista
Which pair is expected to share the greatest number of characteristics?
- 1Domain Archaea and Domain Bacteria
- 2Platyhelminthes and Mollusca
- 3Sharks and frogs
- 4Dolphins and elephants
- 5Bryophyta and Lycophyta
Consider these statements about seedless vascular plants.
A – Selaginella produces two kinds of spores.
B – Lycopodium produces two kinds of spores.
C – Most ferns, such as Nephrolepis, produce only one kind of spore.
Which of the above is/are correct?
- 1A only
- 2B only
- 3A and B only
- 4A and C only
- 5A, B and C
Which of the following features is found in members of only one class of the phylum Chordata?
- 1Endothermy
- 2Paired fins
- 3Internal fertilisation
- 4Feathers
- 5Lungs
Which statement about meristematic cells of flowering plants is correct?
- 1Each has a large central vacuole that pushes the nucleus to one side.
- 2They are found only at the root and shoot apices.
- 3Some produce primary tissues, while others (the cambia) produce secondary tissues.
- 4They divide by both mitosis and meiosis to form new tissues.
- 5They have thick, lignified secondary walls.
Consider the following events in a leaf.
A – Active uptake of K⁺ into guard cells
B – A rise in abscisic acid level during drought
C – Entry of water into guard cells, raising their turgor
D – Loss of water from guard cells to neighbouring cells
Which of these lead to opening of stomata?
- 1A and B only
- 2A and C only
- 3B and D only
- 4C and D only
- 5A, B and C
Glucose enters a red blood cell down its concentration gradient through a specific membrane carrier protein, without using ATP. This process is
- 1active transport.
- 2simple diffusion.
- 3facilitated diffusion.
- 4osmosis.
- 5endocytosis.
In which ionic forms are nitrogen and boron mainly absorbed by plant roots, respectively?
- 1NO₂⁻ and B³⁺
- 2N₂ and H₂BO₃⁻
- 3NO₃⁻ and H₂BO₃⁻
- 4NO₂⁻ and H₂BO₃⁻
- 5NO₃⁻ and B³⁺
Which of the following in a flowering plant is diploid?
- 1Microspore
- 2Synergid
- 3Generative cell
- 4Antipodal cell
- 5Nucellus
Which plant hormones, in order, (i) stimulate cytokinesis in tissue culture, (ii) hasten yellowing and ageing of leaves and (iii) suppress growth of lateral buds from the shoot apex?
- 1Cytokinin, ethylene, auxin
- 2Auxin, gibberellin, cytokinin
- 3Gibberellin, ethylene, cytokinin
- 4Cytokinin, gibberellin, auxin
- 5Auxin, ethylene, gibberellin
Select the correct response for the following two statements.
A – Connective tissues bind and support other tissues of the body.
B – Elastic fibres provide the main tensile strength of connective tissue.
- 1Both A and B are correct, and B contributes to A.
- 2Both A and B are correct, but B does not contribute to A.
- 3A is correct and B is incorrect.
- 4A is incorrect and B is correct.
- 5Both A and B are incorrect.
In humans, which gives in order (i) the main site of absorption of digested food and mineral ions, (ii) the site where gut bacteria synthesise vitamins B and K, and (iii) the site where undigested material is fermented?
- 1Duodenum, rectum, stomach
- 2Small intestine, colon, cecum
- 3Colon, small intestine, cecum
- 4Stomach, colon, rectum
- 5Small intestine, cecum, gall bladder
Anti-A antibodies are present in the plasma of people with which blood groups?
- 1A and O
- 2B and AB
- 3B and O
- 4A, B and O
- 5AB only
Which statement about the human lymphatic system is correct?
- 1Lymph has a higher protein content than blood plasma.
- 2The thoracic duct empties lymph into the aorta.
- 3Lymph capillaries are absent from the villi of the small intestine.
- 4Lymph nodes consist of connective tissue packed with lymphocytes and macrophages that filter lymph.
- 5Unlike veins, lymph vessels have no valves.
Which statement about antibodies is correct?
- 1Each antibody molecule carries many epitopes.
- 2Binding of an antibody to an antigen can activate complement, leading to lysis of the microbe.
- 3Antibodies received from another person provide long-lasting immunological memory.
- 4Antibodies destroy bacteria by engulfing them.
- 5Antibodies are secreted by cytotoxic T cells.
The centre that regulates heart rate and the diameter of blood vessels in the human brain is in the
- 1hypothalamus.
- 2medulla oblongata.
- 3midbrain.
- 4cerebellum.
- 5thalamus.
Consider the following actions of the autonomic nervous system.
A – Constriction of the pupil
B – Dilation of bronchioles
C – Stimulation of intestinal peristalsis
Which of these is/are caused by the parasympathetic division?
- 1A only
- 2B only
- 3A and B only
- 4A and C only
- 5A, B and C
Which statement about human sensory receptors is correct?
- 1Taste receptors are modified neurons.
- 2Pacinian corpuscles detect cold.
- 3Olfactory receptors adapt, so a constant odour soon becomes less noticeable.
- 4Cones work better than rods in dim light.
- 5The utricle and saccule detect rotational movements of the head.
Which hormone of the anterior pituitary acts directly on a non-endocrine target tissue rather than on another endocrine gland?
- 1TSH
- 2Oxytocin
- 3LH
- 4Prolactin
- 5ADH
In human males, where do sperm complete their maturation, gain motility and remain stored until ejaculation?
- 1Prostate gland
- 2Bulbourethral gland
- 3Seminal vesicle
- 4Epididymis
- 5Seminiferous tubule
Which statement about the human female reproductive system is correct?
- 1Ovarian follicles develop in the medulla of the ovary.
- 2Primary oocytes are first formed at puberty.
- 3The cell released at ovulation is arrested at prophase I.
- 4The embryo implants in the endometrium at the morula stage.
- 5The secretory phase of the uterine cycle coincides with the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle.
Which statement about human breast milk is correct?
- 1Oxytocin is the main hormone stimulating milk synthesis.
- 2It contains IgA antibodies and leucocytes that give the infant passive protection.
- 3Colostrum contains more lactose than mature milk.
- 4A rise in progesterone after delivery triggers milk secretion.
- 5Mature breast milk has a high sodium content.
Consider these events of the cross-bridge cycle in skeletal muscle.
P – ATP binds to the myosin head, which detaches from actin
Q – ATP is hydrolysed and the myosin head is re-cocked into a high-energy state
R – The myosin head attaches to actin, forming a cross-bridge
S – The power stroke slides the thin filament, and ADP and Pi are released
Starting from R, which is the correct sequence?
- 1R, P, S, Q
- 2R, S, P, Q
- 3R, Q, S, P
- 4R, S, Q, P
- 5R, P, Q, S
Which statement about X-linked inheritance in humans is correct?
- 1A father passes his X-linked alleles to his sons.
- 2Heterozygous females usually express X-linked recessive disorders.
- 3A mother passes X-linked alleles only to her daughters.
- 4X-linked recessive disorders are more common in males, because one recessive allele is enough for them to express the trait.
- 5X-linked dominant traits are expressed only in males.
When two heterozygous plants are crossed, the offspring show both a phenotypic ratio and a genotypic ratio of 1:2:1. Which conclusion is valid?
- 1The trait shows incomplete dominance only.
- 2The trait shows codominance only.
- 3Either incomplete dominance or codominance could explain the result.
- 4The trait shows complete dominance.
- 5The alleles must be X-linked.
A single-base substitution in a gene
- 1may cause a cell to become cancerous.
- 2always changes the amino acid sequence of the protein.
- 3changes the chromosome number of the cell.
- 4is always lethal.
- 5can never alter the function of a protein.
Which of the following sets contains only products of recombinant DNA technology?
- 1Bt maize, tissue-cultured orchids, recombinant insulin
- 2Golden rice, recombinant hepatitis B vaccine, ringspot-resistant papaya
- 3Cloned sheep (Dolly), Bt cotton, Flavr Savr tomato
- 4Seedless watermelon, Golden rice, recombinant chymosin
- 5Polyploid wheat, recombinant human growth hormone, Roundup Ready soybean
In a grassland food web: grasshoppers, rabbits and deer eat grass; frogs and shrews eat grasshoppers; snakes eat frogs and rabbits; owls eat shrews and snakes; wild cats eat rabbits. How many secondary consumers and how many tertiary consumers are there, respectively?
- 1Three and two
- 2Four and two
- 3Four and three
- 4Five and two
- 5Three and three
Four organisms found in Sri Lanka are A – Lantana camara, B – Sri Lanka junglefowl, C – Na (Mesua ferrea), D – Tea. Four biodiversity categories are P – endemic, Q – exotic, R – invasive, S – indigenous. Which gives the correct combinations?
- 1A-R, B-P, C-S, D-Q
- 2A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R
- 3A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q
- 4A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S
- 5A-S, B-P, C-R, D-Q
Asexual reproduction by binary fission is characteristic of
- 1filamentous fungi such as Rhizopus and bacteria.
- 2Mucor and filamentous cyanobacteria such as Nostoc.
- 3bacteria and unicellular cyanobacteria.
- 4Penicillium and filamentous cyanobacteria.
- 5filamentous cyanobacteria such as Oscillatoria and Rhizopus.
Escherichia coli
- 1is an obligate aerobe.
- 2produces vitamin E in the human colon.
- 3is a Gram-positive coccus.
- 4is the main starter organism in yoghurt production.
- 5is a facultative anaerobe of the colon that can cause infections if it reaches other sites, such as the urinary tract.
Some ornamental plants and suggested methods of vegetative propagation are A – Rose: budding, B – Bougainvillea: stem cuttings, C – Anthurium: leaf cuttings, D – Orchid (Dendrobium): grafting. Which combinations are correct?
- 1A and B only
- 2A and C only
- 3B and C only
- 4B and D only
- 5C and D only
Which sequence/sequences give examples of five adjacent levels of biological organisation?
A – Glucose, chloroplast, guard cell, epidermis, leaf
B – Haemoglobin, red blood cell, blood, heart, circulatory system
C – Respiratory system, frog, frog population in a pond, pond community, pond ecosystem
D – Keratin, nucleus, muscle fibre, leg, human
- 1A only
- 2A and C only
- 3A, B and C only
- 4C and D only
- 5B and D only
Which statements about tracheids are correct?
A – They occur in ferns and in Selaginella.
B – Mature tracheids contain mitochondria that supply energy for water transport.
C – Their secondary walls are lignified.
D – They conduct water and give mechanical support.
E – They are present in mosses.
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3C and D only
- 4B, C and E only
- 5A, C, D and E only
Which statements about blood clotting in humans are correct?
A – Thrombin converts soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin.
B – Prothrombin is stored in the granules of platelets.
C – Heparin acts as an anticoagulant by preventing thrombin formation.
D – Calcium ions are not needed for clotting.
E – Fibrin is secreted by platelets.
- 1A and B only
- 2A and C only
- 3A, C and D only
- 4B, C and E only
- 5C and D only
Which pairings of animal group and main nitrogenous excretory product are correct?
A – Insects: uric acid
B – Tadpoles: ammonia
C – Adult frogs: ammonia
D – Mammals: urea
E – Freshwater bony fishes: urea
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3A and B only
- 4C and D only
- 5B, D and E only
Which statements about the human skeleton are correct?
A – The frontal bone forms the forehead and the roofs of the orbits.
B – Each of the twelve pairs of ribs articulates with a thoracic vertebra.
C – The lumbar curvature is already present at birth.
D – The saddle joint between the trapezium and the first metacarpal allows opposition of the thumb.
E – The arches of the foot spread body weight only while standing still.
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3A and B only
- 4C and D only
- 5B, C and E only
Which statements about the protein core (scaffold) of a supercoiled bacterial chromosome are correct?
A – It anchors the looped domains of compacted DNA.
B – It helps attach the chromosome to the plasma membrane.
C – It allows the whole chromosome to unwind at once during replication.
D – It allows individual looped domains to relax independently during transcription.
E – It positions ribosomes on the DNA.
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3A and B only
- 4C and D only
- 5B, C and E only
Which sequence/sequences list plants of three Sri Lankan ecosystems in order of increasing altitude?
A – Avicennia, Burutha, Doona
B – Halosarcia, Karamba, Nelli
C – Maharathmal, Hora, Kadol
D – Kaluwara, Bu hora, Keena
E – Sonneratia, Keena, Andara
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3A and B only
- 4C and D only
- 5B, D and E only
Which statements about industrial uses of microorganisms are correct?
A – Aspergillus niger is used to produce citric acid.
B – Lactobacillus is used to produce vinegar.
C – Bacillus thuringiensis toxin is used as a biological insecticide.
D – Human insulin is produced by genetically engineered Escherichia coli.
E – Penicillin is produced by Streptomyces griseus.
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3A and B only
- 4C and D only
- 5B, C and E only
Which of these bacteria cause both water-borne and food-borne diseases?
A – Vibrio cholerae
B – Shigella dysenteriae
C – Clostridium botulinum
D – Salmonella typhi
E – Bacillus cereus
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3A and B only
- 4C and D only
- 5B, D and E only
Which of the following are routine monthly tasks in maintaining a home aquarium?
A – Cleaning the air stones
B – Trimming overgrown aquarium plants
C – Wiping algae from the front glass
D – Siphoning debris that collects beneath the undergravel filter plate
E – Checking the water temperature
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3A and B only
- 4C and D only
- 5B, C and E only
Describe the first meiotic division, in which the chromosome number is halved. Include the sub-stages of prophase I, the events of metaphase I, anaphase I and telophase I, and the significance of this division. Support your answer with labelled diagrams.
Give an account of how a dicotyledonous stem increases in girth. Describe the formation and activity of the vascular cambium and the cork cambium, and explain how annual rings, heartwood, sapwood and bark arise.
Compare organisms of Domain Bacteria with those of Domain Eukarya. Explain the differences in cell organisation, genetic material, ribosomes, cell walls, protein synthesis and cell division.
Describe the different types of vaccines used to prevent microbial diseases. Give an example of each type, and discuss their role and limitations in disease control.
Draw a large, fully labelled diagram of a human nephron together with its associated blood vessels. Indicate the cortex and medulla regions.
Explain how urine is formed in the human kidney. Refer to ultrafiltration, selective reabsorption, tubular secretion and the mechanism that concentrates urine.
Describe the structure of a human spermatozoon. State the function of each of its parts.
Explain how hormones regulate sperm production in human males, including the role of negative feedback.
Write a short note on the drawbacks of artificial plant breeding.
Write a short note on Okazaki fragments: why they are formed and how they are synthesised and joined.
Write a short note on the adaptations of plants that live in deserts.
Answer key — this booklet
Answer key — original 2022 (2023) paper (MEDVision model answers)
For students working from the original paper. Shaded cells: check against the official marking scheme (amber = likely, red = disputed).
Paper I — reviews
Paper II — marking points
- Meiosis I is the reduction division: one diploid (2n) nucleus gives two haploid (n) nuclei
- Preceded by interphase in which DNA replicates, so each chromosome has two sister chromatids
- Prophase I – leptotene: chromatin condenses into long thin threads
- Zygotene: homologous chromosomes pair (synapsis) via the synaptonemal complex forming bivalents
- Pachytene: chromosomes shorten and thicken, and each bivalent forms a tetrad (4 chromatids)
- Diplotene: homologues begin to separate but stay joined at chiasmata, where crossing over has exchanged segments between non-sister chromatids
- Diakinesis: further condensation, chiasmata terminalise, nucleolus and nuclear envelope disappear, spindle forms (centrioles move to poles in animals)
- Metaphase I: bivalents line up on the equatorial plate, with spindle fibres from opposite poles attached to the kinetochores of each homologue
- Random (independent) orientation of bivalents leads to independent assortment
- Anaphase I: homologous chromosomes (each still with two chromatids) separate and move to opposite poles, while centromeres do not split
- Telophase I: chromosomes reach poles, nuclear envelopes and nucleoli may re-form, giving two haploid nuclei, usually followed by cytokinesis
- Significance: halves chromosome number, keeping it constant across generations, and crossing over plus independent assortment generate genetic variation
- A labelled diagram of the stages is expected
- Secondary growth is an increase in girth from lateral meristems: vascular cambium and cork cambium
- Fascicular cambium lies between primary xylem and phloem in each vascular bundle
- Parenchyma of medullary rays between bundles becomes meristematic (interfascicular cambium), joining with fascicular cambium into a complete cambial ring
- Cambium has fusiform initials (give tracheids, vessels, fibres, sieve tubes, companion cells) and ray initials (give vascular rays)
- Cambium divides periclinally, adding secondary xylem inward and secondary phloem outward, with more xylem produced than phloem
- Primary phloem is crushed outward, while primary xylem stays next to the pith
- Cambium also divides anticlinally to increase its circumference
- Vascular rays carry water and nutrients radially and store food
- Seasonal activity produces early (spring) and late (autumn) wood forming annual rings, whose count gives tree age
- Older central xylem becomes non-functional heartwood (with tannins, resins) and the outer functional part is sapwood
- Cork cambium (phellogen) arises in cortex, producing cork (phellem) outward and phelloderm inward, forming the periderm
- Cork cells become suberised and dead, replacing the epidermis for protection, with lenticels for gas exchange
- Bark = all tissues outside the vascular cambium (secondary phloem + periderm)
- Bacteria are prokaryotic with no nuclear envelope (nucleoid region), while Eukarya have a membrane-bound nucleus
- Bacteria lack membrane-bound organelles (mitochondria, ER, Golgi, chloroplasts), which Eukarya have
- Bacterial ribosomes are 70S, eukaryotic cytoplasmic ribosomes 80S
- Bacterial cell wall contains peptidoglycan, while eukaryotic walls (if present) are cellulose or chitin
- Bacteria have a single circular chromosome plus plasmids, while Eukarya have several linear chromosomes
- Bacterial DNA is not associated with histones, while eukaryotic DNA is wrapped round histones
- Bacteria have one simple RNA polymerase, while Eukarya have several complex RNA polymerases
- Bacteria lack introns (generally), while eukaryotic genes commonly have introns
- Bacterial protein synthesis starts with formyl-methionine, eukaryotic with methionine
- Bacterial growth is inhibited by streptomycin/chloramphenicol, unlike Eukarya
- Bacterial flagella are made of flagellin with no 9+2 microtubule arrangement
- Bacteria have no cytoskeleton of microtubules, no mitosis or meiosis (binary fission), and are mostly unicellular and smaller (1–10 µm vs 10–100 µm)
- A vaccine is a preparation of antigenic material that induces active artificial immunity and immunological memory without causing disease
- Live attenuated vaccines use weakened live pathogens, e.g. BCG, oral polio (OPV), MMR, giving strong long-lasting immunity
- Inactivated (killed) vaccines use pathogens killed by heat or chemicals, e.g. inactivated polio (IPV), rabies, whooping cough (whole-cell pertussis)
- Toxoid vaccines use inactivated toxins, e.g. tetanus and diphtheria toxoids
- Subunit vaccines use purified antigenic parts, e.g. acellular pertussis, HPV
- Recombinant vaccines express antigen genes in yeast/bacteria, e.g. Hepatitis B surface antigen vaccine
- Conjugate vaccines link polysaccharide antigens to a protein carrier, e.g. Hib and pneumococcal vaccines
- Newer mRNA/viral vector vaccines, e.g. COVID-19 vaccines
- Vaccines are given by injection or orally, often as boosters, and are included in Sri Lanka's national Expanded Programme on Immunization (EPI)
- Mass vaccination gives herd immunity and has led to eradication of smallpox and control of polio, measles, diphtheria etc.
- Limitations: cold chain needed, booster doses, rare adverse reactions, attenuated forms may revert
- Bowman's capsule surrounding the glomerulus (together = renal corpuscle) located in the cortex
- Afferent arteriole (wider) entering and efferent arteriole (narrower) leaving the glomerulus
- Proximal convoluted tubule in the cortex
- Loop of Henle with descending limb and ascending limb (thin and thick segments) in the medulla
- Distal convoluted tubule in the cortex, close to the glomerulus
- Collecting duct receiving several DCTs, running through the medulla to the renal pelvis
- Peritubular capillaries around the PCT and DCT, formed from the efferent arteriole
- Vasa recta running parallel to the loop of Henle
- Branch of renal artery (interlobular artery) supplying the afferent arteriole and venule/branch of renal vein draining capillaries
- Labels showing cortex and medulla regions
- Three stages: glomerular (ultra)filtration, selective reabsorption and tubular secretion, followed by concentration of urine
- Filtration: high glomerular pressure (narrow efferent arteriole) forces plasma through fenestrated capillary endothelium, basement membrane and podocyte filtration slits
- Filtrate contains water, glucose, amino acids, salts, urea, uric acid, but no blood cells or large plasma proteins (~180 L/day)
- PCT: reabsorbs ~all glucose and amino acids, most Na⁺, K⁺, Cl⁻, HCO₃⁻ and water (~65%), aided by microvilli and mitochondria
- PCT secretes H⁺, NH₃ and drugs/toxins, which helps regulate pH
- Descending limb is permeable to water but not salt, so water leaves into the hyperosmotic medulla
- Ascending limb is impermeable to water; NaCl moves out passively (thin) and is actively pumped out (thick), which maintains the medullary osmotic gradient (countercurrent)
- Vasa recta keeps the medullary gradient and returns reabsorbed water and solutes
- DCT: regulated reabsorption of Na⁺ (aldosterone) and secretion of K⁺, H⁺, and Ca²⁺ reabsorption (PTH)
- Collecting duct: ADH increases water permeability (aquaporins) so water is reabsorbed and concentrated urine forms, and some urea diffuses into the medulla
- Urine (water, urea, salts, creatinine, uric acid) passes through renal pelvis, ureter, bladder
- Sperm has head, neck, middle piece and tail (flagellum), enclosed in plasma membrane
- Head: flattened oval, containing a haploid nucleus with condensed DNA, which carries the paternal genetic material to the zygote
- Acrosome: cap-like vesicle over the anterior head with hydrolytic enzymes (hyaluronidase, proteases), which penetrate the corona radiata and zona pellucida (acrosomal reaction)
- Neck: short region containing the proximal centriole, which forms the zygote's first mitotic spindle/centrosome
- Distal centriole forms the basal body giving rise to the axial filament of the tail
- Middle piece: spirally arranged mitochondria around the axial filament, producing ATP for movement
- Tail: long flagellum with 9+2 microtubule axoneme and outer sheath, whose whip-like beating propels the sperm
- Very little cytoplasm, making the sperm streamlined and light
- Hypothalamus secretes GnRH into the hypophyseal portal system
- GnRH stimulates anterior pituitary to release FSH and LH
- LH (ICSH) stimulates Leydig (interstitial) cells to secrete testosterone
- FSH acts on Sertoli cells, stimulating them to support spermatogenesis and produce androgen-binding protein
- Testosterone, together with FSH, promotes spermatogenesis within seminiferous tubules
- Testosterone also maintains accessory glands and secondary sex characteristics
- Negative feedback: testosterone inhibits GnRH and LH (and FSH) secretion
- Sertoli cells secrete inhibin, which selectively inhibits FSH secretion by the anterior pituitary
- This feedback keeps sperm production and testosterone levels fairly constant
- At puberty increased GnRH initiates spermatogenesis
- Reduces genetic diversity (genetic erosion) because a few uniform varieties replace many local landraces
- Uniform crops are vulnerable to new pests/diseases, so epidemics can destroy whole crops
- Time consuming, often taking many generations/years, and costly
- Hybrid vigour is lost in later generations, so new hybrid seed must be bought each season
- Inbreeding can expose harmful recessive alleles (inbreeding depression)
- Undesirable traits can be transferred along with desired genes (linkage drag)
- Improved varieties often need high inputs of fertiliser, pesticides and irrigation, causing environmental pollution
- Limited to sexually compatible species/varieties
- Farmers become dependent on seed companies, and traditional varieties are lost
- Short DNA segments made on the lagging strand during DNA replication (~1000–2000 nucleotides in prokaryotes, 100–200 in eukaryotes)
- Arise because DNA polymerase adds nucleotides only to the 3′ end (5′→3′ synthesis) and the strands are antiparallel
- Lagging strand is synthesised discontinuously, away from the replication fork
- Helicase unwinds DNA, single-strand binding proteins stabilise, and topoisomerase relieves strain
- Primase synthesises a short RNA primer for each fragment
- DNA polymerase III extends each primer 5′→3′ until it reaches the previous fragment
- DNA polymerase I removes the RNA primer and replaces it with DNA
- DNA ligase joins adjacent fragments by forming phosphodiester bonds
- In contrast the leading strand is made continuously, needing only one primer
- Deserts have low and erratic rainfall, high temperature and intense light
- Xerophytes: reduced leaves or leaves modified as spines (e.g. Opuntia), which reduce transpiration
- Thick waxy cuticle and multiple epidermis
- Sunken stomata, fewer stomata, hairs trapping humid air
- Succulent stems/leaves storing water in mucilaginous parenchyma (cacti, Aloe)
- Photosynthetic stems (phylloclades/cladodes)
- Extensive shallow roots to absorb brief rain, or very deep tap roots reaching groundwater
- CAM photosynthesis: stomata open at night, storing CO₂ as malic acid, which conserves water
- Rolled leaves (e.g. some grasses) reducing exposed surface
- Ephemerals (short-lived annuals) complete life cycle quickly after rain and survive as drought-resistant seeds
- Some shed leaves during drought, with dormant buds
Scan notes: All 50 Paper I MCQs were legible (figures for Q31 and Q36 read from page images). Paper II Part A (structured Q1–4) is not in the file. All six Part B essay questions (5–10) were legible on page 10. The subtopic coding file labels the essays 5a,5b,6a,6b,8a,... (omitting Q7), but the paper itself numbers them Q5 (meiosis I), Q6 (secondary growth), Q7(a) Bacteria vs Eukarya, Q7(b) vaccines, Q8(a)(b), Q9(a)(b), Q10(a)(b)(c). The paper's numbering is used here. Low-confidence keys: Q38, Q41, Q46, Q50.
G.C.E. (Advanced Level) — Biology
Current syllabus (2019 onward) · Re-set practice paper
Every question tests the same concept as question of the same number in the 2023 (2024) paper, re-written by MEDVision. Source coverage: Paper I + Paper II essays only (Part A not in file).
Which property is shared by both lysosomes and peroxisomes in an animal cell?
- 1Each contains catalase that breaks down hydrogen peroxide
- 2Each takes part in the glycolate pathway of photorespiration
- 3Each is bounded by a single membrane
- 4Each digests worn-out mitochondria by autophagy
- 5Each releases its residues from the cell by exocytosis
Some non-living systems such as growing crystals or eroding rocks can show certain features usually linked with life. Which pair of features is found ONLY in living organisms?
- 1Growth and movement
- 2Increase in size and change over time
- 3Formation and breakdown of compounds
- 4Metabolism and inheritance of genetic information
- 5Movement and change in shape
A researcher wants to study ribosome distribution in liver cells using a transmission electron microscope (TEM). Which statement about the TEM is correct?
- 1It gives a three-dimensional view of the specimen surface
- 2Living cells cannot be examined because specimens are fixed, sectioned and viewed in a vacuum
- 3Heavily stained structures let more electrons pass and appear bright
- 4It focuses beams of light with glass lenses
- 5Its resolving power is lower than that of a compound light microscope
Which of the following correctly pairs an event of the eukaryotic cell cycle with the phase in which it occurs?
- 1Replication of DNA — G₁ phase
- 2Duplication of the centrosome — M phase
- 3Synthesis of proteins needed for division — G₂ phase
- 4Formation of new organelles — S phase
- 5Separation of sister chromatids — G₂ phase
Phosphofructokinase is an enzyme regulated allosterically. Which statement about allosteric regulation is correct?
- 1Regulators bind permanently to the active site by covalent bonds
- 2An activator bound to one subunit changes the active site of that subunit only
- 3Regulators attach to a site away from the active site through weak non-covalent interactions
- 4Inhibitors reduce activity without altering the enzyme's shape
- 5A high level of ATP activates phosphofructokinase
Yeast cells in a sealed bread dough carry out ethanol fermentation. For each molecule of glucose used in this process,
- 1one pyruvate and two NADH are formed
- 2pyruvate accepts hydrogen from NADH directly to form ethanol
- 3only one molecule of CO₂ is released
- 4the final hydrogen acceptor is an inorganic substance
- 5a net total of two ATP is produced
Which statement about the breakdown of one glucose molecule by glycolysis is correct?
- 1A net gain of four ATP results
- 2Some of its steps require molecular oxygen
- 3Two molecules of NADH are produced
- 4Some of its reactions occur on the outer mitochondrial membrane
- 5Two molecules of CO₂ are released
The following events are linked with the rise of oxygen on the early Earth.
P – Rise in the numbers of photosynthetic prokaryotes
Q – Appearance of cyanobacteria
R – Oxidation of dissolved Fe²⁺ and its precipitation as iron oxide
S – Saturation of oceans and lakes with oxygen
Which sequence agrees with the official A/L account?
- 1P, S, R, Q
- 2P, R, S, Q
- 3Q, S, R, P
- 4Q, R, S, P
- 5S, R, P, Q
Which of the following pairs of organisms would share the greatest number of characteristics?
- 1Shark and tuna
- 2Spider and crab
- 3Selaginella and Nephrolepis
- 4Frog and Ichthyophis
- 5Bat and owl
Consider the following features of animals.
A – Radula
B – Hermaphroditism
C – Parapodia
D – Coelom
Which of these are each restricted to a single animal phylum?
- 1A and B only
- 2A and C only
- 3B and C only
- 4B and D only
- 5C and D only
Which statement about the vascular tissues of plants is correct?
- 1Vessel elements are narrow cells with tapering ends
- 2Tracheids give support to the stems of mosses such as Pogonatum
- 3Companion cells accompany the sieve cells of Cycas
- 4Tracheids are the main water-conducting cells in the xylem of ferns such as Nephrolepis
- 5Adjacent sieve-tube elements are linked by bordered pits
Three plant structures and three functions are listed.
Structures: X – Hydathodes; Y – Lenticels; Z – Stomata
Functions: P – Exudation of liquid water droplets from leaf margins; Q – Loss of water vapour through the bark of woody stems; R – Main route of CO₂ uptake for photosynthesis
Which response matches every structure with its correct function?
- 1X–Q, Y–P, Z–R
- 2X–R, Y–Q, Z–P
- 3X–P, Y–R, Z–Q
- 4X–P, Y–Q, Z–R
- 5X–Q, Y–R, Z–P
Dry bean seeds swell when soaked because water molecules adhere to hydrophilic colloids such as cellulose, pectin and proteins. This process is called
- 1osmosis.
- 2imbibition.
- 3facilitated diffusion.
- 4active transport.
- 5guttation.
The following steps occur when stomata open and later close.
A – The pore closes
B – Water enters the guard cells
C – The guard cells swell
D – The thickened inner walls bow away from each other
E – The pore opens
F – Turgor of the guard cells falls
Which is the correct sequence?
- 1B, D, C, E, F, A
- 2B, C, D, E, F, A
- 3B, C, E, D, F, A
- 4F, B, C, D, E, A
- 5B, F, C, D, E, A
A macronutrient and a micronutrient whose deficiencies both cause chlorosis are, respectively,
- 1Fe and Mn.
- 2N and S.
- 3Mg and Fe.
- 4Mn and Mg.
- 5Ca and B.
A nursery worker wants stem cuttings to form roots quickly. Which two plant hormones promote root formation?
- 1Gibberellins and cytokinins
- 2Abscisic acid and cytokinins
- 3Auxin and cytokinins
- 4Auxin and ethylene
- 5Ethylene and gibberellins
Which statement about epithelial tissues is correct?
- 1Stratified squamous epithelium of the alveoli allows rapid gas exchange
- 2Pseudostratified columnar epithelium is a compound (stratified) epithelium
- 3Simple cuboidal epithelium lines kidney tubules and salivary gland ducts
- 4The nasal cavity is lined by simple columnar epithelium
- 5Simple squamous epithelium prevents the exchange of substances
Three types of symbiosis and examples are given.
A – Mutualism: cattle egret and cattle
B – Parasitism: humans and Planaria
C – Commensalism: Rhizobium and a legume
Which of these is/are correctly matched?
- 1A only
- 2B only
- 3C only
- 4A and B only
- 5A and C only
In which pair(s) does an increase in (i) lead to an increase in (ii)?
X – (i) Distension of the stomach wall; (ii) Gastrin secretion
Y – (i) Fat in the chyme entering the duodenum; (ii) Gastric motility and secretion
Z – (i) Amino acids and peptides in duodenal chyme; (ii) Rate of stomach emptying
- 1X only
- 2Y only
- 3Z only
- 4X and Y only
- 5X and Z only
Deoxygenated blood returning from the body passes through the heart and lungs and finally leaves the heart through the aortic valve. Which sequence correctly traces its path?
- 1Left atrium, bicuspid valve, left ventricle, pulmonary valve, lungs, right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle
- 2Right atrium, bicuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonary valve, lungs, left atrium, tricuspid valve, left ventricle
- 3Right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonary valve, lungs, left atrium, bicuspid valve, left ventricle
- 4Right ventricle, tricuspid valve, right atrium, pulmonary valve, lungs, left ventricle, bicuspid valve, left atrium
- 5Right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, aortic valve, lungs, left atrium, bicuspid valve, left ventricle
Carbon dioxide is carried in human blood in three forms. Which response gives the form carrying the LARGEST share and the form carrying the SMALLEST share, in that order?
- 1Hydrogencarbonate ions — dissolved CO₂ in plasma
- 2Carbaminohaemoglobin — dissolved CO₂ in plasma
- 3Hydrogencarbonate ions — carbaminohaemoglobin
- 4Dissolved CO₂ in plasma — hydrogencarbonate ions
- 5Carbaminohaemoglobin — hydrogencarbonate ions
A student's spirometer readings are: tidal volume 450 mL, inspiratory reserve volume 3000 mL, expiratory reserve volume 1200 mL and residual volume 1300 mL. What is the student's vital capacity?
- 11650 mL
- 22500 mL
- 33450 mL
- 44650 mL
- 55950 mL
Stimulation by the parasympathetic division of the human autonomic nervous system causes
- 1dilation of the pupil.
- 2breakdown of liver glycogen to glucose.
- 3inhibition of saliva secretion.
- 4constriction of the bronchi.
- 5an increase in heart rate.
Which statement about human vision is correct?
- 1Both eyes converge when viewing a distant object
- 2Contraction of the ciliary muscles makes the lens more convex for focusing on near objects
- 3Rods contain photopsins and give colour vision
- 4Visual images are interpreted in the frontal lobe
- 5The cornea changes its curvature to focus on near objects
Which hormone is correctly paired with one of its functions?
- 1Oxytocin — synthesis of milk in the mammary glands
- 2ACTH — secretion of adrenaline from the adrenal medulla
- 3Calcitonin — raising blood calcium level
- 4Melatonin — raising basal metabolic rate
- 5Cholecystokinin — secretion of pancreatic digestive enzymes and contraction of the gall bladder
Which statement about spermatogenesis in humans is correct?
- 1It begins in fetal life and continues without a break
- 2Sertoli cells secrete testosterone
- 3Spermatogonia multiply by mitosis, and some enlarge to form primary spermatocytes
- 4Leydig cells nourish developing spermatids inside the seminiferous tubules
- 5Sperm cells are the only haploid cells formed in the process
Which statement about early human development is correct?
- 1Implantation begins within 24 hours of fertilisation
- 2The placenta is formed entirely from embryonic tissue
- 3Before the placenta is established, the embryo is nourished by secretions of the endometrial glands
- 4The fetal heart begins to beat at about 10 weeks
- 5The sperm enters an ovum that has already completed meiosis II
Which statement about the human axial skeleton is correct?
- 1The sacrum is formed by fusion of four vertebrae
- 2Ribs 8, 9 and 10 connect to the sternum through the costal cartilage of the rib above
- 3Paranasal sinuses are located in the temporal and nasal bones
- 4The zygomatic arch anchors muscles that move the maxilla
- 5An infant can hold its head upright only after the lumbar curve develops
Excluding the femur and the patella, how many bones are present in one human lower limb?
- 126
- 227
- 328
- 429
- 530
Two pea plants, each heterozygous for two independently assorting genes (AaBb), are crossed. How many different genotypes are expected among the offspring?
- 13
- 24
- 38
- 49
- 516
A man homozygous for blood group A marries a woman who is heterozygous for blood group B. Which blood groups are possible among their children?
- 1A and AB
- 2AB and B
- 3A and B
- 4AB and O
- 5A, B, AB and O
Consider the following human disorders.
A – Klinefelter syndrome
B – Sickle-cell anaemia
C – Down syndrome
D – Haemophilia
Which are caused by gene (point) mutations?
- 1A and B only
- 2B and C only
- 3B and D only
- 4A, C and D only
- 5C and D only
A student isolates DNA from onion tissue. The steps are listed out of order.
P – Precipitate the DNA with ice-cold ethanol
Q – Remove proteins and RNA
R – Homogenise the tissue
S – Add EDTA to inhibit DNases
T – Dissociate nucleoprotein complexes with detergent/protease
Which is the correct sequence?
- 1R, T, S, Q, P
- 2S, R, T, Q, P
- 3R, S, T, Q, P
- 4R, S, Q, T, P
- 5T, R, S, P, Q
A traveller moves due north overland from Sri Lanka toward the Arctic Ocean. Which sequence of biomes would be crossed?
- 1Tropical forest, desert, temperate grassland, northern coniferous forest, tundra
- 2Tropical forest, chaparral, temperate broadleaf forest, northern coniferous forest, tundra
- 3Savanna, desert, chaparral, temperate grassland, tundra
- 4Tropical forest, temperate grassland, desert, tundra, northern coniferous forest
- 5Savanna, chaparral, desert, northern coniferous forest, tundra
Which pair consists only of invasive alien plant species in Sri Lanka?
- 1Salvinia molesta and Cymbopogon nardus
- 2Themeda tremula and Lantana camara
- 3Imperata cylindrica and Chrysopogon nodulibarbis
- 4Salvinia molesta and Prosopis juliflora
- 5Arundinella villosa and water hyacinth
Consider these statements.
A – Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease of humans is caused by prions.
B – Viroids are short, circular RNA molecules with no protein coat.
C – Viroids carry genes that code for their own capsid proteins.
D – Prions replicate by copying their nucleic acid with host enzymes.
Which are correct?
- 1A and B only
- 2A and C only
- 3A and D only
- 4B and C only
- 5B and D only
Which statement about bacterial toxins is correct?
- 1Endotoxins are easily destroyed by boiling
- 2Endotoxins are released mainly by Gram-positive bacteria
- 3Exotoxins are proteins secreted by both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria
- 4Endotoxins of different species produce clearly different symptoms
- 5Diphtheria toxin acts on the intestine as an enterotoxin
Which microorganism–product pair used in industry is correct?
- 1Aspergillus oryzae — citric acid
- 2Streptomyces griseus — tetracycline
- 3Saccharomyces cerevisiae — invertase
- 4Penicillium chrysogenum — streptomycin
- 5Acetobacter aceti — ethanol
A hobbyist wants ornamental fish in a home aquarium to stay healthy and disease-resistant. Which practice best helps keep their immunity high?
- 1Draining and refilling the whole tank every two weeks
- 2Switching off the air pump every night
- 3Keeping the tank lights on 24 hours a day
- 4Keeping a suitable number of compatible fish together with aquatic plants
- 5Adding new fish directly without quarantine
Consider these statements about genome projects.
A – The human genome contains about 3 × 10⁹ base pairs.
B – The Human Genome Project is still in progress and has released no complete sequence.
C – Human Genome Project data have helped describe molecular activities in human cells.
D – The complete genome of Escherichia coli has been sequenced.
Which are correct?
- 1A and B only
- 2B and C only
- 3A, C and D only
- 4B, C and D only
- 5C and D only
Consider these statements about nucleotide coenzymes.
A – NAD⁺ accepts electrons and so acts as an oxidising agent.
B – Oxidised FAD acts as a reducing agent.
C – NADP⁺ is a coenzyme that acts as an electron carrier.
D – NADP⁺ acts as an oxidising agent in the light reactions.
E – NAD⁺ acts as a reducing agent in respiration.
Which of the statements are correct?
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3A and B only
- 4C and D only
- 5Some other response or combination
Consider these statements about fungi.
A – Zygomycetes such as Rhizopus have coenocytic hyphae.
B – Some chytrids are unicellular.
C – Ascomycota includes unicellular yeasts as well as multicellular forms.
D – Basidiomycetes produce flagellated spores.
E – Chytrids are the only fungi that lack flagellated cells.
Which of the statements are correct?
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3A and B only
- 4C and D only
- 5Some other response or combination
Consider these statements about kingdom Plantae.
A – The gametophyte becomes progressively reduced from bryophytes to seed plants.
B – Roots of living vascular plants resemble the stems of early vascular plants.
C – The charophyte ancestors of plants already had all the key traits of land plants.
D – Land plants evolved from brown algae.
E – Liverworts are more closely related to hornworts than to mosses.
Which of the statements are correct?
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3A and B only
- 4C and D only
- 5Some other response or combination
Consider these statements about plant life cycles.
A – In Pogonatum the photosynthetic gametophyte is the dominant generation.
B – In Selaginella the sporophyte is dominant and photosynthetic.
C – The female gametophyte of Cycas is free-living.
D – The gametophyte of Selaginella is reduced and partly depends on the sporophyte.
E – The prothallus of Nephrolepis depends on the sporophyte for nutrition.
Which of the statements are correct?
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3A and B only
- 4C and D only
- 5Some other response or combination
Consider these statements about nitrogenous excretion.
A – Cells of human nephron tubules secrete ammonia into the tubular fluid.
B – Producing ammonia costs more energy than producing urea.
C – Land snails excrete mainly uric acid.
D – Sharks excrete mainly urea.
E – Uric acid is more toxic than urea.
Which of the statements are correct?
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3A and B only
- 4C and D only
- 5Some other response or combination
Consider these statements about the human brain.
A – The two lateral ventricles and the third ventricle lie in the forebrain.
B – The pineal body develops from the embryonic midbrain.
C – The pons lies between the midbrain and the medulla oblongata.
D – The cerebral cortex is grey matter made mainly of neuron cell bodies.
E – The hypothalamus is connected to the anterior pituitary by nerve fibres.
Which of the statements are correct?
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3A and B only
- 4C and D only
- 5Some other response or combination
Consider these statements about the amnion of the human embryo.
A – It shields the fetus from the mother's immune responses.
B – It contributes to the formation of the urinary bladder.
C – Its fluid prevents desiccation of the fetus.
D – Its fluid-filled cavity cushions the fetus against mechanical shock.
E – It is the source of primordial germ cells.
Which of the statements are correct?
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3A and B only
- 4C and D only
- 5Some other response or combination
Consider these statements about transcription.
A – It starts when DNA polymerase attaches to the promoter.
B – In eukaryotes it occurs on ribosomes in the cytoplasm.
C – The DNA strands are separated by RNA polymerase without DNA helicase.
D – The RNA chain grows in the 5′ → 3′ direction.
E – It converts the codons of mRNA into a sequence of amino acids.
Which of the statements are correct?
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3A and B only
- 4C and D only
- 5Some other response or combination
Consider these plant species.
A – Calophyllum walkeri
B – Mesua ferrea
C – Chrysopogon nodulibarbis
D – Cinnamomum ovalifolium
E – Terminalia chebula
Which are characteristic of the highest-altitude ecosystems (montane forests and grasslands) of Sri Lanka?
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3A and B only
- 4C and D only
- 5Some other response or combination
Consider these statements about secondary treatment of industrial wastewater.
A – Microorganisms in trickling filters oxidise organic matter.
B – Suspended solids are allowed to settle in sedimentation tanks.
C – More than 75% of the organic matter is oxidised.
D – Methane is produced in the trickling filter.
E – The sludge left after treatment is decomposed aerobically.
Which of the statements are correct?
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3A and B only
- 4C and D only
- 5Some other response or combination
(a) Describe the linear (non-cyclic) flow of electrons in the thylakoid membranes during the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis. Include the roles of the two photosystems, photolysis of water, the electron transport chain and the formation of ATP and NADPH.
(b) Explain why plants such as maize and sugar cane (C₄ plants) photosynthesise more efficiently than C₃ plants in hot, dry, brightly lit conditions.
(a) Outline the features by which monocotyledonous and dicotyledonous flowering plants can be told apart, referring to the embryo, roots, leaves, flowers, pollen and stem anatomy.
(b) Explain how water and dissolved minerals move radially across a root from the soil to the xylem along the apoplastic pathway, and the role of the endodermis in this process.
(a) Describe the layers that make up the wall of the human heart and the main features of each layer.
(b) Explain how the heart muscle receives its own blood supply and how this blood drains away. Discuss the causes and consequences of narrowing or blockage of the coronary arteries.
(a) Explain how the human body keeps its blood glucose concentration within the normal range, referring to the hormones involved, their target organs and negative feedback.
(b) Discuss the cause of type 1 diabetes mellitus and the measures used to control it.
(a) Explain the levels by which DNA is packed into chromatin and chromosomes within the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell.
(b) Describe how microorganisms are used in the production of vinegar and of dairy products such as curd, yoghurt and cheese.
Write short notes on: (a) Polygenic inheritance
Write short notes on: (b) Desertification
Write short notes on: (c) Control of filariasis
Answer key — this booklet
Answer key — original 2023 (2024) paper (official Department of Examinations key)
For students working from the original paper.
Paper I — reviews
Paper II — marking points
- Linear electron flow uses both photosystems (PS II and PS I) in the thylakoid membranes of the grana
- Each photosystem has a reaction-centre complex surrounded by light-harvesting complexes (antenna pigments)
- The reaction centre holds a special pair of chlorophyll a molecules and a primary electron acceptor; PS II's pair is P680 (absorbs best at 680 nm) and PS I's is P700
- Light energy passed in from the antenna excites P680, and the excited electron is captured by the primary acceptor of PS II, leaving P680⁺
- An enzyme splits water into 2H⁺, 2e⁻ and ½O₂ (O₂ released); these electrons replace those lost from P680⁺
- Excited electrons pass from PS II along an electron transport chain (plastoquinone → cytochrome complex → plastocyanin) to PS I
- The energy released as electrons fall to lower energy pumps H⁺ into the thylakoid space; ATP synthase then makes ATP (photophosphorylation, chemiosmosis)
- These electrons fill the gap in P700⁺ left when light excited PS I and its electrons were passed to PS I's primary acceptor
- Electrons from PS I travel through a second short chain (ferredoxin)
- NADP⁺ reductase transfers them to NADP⁺, reducing it to NADPH
- Net products: ATP, NADPH (for the Calvin cycle) and O₂
- Kranz anatomy: mesophyll cells and bundle-sheath cells are closely linked by many plasmodesmata
- CO₂ is fixed twice: first in the mesophyll, then in the bundle sheath
- In mesophyll cells PEP carboxylase fixes CO₂ onto PEP (phosphoenolpyruvate), forming 4-C oxaloacetate/malate
- PEP carboxylase has a high affinity for CO₂ and no affinity for O₂, so it works even when stomata are partly closed and CO₂ is low
- The 4-C compound is exported to the bundle sheath and decarboxylated there, releasing (concentrating) CO₂
- Rubisco refixes this CO₂ in the Calvin cycle
- Rubisco is spatially separated in the bundle sheath, where CO₂ concentration is high
- So rubisco's oxygenase activity and photorespiration (a wasteful process) are suppressed
- Result: higher net carbon fixation and efficiency, especially in hot, dry, high-light conditions
- The two groups of flowering plants are monocots and eudicots/dicots
- Embryo: monocots have one cotyledon, dicots two
- Roots: monocots have a fibrous root system, dicots a taproot system
- Leaf venation: parallel in monocots, reticulate (net) in dicots
- Flower parts: monocot flowers are trimerous (multiples of three), dicot flowers are tetramerous or pentamerous
- Perianth: in monocots it is not separated into calyx and corolla (tepals); in dicots it usually is
- Pollen: monocot pollen has one aperture, dicot pollen three
- Stem vascular bundles: scattered in monocots, arranged in a ring in dicots
- Monocot bundles have no cambium (closed); dicot bundles have cambium (open), so dicots can show secondary growth
- The apoplast is everything outside the plasma membranes
- It includes cell walls, extracellular spaces and the lumens of dead cells (xylem vessel elements and tracheids)
- Water and solutes move along the continuous cell walls and extracellular spaces without crossing membranes
- Soil solution enters the hydrophilic walls of root hairs and epidermis, giving access to the apoplast
- From there water and minerals diffuse into the cortex along cell-wall matrices and intercellular spaces
- At the endodermis the Casparian strip blocks the apoplastic route
- The Casparian strip is a belt of suberin in the radial and transverse walls of endodermal cells
- Suberin is impervious to water and dissolved minerals
- So water and minerals cannot enter the vascular cylinder by the apoplast
- They must cross the selectively permeable plasma membrane of endodermal cells, entering the symplast
- This lets the plant control mineral uptake and keep unwanted or toxic substances out
- After the endodermis, solutes may re-enter the apoplast (pericycle/xylem walls) and reach the xylem vessels and tracheids
- The heart wall has three layers: pericardium (outer), myocardium (middle) and endocardium (inner)
- The pericardium is a double sac: an outer fibrous pericardium and an inner serous pericardium (parietal and visceral layers with pericardial fluid between them)
- The myocardium is the thickest layer and is made of cardiac muscle
- A network of specialised conducting fibres (SA/AV nodes, bundle of His, Purkinje fibres) runs through the myocardium
- Myocardium is thickest in the left ventricle, then the right ventricle, and thinnest in the atria
- The endocardium is a smooth inner membrane of flattened (squamous) epithelial cells (endothelium)
- The endocardium lines the chambers and covers the valves
- The right and left coronary arteries arise from the aorta just beyond the aortic valve
- They carry oxygen-rich blood to the heart muscle
- Their branches run in the heart wall and form a capillary network
- Most deoxygenated blood collects into the cardiac veins, which join to form the coronary sinus
- The coronary sinus opens into the right atrium; the remaining venous blood drains through small venous channels straight into the heart chambers
- Blockage is mainly due to atherosclerosis: thickening and hardening of the arterial lining from fatty (cholesterol) deposits
- A blood clot (thrombus) can make the blockage worse
- Depending on where the block is and how complete, the heart muscle beyond it is starved of O₂ and nutrients
- Partial narrowing causes chest pain (angina pectoris)
- Complete blockage causes a heart attack (myocardial infarction): cardiac muscle is damaged or dies
- This can cause an abnormal heart rhythm, and the heart may fail as a pump
- Vital organs such as the brain then lose their oxygen supply, and the attack can be fatal if not treated in time
- Normal fasting blood glucose is about 70–110 mg/100 mL
- It is kept stable by the opposing actions of insulin and glucagon from the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas
- A rise above normal (e.g. after a meal) stimulates β cells to secrete insulin
- Insulin increases glucose uptake into body cells and its use in respiration to make ATP
- Insulin promotes conversion of glucose to glycogen (glycogenesis) in the liver and skeletal muscle
- Insulin promotes conversion of glucose to fatty acids and fat storage in adipose tissue
- As glucose returns to normal, insulin secretion falls (negative feedback)
- A fall below normal stimulates α cells to secrete glucagon
- Glucagon stimulates glycogen breakdown (glycogenolysis) in the liver and release of glucose into the blood
- Glucagon stimulates glucose formation from amino acids and glycerol (gluconeogenesis) and fat breakdown
- As glucose rises back to normal, glucagon secretion falls (negative feedback)
- Glucose level itself acts directly on the islet cells: a homeostatic negative-feedback loop
- An autoimmune disorder, usually starting in children or young adults
- The body's own immune system destroys the β cells of the islets of Langerhans
- This causes severe deficiency or absence of insulin
- Blood glucose rises above the renal threshold, so glucose appears in the urine (glycosuria)
- Control: meals low in carbohydrate and fat (planned diet)
- Control: regular monitoring of blood glucose
- Control: regular (periodic) insulin injections for life
- DNA is packed loosely as euchromatin (active) or tightly as heterochromatin
- Packing happens at four levels
- Level 1: the double helix winds around an octamer of histones, forming nucleosomes ('beads on a string', about 10 nm)
- Neighbouring nucleosomes are joined by linker DNA
- Level 2: nucleosomes coil and pack in a spiral, forming a 30 nm chromatin fibre
- Level 3: the 30 nm fibre forms looped domains attached to a non-histone protein scaffold, about 300 nm thick
- Level 4: looped domains coil and fold further, compacting into a metaphase chromatid about 700 nm thick
- The highest compaction is reached during mitosis/meiosis (metaphase chromosomes)
- Vinegar is made in two stages: alcoholic fermentation, then acetic-acid (acetous) fermentation
- Sugars in malt, palm sap, sugar cane or fruit juices are fermented by Saccharomyces cerevisiae to ethanol
- Under highly aerobic conditions, Acetobacter and Gluconobacter partly (incompletely) oxidise ethanol to acetic acid
- Dairy products are made by fermenting milk
- Lactic acid bacteria ferment lactose to lactic acid, which sours and coagulates the milk
- Pasteurisation kills native bacteria, so starter cultures must be added
- Curd/yoghurt is made by a mixed culture: Lactobacillus bulgaricus, Lactococcus lactis and Streptococcus thermophilus
- Lactobacillus bulgaricus adds flavour (aroma)
- Streptococcus species add creamy texture and flavour
- Cheese is made using Streptococcus (lactic starter) and ripened with Penicillium moulds
- Inheritance of quantitative (continuously varying) characters
- Caused by the additive (cumulative) effect of two or more genes
- Examples: human height, skin colour, intelligence
- Skin-colour model: three genes A, B, C, each with a 'dark' allele adding one unit of darkness, incompletely dominant over a, b, c
- AABBCC gives very dark skin, aabbcc very light, and AaBbCc intermediate
- The number of possible genotypes and phenotypes in the offspring depends on how many genes are involved
- Phenotypes in a population form a normal (bell-shaped) distribution
- Most individuals show intermediate phenotypes; extremes are rare
- Environment also modifies the expression (multifactorial)
- Land degradation in arid, semi-arid and dry sub-humid regions
- Caused by climate change (drought, rising temperature)
- Caused also by human activity: deforestation
- Over-exploitation of water and soil (overgrazing, over-cultivation)
- Uncontrolled mining
- Excessive agrochemical use and poor land management
- Effects: fewer ecosystem services and more water scarcity
- Loss of biodiversity and habitats
- Reduced food security; harm to human health and well-being; possible migration
- Lower carbon-storage capacity of soil and vegetation
- Lymphatic filariasis is caused by Wuchereria bancrofti and spread by Culex mosquitoes
- Personal protection against mosquito bites: bed nets, repellents, long sleeves and trousers
- Remove breeding sites: repair broken tanks, clean drains, stop garbage dumping in drains
- Chemically control aquatic plants in reservoirs (Mansonia breeding)
- Avoid creating new breeding sites
- Biological control: larvivorous fish such as guppy or nalahandaya in water bodies
- Screen the population using night blood films (microfilariae circulate at night)
- Find symptom-free carriers and treat them (mass drug administration, e.g. DEC/albendazole)
- Monitor vector mosquito populations for infectivity (entomological surveillance)
Scan notes: New syllabus. The file contains Paper I (MCQs 1–50) and only Part B essays (Q5–10) of Paper II; Part A structured questions (Q1–4) are not in the scan, so they are omitted. Paper I answers follow the official Department of Examinations key. Q30: the correct answer (9 genotypes) is not among the options, so all answers were accepted. Q42: both 1 and 5 were accepted. Possible concerns with the key: Q8, placing 'origin of cyanobacteria' last is unusual, since cyanobacteria-like organisms produced the early O₂. Q18, whale–barnacle is often given as commensalism in textbooks, so A and C (option 5) could be argued. Q7 option (2) on H⁺ release could also be argued. The Q5(a) marking-scheme OCR was largely illegible, so its points are written from standard NIE content.
G.C.E. (Advanced Level) — Biology
Current syllabus (2019 onward) · Re-set practice paper
Every question tests the same concept as question of the same number in the 2024 paper, re-written by MEDVision. Source coverage: Paper I + full Paper II.
Which level of biological organisation is the smallest that can carry out every characteristic of life on its own?
- 1A molecule of DNA
- 2A mitochondrion
- 3A cell
- 4A tissue
- 5An organ system
Which one of the following statements about carbohydrates is correct?
- 1Sucrose, formed from glucose and fructose, is a reducing disaccharide.
- 2A polymer of galacturonic acid is a major structural component of the middle lamella of plant cells.
- 3Fructose is classified as an aldohexose.
- 4Chitin is the principal energy reserve stored in fungal hyphae.
- 5Amylopectin is an unbranched polymer of beta-glucose.
Which of the following correctly describes a feature of the mitochondrion?
- 1Its circular DNA is located in the intermembrane space.
- 2Conversion of one pyruvate to acetyl CoA in the matrix releases two molecules of CO2.
- 3The electron transport carriers and ATP synthase are located in the folded inner membrane (cristae).
- 4All enzymes of the Krebs cycle are attached to the outer membrane.
- 5The matrix contains 80S ribosomes identical to those of the cytosol.
Which event takes place in both the first and the second telophase of meiosis?
- 1Synapsis of homologous chromosomes
- 2Uncoiling of chromosomes into chromatin as nuclear envelopes may re-form
- 3Separation of sister chromatids to opposite poles
- 4Exchange of segments between non-sister chromatids
- 5Assembly of new spindle fibres from the centrosomes
When rubisco fixes O2 instead of CO2, the glycolate formed in the chloroplast is processed further in which two other organelles?
- 1Golgi apparatus and lysosomes
- 2Peroxisomes and mitochondria
- 3Smooth ER and mitochondria
- 4Glyoxysomes and the nucleus
- 5Vacuole and Golgi apparatus
Which three-carbon sugar produced in the Calvin cycle is exported from the stroma and used to build glucose and sucrose?
- 1Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
- 23-phosphoglycerate
- 3Ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate
- 4Phosphoenolpyruvate
- 51,3-bisphosphoglycerate
During glycolysis of one glucose molecule, what are the total (gross) numbers of ATP formed by substrate-level phosphorylation and NADH formed, respectively?
- 12 ATP and 2 NADH
- 24 ATP and 2 NADH
- 32 ATP and 4 NADH
- 44 ATP and 4 NADH
- 52.5 ATP and 1 NADH
Which statement about vascular plants is correct?
- 1All vascular plants reproduce by seeds.
- 2Microphylls typically contain a network of branched veins.
- 3Stomata are found only in vascular plants.
- 4The earliest ancestors of vascular plants had well-developed roots.
- 5In certain lycophytes the gametophyte grows underground and relies on symbiotic fungi.
Consider these statements about gametophytes.
A - In Marchantia, male and female sex organs are borne on separate thalli.
B - The fern prothallus is a free-living, photosynthetic gametophyte.
C - In cycads the gametophyte is greatly reduced and depends on the sporophyte.
Which of the above is/are correct?
- 1A only
- 2B only
- 3A and B only
- 4B and C only
- 5A, B and C
Animal X has calcareous plates beneath its skin, a water vascular system and a true coelom. Animal Y has a shell secreted by a mantle, an open circulatory system and gills in a mantle cavity. X and Y most likely belong, respectively, to
- 1Chordata and Arthropoda
- 2Echinodermata and Mollusca
- 3Annelida and Mollusca
- 4Echinodermata and Arthropoda
- 5Nematoda and Mollusca
The first animal phylum in which nervous tissue is concentrated at the anterior end of the body has which feature?
- 1A true coelom
- 2Radial symmetry
- 3A simple brain of cerebral ganglia connected to longitudinal nerve cords
- 4A segmented body with jointed appendages
- 5A muscular foot for locomotion
Match each plant cell type with its main function.
Cell types: A - Parenchyma; B - Sclerenchyma fibres; C - Vessel elements; D - Collenchyma
Functions: P - Conduction of water; Q - Photosynthesis and food storage; R - Rigid support in mature organs; S - Flexible support in young growing stems
Which response gives all the correct pairs?
- 1A-P, B-R, C-Q, D-S
- 2A-Q, B-S, C-P, D-R
- 3A-Q, B-R, C-P, D-S
- 4A-R, B-Q, C-S, D-P
- 5A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q
Which statement about meristems in flowering plants is correct?
- 1The cork cambium, a lateral meristem, gives rise to the periderm.
- 2Apical meristems are responsible for the increase in girth of woody stems.
- 3The shoot apical meristem produces secondary xylem inward and secondary phloem outward.
- 4Grass leaves regrow after grazing because of lateral meristems at their tips.
- 5Meristematic cells remain active continuously and never become dormant.
Which statement about loss of water from plants is correct?
- 1Transpiration increases as the relative humidity of the air rises.
- 2Guttation through hydathodes depends on positive root pressure and is seen mainly in the early morning.
- 3Most water is lost through the cuticle rather than through stomata.
- 4Guard cells that lose turgor cause stomata to open widely.
- 5Guttation is driven by the transpiration pull in the xylem.
A plant shows (i) general yellowing of leaves, (ii) necrosis of leaf tips caused by accumulation of urea, and (iii) death of shoot apical meristems. Which elements are most likely deficient in (i), (ii) and (iii) respectively?
- 1Mo, Ni and Fe
- 2S, Ni and B
- 3Ni, S and B
- 4Cl, Mo and Ni
- 5S, Fe and Ni
A mature angiosperm embryo sac contains eight nuclei within seven cells. Which description of their distribution is correct?
- 1Two antipodals, two synergids, one egg and two central cells
- 2Three antipodals, three synergids, one egg and one central cell
- 3Three antipodals, one synergid, one egg and two central cells
- 4Three antipodals, two synergids, one egg and one central cell with two polar nuclei
- 5Two antipodals, three synergids, one egg and one central cell with two polar nuclei
Which pair of plant hormones promotes the germination of seeds?
A - Gibberellins
B - Abscisic acid
C - Cytokinins
D - Auxins
- 1A and B
- 2A and C
- 3B and C
- 4B and D
- 5C and D
Consider these statements about supporting tissues in mammals.
A - Cartilage cells produce a matrix that includes collagen fibres.
B - Osteocytes are the cells that lay down new bone matrix.
C - Haversian systems are the structural units of compact bone.
Which of the above is/are correct?
- 1A only
- 2A and B only
- 3A and C only
- 4B and C only
- 5A, B and C
Which one of the following site - enzyme - substrate combinations in human digestion is correct?
- 1Small intestine - pancreatic amylase - starch
- 2Stomach - trypsin - proteins
- 3Mouth - pepsin - proteins
- 4Small intestine - pepsin - proteins
- 5Large intestine - amylase - starch
Which statement about vitamins is correct?
- 1Vitamin K is required to maintain epithelial tissues.
- 2Vitamin E is a water-soluble antioxidant.
- 3Vitamin C deficiency causes night blindness.
- 4A deficiency of vitamin A can weaken immune defences.
- 5Vitamin D is essential for blood clotting.
In the human cardiac cycle, contraction of both atria that empties them into the ventricles results directly from the spread of excitation from which structure?
- 1Purkinje fibres
- 2Bundle of His
- 3AV node
- 4SA node
- 5Right and left bundle branches
Which statement about breathing and gas exchange in humans is correct?
- 1Stretch receptors in the lungs send impulses that inhibit inspiration when the lungs are over-inflated.
- 2A rise in blood pH stimulates deeper and faster breathing.
- 3Pulmonary surfactant increases the surface tension of alveolar fluid.
- 4Air leaves the lungs when the pressure inside them falls below atmospheric pressure.
- 5In systemic capillaries CO2 diffuses from the blood into the tissues.
Which statement about the human kidneys is correct?
- 1The left kidney lies lower than the right kidney.
- 2Most nephrons are juxtamedullary nephrons.
- 3The kidneys secrete a hormone that stimulates the formation of red blood cells.
- 4The juxtaglomerular apparatus releases renin in response to a rise in blood pressure.
- 5The kidneys regulate blood pH by reabsorbing H+ ions.
At a chemical synapse, what directly causes synaptic vesicles to fuse with the presynaptic membrane and release their transmitter?
- 1An outflow of K+ from the presynaptic terminal
- 2Entry of Ca2+ into the presynaptic terminal
- 3A rise in Ca2+ concentration in the postsynaptic cell
- 4An outflow of Na+ from the presynaptic terminal
- 5Entry of Cl- into the synaptic cleft
Which of the following skin mechanoreceptors lie close to the skin surface?
A - Merkel discs
B - Pacinian corpuscles
C - Meissner's corpuscles
D - Free nerve endings
- 1A, B and C only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3B, C and D only
- 4A, B and D only
- 5B and D only
A person stands in a cold wind and the core body temperature begins to fall. Which combination of responses is expected?
(skin arterioles / hair erector muscles / adrenaline secretion)
- 1Dilate / relax / increases
- 2Constrict / relax / decreases
- 3Constrict / contract / increases
- 4Dilate / contract / increases
- 5Constrict / contract / decreases
Which statement about asexual reproduction in animals is correct?
- 1Drone honey bees develop from fertilised eggs.
- 2Budding in Hydra involves both meiosis and mitosis.
- 3Offspring produced by fragmentation of an annelid differ genetically from the parent.
- 4Planarians can produce new individuals by fragmentation followed by regeneration.
- 5Asexual reproduction is most advantageous when the environment changes rapidly.
Match the human male accessory glands with their secretions.
Glands: A - Seminal vesicles; B - Prostate gland; C - Bulbourethral (Cowper's) glands
Secretions: P - Thick alkaline fluid with mucus and fructose; Q - Thin milky fluid with citrate and anticoagulant enzymes; R - Small volume of clear, alkaline lubricating mucus
Which response gives all the correct pairs?
- 1A-Q, B-P, C-R
- 2A-R, B-Q, C-P
- 3A-P, B-Q, C-R
- 4A-P, B-R, C-Q
- 5A-Q, B-R, C-P
A student describes three human vertebrae.
X - ring-shaped, with no body (centrum) and no spinous process
Y - body bearing facets for the heads of ribs, and transverse processes with facets for rib tubercles
Z - very large, kidney-shaped body with a short, broad spinous process
X, Y and Z are most likely, respectively,
- 1axis, a thoracic vertebra and a lumbar vertebra
- 2atlas, a lumbar vertebra and a thoracic vertebra
- 3axis, a lumbar vertebra and a sacral vertebra
- 4atlas, a thoracic vertebra and a lumbar vertebra
- 5atlas, the seventh cervical vertebra and a lumbar vertebra
Which pair of processes are both found on the temporal bone of the human skull?
- 1Zygomatic process and coronoid process
- 2Condyloid process and mastoid process
- 3Styloid process and zygomatic process
- 4Coronoid process and condyloid process
- 5Mastoid process and coronoid process
Two pure-breeding white-flowered strains of a plant are crossed. All F1 plants have purple flowers, and the F2 shows 9 purple : 7 white. This inheritance pattern is
- 1dominant epistasis
- 2incomplete dominance
- 3recessive epistasis (complementary gene action)
- 4multiple alleles
- 5polygenic inheritance
In a plant, purple flower (P), axial flower position (A) and inflated pod (I) are dominant over white (p), terminal (a) and constricted (i). Assuming independent assortment, what is the probability of an offspring with genotype PpAAIi from the cross PpAaIi x PPAaii?
- 11/8
- 21/16
- 31/4
- 43/16
- 51/32
Which enzyme, obtained from retroviruses, synthesises a DNA strand using a mature mRNA molecule as the template?
- 1DNA ligase
- 2RNA polymerase
- 3Primase
- 4Restriction endonuclease
- 5Reverse transcriptase
During excision repair of DNA, what is the specific role of the nuclease?
- 1Cutting out the damaged or mismatched stretch of nucleotides
- 2Sealing the final nick in the sugar-phosphate backbone
- 3Adding the correct nucleotides to fill the gap
- 4Unwinding the double helix by breaking hydrogen bonds
- 5Adding an RNA primer to start replacement synthesis
Match these Sri Lankan ecosystems with a characteristic feature of their vegetation.
Ecosystems: A - Savanna; B - Sand dunes; C - Tropical montane forest; D - Tropical thorn forest
Features: P - Dense shrub layer; Q - Stunted vegetation; R - Thick grass cover; S - Scattered large trees in a scrub matrix
Which response gives all the correct pairs?
- 1A-S, B-Q, C-P, D-R
- 2A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S
- 3A-Q, B-R, C-P, D-S
- 4A-R, B-Q, C-P, D-S
- 5A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q
Consider these statements about the chickenpox (varicella) vaccine.
A - It contains a live virus whose ability to cause disease has been weakened.
B - It is made only of purified viral proteins.
C - It produces immunity resembling that after natural infection.
D - The virus in it cannot multiply in the recipient.
Which of the above are correct?
- 1A and B only
- 2A and C only
- 3B and D only
- 4C and D only
- 5A, C and D only
Which of the following fermentation process - microorganism pairs is/are correct?
A - Sucrose to ethanol: Lactobacillus
B - Milk sugar to lactic acid: Acetobacter
C - Sucrose to citric acid: Aspergillus niger
D - Ethanol to acetic acid: Saccharomyces
- 1A only
- 2C only
- 3B and C only
- 4C and D only
- 5A and D only
Match these solid waste management methods with an outcome.
Methods: A - Anaerobic decomposition of organic waste; B - Sorting and recycling; C - Sanitary landfilling
Outcomes: P - Reduction in the volume of waste; Q - Production of energy for electricity; R - Fewer water-holding containers in which dengue vectors breed
Which response gives all the correct pairs?
- 1A-P, B-R, C-Q
- 2A-R, B-Q, C-P
- 3A-Q, B-P, C-R
- 4A-Q, B-R, C-P
- 5A-R, B-P, C-Q
Which pair of food preservation methods actually kills microorganisms rather than merely stopping their growth?
- 1Refrigeration and dehydration
- 2Salting and smoking
- 3Freezing and adding sugar
- 4Pickling in vinegar and sun-drying
- 5Heat sterilisation (canning) and gamma irradiation
Which of the following influence the spread of lymphatic filariasis within a community?
A - How often people are bitten by the vector mosquitoes
B - The number of people carrying microfilariae
C - The breeding and biting habits of the vector
D - The ABO blood groups of the residents
- 1A and B only
- 2B, C and D only
- 3A, B and C only
- 4A, B and D only
- 5A, B, C and D
Which of the following statements about cell junctions are correct?
A - Gap junctions that allow ions to pass between cells are common in animal embryos.
B - Tight junctions form a seal that stops extracellular fluid leaking between cells.
C - Plasmodesmata are non-living pores in the walls of adjacent plant cells.
D - Desmosomes are communicating junctions that transfer chemical signals.
E - Gap junctions are anchored to intermediate filaments.
- 1A only
- 2A and B only
- 3A, B and D only
- 4B and C only
- 5A, B and E only
Which of the following organism - approximate time pairings are correct?
A - Earliest prokaryotic life: about 3.5 billion years ago
B - First oxygen-releasing photosynthetic prokaryotes: about 2.7 billion years ago
C - First eukaryotic cells: about 2.6 billion years ago
D - Earliest multicellular eukaryotes (small algae): about 1.2 billion years ago
E - First land plants: about 2 billion years ago
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A, B and C only
- 3A and B only
- 4B, C and D only
- 5A, B, D and E only
Which of the following statements about the leaves of a monocot such as maize are correct?
A - The mesophyll is not differentiated into palisade and spongy layers.
B - The veins run parallel to one another.
C - Stomata are restricted to the lower epidermis.
D - The palisade mesophyll is two layered.
E - Bulliform cells are never present in the epidermis.
- 1A, B and C only
- 2B and C only
- 3A, B and E only
- 4A and B only
- 5C and D only
A patient with blood group A Rh-positive needs a transfusion. Which of the following donor groups are compatible?
A - A Rh-negative
B - O Rh-positive
C - B Rh-negative
D - AB Rh-positive
E - O Rh-negative
- 1A and E only
- 2A, B and C only
- 3A, B and E only
- 4B, D and E only
- 5A, B, D and E only
Which of the following function - brain region pairs in humans are correct?
A - Regulation of hunger and thirst: hypothalamus
B - Visual and auditory reflexes: midbrain
C - Balance and coordination of skilled movements: cerebellum
D - Control of heart rate: thalamus
E - Daily sleep-wake rhythm: medulla oblongata
- 1A and B only
- 2A, B and C only
- 3B, C and D only
- 4A, C and E only
- 5C, D and E only
Which of the following statements about oogenesis in humans are correct?
A - Primordial germ cells arise outside the gonad, in the yolk sac wall, and migrate to the developing ovary.
B - Oogonia multiply by mitosis during foetal life.
C - Primary oocytes complete the first meiotic division before birth.
D - The secondary oocyte is arrested at prophase II.
E - Meiosis II is completed at ovulation without sperm entry.
- 1A only
- 2A, B and D only
- 3B and C only
- 4A and B only
- 5A, B and E only
Which of the following statements about DNA sequencing are correct?
A - It determines the exact order of nucleotides in a DNA molecule.
B - It can identify mutations present in tumour cells.
C - It helps to detect carriers of recessive genetic disorders.
D - It has no use in forensic identification.
E - It showed that the human genome contains no repeated sequences.
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A and C only
- 3B, C and E only
- 4A, B and C only
- 5A, B, C, D and E
Which of the following statements about microorganisms are correct?
A - Fungi obtain energy by oxidising organic compounds.
B - Some yeasts multiply by budding and others by fission.
C - Acetobacter is a strict anaerobe.
D - Akinetes are the sites of nitrogen fixation in cyanobacteria.
E - Purple sulphur bacteria are chemoautotrophs.
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A only
- 3B and E only
- 4A, C and E only
- 5A and B only
Which of the following statements about invasive alien plant species are correct?
A - They can change the values and services of the ecosystems they invade.
B - They can establish only where environmental conditions vary little.
C - They may increase the frequency or intensity of fires.
D - Some release chemicals or cast shade that prevents native seeds from germinating.
E - They reduce ecosystem diversity but leave genetic diversity unchanged.
- 1A, B and C only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3C, D and E only
- 4A and D only
- 5A, C, D and E only
Each set below lists Sri Lankan plants from three ecosystems. In which sets are the ecosystems arranged in order of increasing annual rainfall?
A - Heeressa, Kaluwara, Walkurundu
B - Gini-andara, Palu, tussock grass
C - Keena, Palu, Gini-andara
D - Palu, Heeressa, Keena
E - Tussock grass, Weera, Heeressa
- 1A only
- 2A, B and D only
- 3A and B only
- 4B and C only
- 5A, B and E only
(i) State the main function of serum albumin in blood plasma.
(ii) (a) Explain why amino acids can behave as both acids and bases. (b) Give two ways in which fats of animal origin differ from fats of plant origin.
(iii) (a) Name the alpha-helical protein that makes up intermediate filaments in epidermal cells. (b) Name the polymer found in the walls of eubacteria and cyanobacteria but absent from archaeal walls.
(iv) (a) In a compound light microscope, what does the eyepiece lens magnify? (b) What kind of substances are used to stain sections for transmission electron microscopy?
(v) List two functions shared by rough and smooth ER, and two functions performed only by smooth ER.
(i) Name the glycoprotein that is most abundant in the extracellular matrix of animal tissues.
(ii) (a) Name the cell component responsible for (1) removing waste material from a cell and (2) cytoplasmic streaming. (b) Which organelle supplies the vesicles that build the cell plate in a dividing plant cell?
(iii) In which stage of mitosis are the chromosomes lined up at the equator of the cell?
(iv) Give two examples of human cells that remain in the G0 phase.
(v) (a) Give the exact location in the cell of (1) glycolysis and (2) the formation of oxaloacetate in the Krebs cycle. (b) What is the final hydrogen acceptor in (1) alcoholic fermentation and (2) lactic acid fermentation?
(i) (a) Define an enzyme cofactor. (b) Give two examples of inorganic cofactors.
(ii) (a) Explain how ADP acts as an allosteric activator of an enzyme. (b) Name a reagent used to follow the digestion of starch by amylase.
(iii) (a) In which part of the chloroplast are the photosystems found? (b) Give the absorption peaks of the reaction-centre chlorophyll a of photosystem I and photosystem II.
(iv) Give three differences between cyclic and non-cyclic (linear) electron flow.
(v) Name the three eras of the Phanerozoic eon.
(i) List five features that organisms of domain Eukarya share with some or all members of domain Archaea.
(ii) Apart from cellulose, name three substances found in the cell walls of protists, giving an organism or group that contains each.
(iii) Name the parts that make up an ovule of a seed plant.
(iv) List five external features of an Ascaris specimen that identify it as a member of phylum Nematoda.
(i) Give two functions of epidermal hairs (trichomes) in plants.
(ii) What makes up the symplastic pathway of radial water movement in roots?
(iii) In what chemical form do plants absorb sulphur?
(iv) Give the advantage of internal fertilisation for land plants.
(v) What are statoliths, and where are they found in vascular plants?
(i) Describe the features of skeletal muscle tissue visible with a light microscope.
(ii) List the roles of the human tongue in nutrition.
(iii) Using a simple labelled flow diagram, show the direction of blood flow in the single circulation of a fish.
(iv) Explain how fluid and proteins that leave blood capillaries are returned to the bloodstream.
(v) (a) Trace the route of a red blood cell from the inferior vena cava to the aorta. (b) Explain why respiratory pigments evolved in large, active animals.
(i) (a) Explain why many animals need specialised respiratory structures. (b) How does total lung capacity differ from vital capacity?
(ii) Name two types of antigen-presenting cells in humans.
(iii) (a) Why is excreting ammonia advantageous for many aquatic invertebrates? (b) By what process is most water reabsorbed in human nephrons? (c) Where do annelid nephridia open internally?
(iv) (a) Define chronic kidney disease. (b) Name an endocrine disorder that can lead to kidney failure.
(v) (a) Describe the organisation of the arthropod nervous system. (b) From which region of the embryonic brain do the pons and the pineal body develop?
(i) (a) Where are the neuron cell bodies located in the human cerebrum? (b) Give the sequence of components in a reflex arc. (c) Name a mental disorder characterised by a distorted perception of reality.
(ii) (a) List the cell layers of the retina from the innermost layer outward. (b) Explain how a single image is perceived in binocular vision.
(iii) Explain what is perceived as sound during hearing.
(iv) (a) Define an endocrine gland. (b) Give reasons why a person may develop hypothyroidism.
(v) (a) Explain how LH promotes sperm production. (b) Describe the changes in the uterus that prepare it to receive a fertilised ovum.
(i) (a) Name the two hormones that prepare the uterus for implantation. (b) Name the extra-embryonic membrane linked with the development of the urinary bladder.
(ii) Name a viral sexually transmitted infection other than HIV.
(iii) (a) Name a group of animals that move by jet propulsion of water. (b) Explain the role of Ca2+ in sarcomere shortening.
(iv) (a) Give the functions of the paranasal sinuses. (b) What structural feature of the human hand allows a power grip? (c) Name the joint that bears body weight when standing.
(v) (a) Define a gene. (b) Explain what is meant by mutation breeding in crops.
(i) Part of a DNA coding strand and the amino acids it codes for are shown below, with two substituted versions.
Original: CGT TTT TTA CCT ATA (Arg-Phe-Leu-Pro-Ile)
Version Y: CGT TTT TCA CCT ATA (Arg-Phe-Ser-Pro-Ile)
Version Z: CGT TTT TTG CCT ATA (Arg-Phe-Leu-Pro-Ile)
(a) Name the type of point mutation in Y and in Z. (b) Write the mRNA sequence for the original coding strand.
(ii) (a) What is a vector in gene technology? (b) Give two examples of cloning vectors.
(iii) Explain why the recycling of nutrients in ecosystems is important.
(iv) Name three biomes in which temperatures reach 35 C or above.
(v) (a) What is meant by the ethical value of biodiversity? (b) State the aim of the Kyoto Protocol.
(i) Name a suitable physical sterilisation method for (a) hospital waste, (b) air in an operating theatre, (c) a heat-sensitive enzyme solution, and (d) an inoculating loop.
(ii) Name a soil bacterial genus that oxidises nitrite to nitrate.
(iii) Give two modes of respiration found in both mycoplasmas and unicellular protists.
(iv) Name a simple stain used to show the shape of bacterial cells.
(v) Using sterile nutrient agar plates and a phenol solution, describe in order how you would test the effect of phenol on airborne microorganisms.
(i) (a) What is the role of methanotrophic microorganisms in the oceans? (b) How do mycorrhizae benefit plants?
(ii) (a) Name two genetically modified microorganisms used to produce human insulin. (b) What causes algal blooms in freshwater bodies?
(iii) (a) Why is activated carbon used in drinking-water treatment? (b) What does the presence of coliforms in drinking water indicate?
(iv) (a) Name a type of microorganism that spoils (1) food kept in a refrigerator at 4 C and (2) sugary foods. (b) Explain how Aspergillus flavus causes food poisoning.
(v) Give two uses of nanosensors in nanomedicine.
Describe how transcription takes place in eukaryotic cells, including the processing of the primary transcript.
Explain the structure of the plasma membrane according to the fluid mosaic model. Include a labelled diagram.
Describe the physical, chemical and immune-type defences that plants use against herbivorous pests and pathogens.
Describe briefly how the liver contributes to human nutrition.
Explain how nervous and hormonal mechanisms regulate digestion in humans.
Outline the main developmental changes in the human foetus during (i) the second trimester and (ii) the third trimester.
Explain the assisted reproductive technologies used to overcome human infertility.
Explain the theory of evolution by natural selection proposed by Darwin and Wallace.
Discuss briefly the causes of global warming.
Write a short note on sex-linked inheritance in humans.
Write a short note on prions.
Write a short note on the uses of stem cells.
Answer key — this booklet
Answer key — original 2024 paper (MEDVision model answers)
For students working from the original paper. Shaded cells: check against the official marking scheme (amber = likely, red = disputed).
Paper I — reviews
Paper II — marking points
- Serum albumin maintains plasma colloid osmotic pressure and carries fatty acids and hormones
- Amino acids have both an acidic –COOH and a basic –NH₂ group, so they act as acid or base (zwitterions)
- Animal fats are mostly saturated and solid at room temperature; plant fats (oils) are mostly unsaturated and liquid
- Intermediate filament protein with α-helix: keratin
- Peptidoglycan (murein) is found in the walls of bacteria and cyanobacteria but not archaea
- The real, inverted, magnified image formed by the objective lens is the object for the eyepiece
- TEM stains are salts of heavy metals (e.g. lead citrate, uranyl acetate, osmium tetroxide)
- Functions of both RER and SER: membrane synthesis, transport and distribution of molecules (vesicle formation)
- SER only: lipid and steroid synthesis, detoxification of drugs and poisons, Ca²⁺ storage, carbohydrate metabolism
- Most abundant ECM glycoprotein: collagen
- Removing residues from the cell: vesicles / exocytosis (secretory vesicles, or lysosomes by exocytosis)
- Cytoplasmic streaming: microfilaments (actin) with myosin
- Cell plate formation: Golgi apparatus (vesicles from the Golgi)
- Chromosomes lie at the cell equator in metaphase
- G0 cells: mature neurons, skeletal and cardiac muscle cells (also liver cells, which can re-enter the cycle)
- Glucose to pyruvate: cytosol
- Oxaloacetate production (Krebs cycle): mitochondrial matrix
- Final H acceptor in ethanol fermentation: acetaldehyde (ethanal)
- Final H acceptor in lactic acid fermentation: pyruvate
- Cofactors are non-protein helpers that bind enzymes and are needed for catalytic activity
- Inorganic cofactors: e.g. Zn²⁺, Fe²⁺/Fe³⁺, Cu²⁺, Mg²⁺, Mn²⁺
- ADP binds an allosteric (regulatory) site away from the active site, stabilises the active form and increases activity (e.g. of phosphofructokinase)
- Indicator for amylase action on starch: iodine solution (I₂/KI)
- Photosystems are located in the thylakoid membranes
- PS I reaction centre (P700) absorbs best at 700 nm; PS II (P680) at 680 nm
- Cyclic flow uses only PS I, whereas linear flow uses PS I and PS II
- Cyclic flow produces no NADPH; electrons return from ferredoxin to the cytochrome complex
- Cyclic flow releases no O₂ (no water photolysis) and makes only ATP
- Phanerozoic eras: Paleozoic, Mesozoic, Cenozoic
- Shared Eukarya–Archaea features: histones bound to DNA in some, introns in some genes
- RNA polymerase of several types; methionine as the initiator amino acid
- Not inhibited by streptomycin or chloramphenicol; no peptidoglycan in the cell wall
- Protist wall substances: silica in diatoms, calcium carbonate in foraminiferans or coccolithophores, cellulose plates in dinoflagellates, pectin/agar/carrageenan in red algae, alginic acid (algin) in brown algae
- Ovule = integument(s) + megasporangium (nucellus) + megaspore/female gametophyte, with a micropyle
- Ascaris external features: unsegmented, elongated cylindrical body
- Tapering ends, bilateral symmetry
- Tough, smooth cuticle
- Terminal mouth (with three lips) and anus; pseudocoelomate
- Sexual dimorphism: male smaller with a curved posterior end
- Trichomes reduce water loss and reflect excess light
- Trichomes deter herbivores by mechanical or chemical defence
- The symplastic route is the continuous cytoplasm of cells linked by plasmodesmata
- Sulphur is taken up as sulphate ions (SO₄²⁻)
- Internal fertilisation protects gametes from drying out on land
- It also allows fertilisation without external water
- Statoliths are specialised amyloplasts containing dense starch grains
- They settle under gravity in root cap (columella) cells and endodermal cells of shoots
- Skeletal muscle under LM: long, unbranched cylindrical fibres with cross striations
- Multinucleate fibres with peripheral nuclei, arranged in parallel bundles
- Tongue: tasting, mixing food with saliva, forming a bolus
- Tongue also pushes the bolus into the pharynx during swallowing and helps chewing (manipulation)
- Fish single circulation: heart (atrium → ventricle) → gill capillaries → body capillaries → veins → heart
- The fish heart pumps only deoxygenated blood
- Excess tissue fluid and proteins enter lymph capillaries, pass through lymph vessels and nodes, and return to blood via the thoracic and right lymphatic ducts into the subclavian veins
- RBC pathway: IVC → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary artery → lungs → pulmonary veins → left atrium → left ventricle → aorta
- Respiratory pigments evolved because large active animals have high O₂ demand and plasma dissolves too little O₂; pigments raise O₂-carrying capacity
- Respiratory structures are needed because diffusion through the body surface is too slow for a large body with a small SA:V ratio and high metabolic rate
- Total lung capacity = vital capacity + residual volume
- Antigen-presenting cells: dendritic cells, macrophages, B cells
- Ammonia is highly soluble and diffuses away into water, so little energy is spent converting it
- Most water is reabsorbed by osmosis (mainly in the PCT)
- Annelid nephridia open internally into the coelom through a ciliated nephrostome
- Chronic kidney disease is a progressive, long-term loss of kidney function (low GFR) lasting more than 3 months
- Endocrine disorder leading to kidney failure: diabetes mellitus
- Arthropod nervous system: a dorsal brain (cerebral ganglia) and a ventral double nerve cord with segmental ganglia
- Pons varolii develops from the metencephalon (hindbrain); the pineal body from the diencephalon (forebrain)
- Cerebral nerve cell bodies lie in the outer cerebral cortex (grey matter) and in the basal nuclei
- Reflex arc: receptor → sensory neuron → interneuron in the CNS → motor neuron → effector
- Disorder with distorted perception of reality: schizophrenia
- Retina from inside: ganglion cells → bipolar cells → photoreceptors (rods, cones) → pigmented epithelium
- Binocular vision: the brain fuses the two overlapping images from the two eyes into one, giving depth perception
- Sound is perceived when pressure waves vibrate the cochlear hair cells; the auditory cortex interprets the impulses
- An endocrine gland is a ductless gland that secretes hormones directly into the blood
- Hypothyroidism is caused by iodine deficiency, autoimmune destruction of the thyroid, or pituitary/hypothalamic failure (low TSH)
- LH stimulates Leydig cells to secrete testosterone, which promotes spermatogenesis in the seminiferous tubules
- Uterine preparation: the endometrium thickens and becomes more vascular, with coiled glands that secrete nutrients (secretory phase)
- Hormones that prepare the uterus: oestrogen and progesterone
- The foetal membrane linked to urinary bladder development is the allantois
- Viral STIs other than HIV: genital herpes (HSV), genital warts (HPV), hepatitis B
- Animals moving by water jet propulsion: cephalopods (squids, octopus); also cnidarian medusae
- Ca²⁺ binds troponin, which shifts tropomyosin and exposes myosin-binding sites on actin so cross-bridges form
- Skull sinuses lighten the skull, warm and humidify air, and give resonance to the voice
- Power grip depends on the opposable thumb (saddle joint at the base of the thumb) and flexible fingers
- Weight-bearing joint when standing: the knee joint (hip and ankle also accepted)
- A gene is a DNA sequence that codes for a functional product (polypeptide or RNA)
- Mutation breeding uses mutagens (radiation, chemicals) to create new heritable variation and then selects useful crop varieties
- Y (TTA→TCA, Leu→Ser) is a missense mutation
- Z (TTA→TTG, still Leu) is a silent mutation
- mRNA: CGU UUU UUA CCU AUA (same as the coding strand with U in place of T)
- A vector is a DNA molecule that carries foreign DNA into a host cell and replicates there
- Cloning vectors: plasmids, bacteriophages (λ), cosmids, BACs, YACs
- Recycling returns limited nutrients to producers so ecosystems can be sustained; without it the elements would be locked up in dead matter
- Biomes reaching 35 °C or above: desert, savanna, tropical dry forest (also chaparral, temperate grassland)
- Ethical value is the belief that every species has an intrinsic right to exist regardless of its use to humans
- The Kyoto Protocol aims to reduce greenhouse gas emissions by industrialised countries, with binding targets, to limit global warming
- Hospital waste: incineration
- Air in operating theatres: UV radiation (or HEPA filtration)
- Enzyme solutions: membrane filtration (0.45 µm filter)
- Inoculation loops: red-heat flaming
- Nitrite (NO₂⁻) to nitrate (NO₃⁻) oxidiser: Nitrobacter
- Respiration modes in both mycoplasma and protists: aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration (facultative anaerobes)
- Simple stain: methylene blue (or crystal violet, safranin)
- Phenol procedure: label two sets of agar plates as test and control
- Soak/apply phenol on the test plates (e.g. phenol-soaked filter paper, or smear phenol); leave the control without phenol
- Open both sets to air for the same time, then close
- Incubate inverted at about 37 °C (or room temperature) for 24–48 h
- Count and compare colonies; fewer colonies around or on the phenol plates show its antimicrobial effect
- Ocean methanotrophs oxidise methane to CO₂, reducing the release of this greenhouse gas
- Mycorrhizae increase the absorptive surface and the uptake of water and minerals (especially phosphate); they also protect against pathogens
- GM organisms that produce insulin: Escherichia coli and Saccharomyces cerevisiae
- Algal blooms result from eutrophication: excess nitrate and phosphate from fertiliser and sewage runoff
- Activated carbon adsorbs organic compounds, odours, tastes and colour from water
- Coliforms in drinking water indicate faecal contamination and possible pathogens
- Food spoiled at 4 °C: psychrophilic/psychrotrophic bacteria (e.g. Pseudomonas, Listeria)
- Sugary food: osmophilic yeasts and moulds
- Aspergillus flavus produces aflatoxin in stored food (e.g. grains, nuts); eating it causes liver damage and cancer
- Nanosensors detect disease biomarkers early (e.g. cancer cells, glucose) and monitor drug delivery and physiological parameters in real time
- Takes place in the nucleus; one DNA strand (template) is copied into RNA
- RNA polymerase II transcribes protein-coding genes
- Initiation: transcription factors bind the promoter (TATA box) and recruit RNA polymerase II to form the initiation complex
- The DNA is unwound locally to open a transcription bubble
- Elongation: the polymerase reads the template 3'→5' and adds ribonucleotides to the 5'→3' end of the growing RNA
- Complementary pairing A–U, T–A, G–C, C–G; no primer is needed
- The DNA rewinds behind the polymerase; several polymerases can transcribe one gene at once
- Termination: transcription passes the polyadenylation signal (AAUAAA) and the pre-mRNA is cleaved and released
- Pre-mRNA processing: a 5' cap (modified guanine) is added
- A poly-A tail is added at the 3' end
- Introns are removed by spliceosomes and exons joined (RNA splicing; alternative splicing possible)
- The mature mRNA leaves through nuclear pores to ribosomes
- Fluid mosaic model (Singer and Nicolson); about 8 nm thick
- Phospholipid bilayer with hydrophilic phosphate heads facing outward and hydrophobic fatty acid tails inward
- Phospholipids move laterally, giving fluidity; unsaturated tails increase fluidity
- Cholesterol in animal membranes buffers fluidity against temperature changes
- Integral proteins span the bilayer (transmembrane) with hydrophobic regions inside it
- Peripheral proteins are loosely bound to the surfaces
- Proteins form a mosaic and work as channels, carriers, pumps, enzymes, receptors and adhesion proteins
- Glycoproteins and glycolipids carry carbohydrate chains on the outer surface only (the glycocalyx), used in cell recognition
- The membrane is asymmetric: inner and outer faces differ
- Cytoskeleton attachment on the inside and ECM attachment on the outside
- The membrane is selectively permeable: small nonpolar molecules pass freely, while ions and polar molecules need proteins
- A labelled diagram is expected
- Physical barriers: cuticle, waxy epidermis, bark/periderm and cell walls block pathogen entry
- Thorns, spines, prickles and trichomes deter herbivores
- Chemical defences: secondary metabolites such as alkaloids (nicotine, caffeine), tannins, terpenoids and phenolics are toxic or distasteful
- Some plants make non-protein amino acids (e.g. canavanine) that disrupt insect proteins
- Volatile compounds released on attack attract predators and parasitoids of herbivores and warn neighbouring plants
- Jasmonic acid signalling induces defence genes after wounding
- Systemin and proteinase inhibitors reduce digestion of plant proteins by insects
- PAMP-triggered immunity: receptors recognise microbial molecules (e.g. flagellin) and trigger broad defences
- Effector-triggered immunity: R genes recognise pathogen effectors (gene-for-gene)
- The hypersensitive response causes localised cell death that isolates the pathogen
- Phytoalexins (antimicrobial compounds), PR proteins and lignin/callose deposition strengthen walls
- Systemic acquired resistance: methyl salicylate/salicylic acid spreads to give long-lasting whole-plant resistance
- Stomatal closure limits pathogen entry
- Receives absorbed nutrients from the intestine through the hepatic portal vein
- Carbohydrates: stores glucose as glycogen (glycogenesis) and releases glucose (glycogenolysis), keeping blood glucose steady
- Gluconeogenesis from amino acids, lactate and glycerol
- Converts galactose and fructose to glucose
- Lipids: synthesises cholesterol, lipoproteins and phospholipids; converts excess carbohydrate to fat
- β-oxidation of fatty acids and ketone body formation
- Proteins: deamination and transamination of amino acids; makes urea from ammonia
- Synthesises plasma proteins (albumin, globulins, fibrinogen, prothrombin)
- Produces bile; bile salts emulsify fats and help absorb fats and fat-soluble vitamins
- Stores vitamins A, D, B₁₂ and K, and minerals such as iron and copper
- Detoxifies harmful substances, drugs and alcohol
- Digestion is regulated by nerves (enteric and autonomic) and by hormones
- Cephalic phase: the sight, smell and taste of food trigger vagal stimulation of salivary and gastric secretion
- Salivation is a reflex controlled by the medulla
- Gastric phase: food stretches the stomach and peptides stimulate G cells to release gastrin into the blood
- Gastrin stimulates gastric juice (HCl, pepsinogen) secretion and gastric motility
- Intestinal phase: acidic chyme in the duodenum triggers secretin release
- Secretin stimulates bicarbonate-rich pancreatic juice and bile production
- Fats and amino acids in the duodenum trigger cholecystokinin (CCK)
- CCK stimulates pancreatic enzyme secretion and gallbladder contraction (bile release)
- Secretin and CCK inhibit gastric secretion and emptying (enterogastric reflex), matching chyme flow to intestinal capacity
- Sympathetic stimulation inhibits and parasympathetic stimulation promotes digestive activity
- Peristalsis is coordinated by the enteric nervous system (myenteric plexus)
- Second trimester (weeks 13–27): rapid growth to about 30 cm
- Movements felt by the mother (quickening) around weeks 16–20
- Heartbeat audible with a stethoscope; bones ossify further
- Lanugo (fine hair) and vernix caseosa cover the skin; eyebrows and eyelashes form
- Eyelids separate and open; foetus active, may suck its thumb
- Third trimester (weeks 28–40): rapid weight gain, mainly fat deposition
- Lungs mature and surfactant production begins, so survival outside the uterus becomes possible
- Brain grows rapidly; the nervous system and reflexes develop
- Body systems become functional; maternal antibodies are transferred
- Lanugo largely disappears and the foetus usually settles head-down
- Grows to about 50 cm and 3–3.5 kg at term
- ART treats infertility by handling gametes or embryos outside the body
- Hormone therapy (e.g. FSH/hCG, clomiphene) induces ovulation or superovulation
- Artificial insemination / IUI: washed sperm are placed in the uterus, useful for low sperm count or cervical problems
- In vitro fertilisation (IVF): oocytes are collected after superovulation and fertilised with sperm in a dish
- Embryos are cultured to the 4–8 cell stage or blastocyst and transferred to the uterus
- IVF is used when fallopian tubes are blocked or for unexplained infertility
- ICSI: a single sperm is injected into the oocyte, used for severe male factor infertility
- GIFT: oocytes and sperm are placed into the fallopian tube
- ZIFT: zygotes are placed into the fallopian tube
- Cryopreservation of sperm, oocytes and embryos for later use
- Donor gametes and surrogacy are used when a partner cannot provide gametes or carry a pregnancy
- Surgical treatment of blocked tubes or varicocele; preimplantation genetic diagnosis to screen embryos
- Darwin and Wallace independently proposed evolution by natural selection (1858); Darwin published On the Origin of Species (1859)
- Observation: populations could grow exponentially (overproduction of offspring)
- Resources are limited, so population sizes stay roughly stable
- Inference: there is a struggle for existence, and many offspring die
- Individuals in a population vary in their traits
- Much of this variation is heritable
- Individuals with traits better suited to the environment survive and reproduce more (survival of the fittest)
- Favourable traits therefore accumulate in the population over generations
- Over long periods this produces adaptation, and new species arise from common ancestors (descent with modification)
- Evidence: fossils, biogeography, comparative anatomy, artificial selection (e.g. Galápagos finches)
- Weakness: the theory could not explain the source of variation or how it is inherited (later supplied by genetics, giving the modern synthesis)
- Global warming is a rise in mean Earth surface temperature caused by an enhanced greenhouse effect
- Greenhouse gases absorb and re-emit infrared radiation from the Earth's surface
- CO₂ comes from burning fossil fuels in industry, transport and power generation
- Deforestation and forest fires reduce CO₂ uptake and release stored carbon
- Methane comes from paddy fields, ruminant livestock, landfills, wetlands and fossil fuel extraction
- Nitrous oxide comes from nitrogen fertilisers and burning fuels
- CFCs and HFCs come from refrigerants and aerosols; they are potent greenhouse gases
- Tropospheric ozone and water vapour also contribute
- Positive feedbacks: melting ice lowers albedo, and thawing permafrost releases methane
- Rapid population growth, urbanisation and industrialisation increase energy demand
- Sex-linked genes are carried on the sex chromosomes, mostly on the non-homologous part of the X (X-linked)
- Males are hemizygous: a single recessive X allele is expressed
- X-linked recessive traits are more common in males
- Examples: red-green colour blindness, haemophilia A, Duchenne muscular dystrophy, G6PD deficiency
- A carrier female (XᴴXʰ) passes the allele to half of her sons, who are affected
- An affected father passes the allele to all his daughters (carriers) and to none of his sons (no male-to-male transmission)
- Trait often skips generations (criss-cross inheritance)
- Y-linked (holandric) genes pass from father to all sons, e.g. SRY, hypertrichosis of the ear
- Prions are infectious, misfolded protein particles that contain no nucleic acid
- The misfolded form (PrPˢᶜ) is rich in β-sheets, while the normal cellular prion protein (PrPᶜ) is rich in α-helices
- Prions replicate by converting normal PrP into the misfolded form, a chain reaction
- They aggregate in nerve tissue, causing spongy degeneration (transmissible spongiform encephalopathies)
- Examples: Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease and kuru in humans, mad cow disease (BSE), scrapie in sheep
- Long incubation period; diseases are fatal and incurable
- Resistant to heat, proteases, radiation and normal sterilisation
- Transmitted by eating infected tissue, contaminated surgical instruments or transplants; some forms are inherited
- Stem cells are unspecialised cells that self-renew and differentiate into specialised cells
- Types: embryonic (pluripotent), adult/tissue (multipotent), induced pluripotent stem cells
- Bone marrow (haematopoietic) stem cell transplantation for leukaemia, lymphoma, thalassaemia and aplastic anaemia
- Regenerative medicine: repair of damaged tissues (heart muscle after infarction, spinal cord injury, burns and skin grafts)
- Potential treatment of Parkinson's disease, type 1 diabetes (β-cell replacement) and retinal degeneration
- Tissue engineering and organ generation for transplantation
- Research on development and disease mechanisms; drug testing and toxicity screening
- Cord blood banking for future therapy
- Ethical concerns about embryonic stem cells; iPS cells avoid embryo destruction
Scan notes: All 50 MCQs and all Paper II questions (Part A Q1–4, Part B Q5–10) are present and legible. OCR was cross-checked against page images for Q19 options, Q32 genotypes/fractions and Q44 blood groups. Q2C(iii) asks for a labelled fish-circulation diagram, which is described in text. Q42 (early-life timeline) and Q50 (Sri Lankan plants by rainfall) depend on NIE-specific data and are low confidence. Q7 hinges on 'total' (gross 4 ATP, 2 NADH) versus net 2 ATP.
G.C.E. (Advanced Level) — Biology
Current syllabus (2019 onward) · Re-set practice paper
Every question tests the same concept as question of the same number in the 2025 paper, re-written by MEDVision. Source coverage: Paper I + full Paper II.
Which one of the following statements about the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell is correct?
- 1The nuclear lamina is a network of protein filaments on the cytoplasmic surface of the outer nuclear membrane.
- 2The nucleolus is enclosed by a membrane of its own.
- 3Chromatin remains condensed as visible chromosomes throughout interphase.
- 4Pore complexes passing through both nuclear membranes control the movement of RNA and proteins between the nucleus and cytoplasm.
- 5The two membranes of the nuclear envelope are about 20–40 µm apart.
The currently accepted scenario of how the first living cells arose on Earth was built from observations and experiments in several fields. Which of the following fields provided that evidence?
A – Physics B – Geology C – Chemistry D – Biology
- 1B and C only
- 2A and C only
- 3A, B and C only
- 4B, C and D only
- 5A, B, C and D
Which of the following correctly describes a characteristic of living organisms?
- 1Growth is any increase in fresh mass, including reversible uptake of water.
- 2Metabolism consists only of the reactions that build complex molecules using energy.
- 3Development is the series of changes an organism goes through during its life span.
- 4Evolution is the change that occurs in a single individual during its lifetime.
- 5Reproduction is essential for the survival of each individual organism.
Consider the following statements on RNA types, each giving a role and a molecular shape.
A – rRNA: combines with proteins to form ribosomes; complex, irregularly folded molecule.
B – tRNA: carries the genetic code from the nucleus to ribosomes; linear molecule.
C – mRNA: brings amino acids to the ribosome; three-looped (clover-leaf) molecule.
Which of the above is/are correct?
- 1A only
- 2B only
- 3A and B only
- 4A and C only
- 5A, B and C
Which of the following are functions carried out by proteins of the plasma membrane?
A – Linking to the cytoskeleton and extracellular matrix to maintain cell shape
B – Forming junctions that join adjacent cells
C – Keeping the membrane fluid at low temperature
D – Binding hormones as specific receptors
- 1A and B only
- 2A and D only
- 3B and C only
- 4A, B and D only
- 5A, B, C and D
Which of the following events take(s) place during mitosis of a diploid somatic cell?
A – Chiasmata form between non-sister chromatids during prophase.
B – Centromeres divide and sister chromatids move to opposite poles during anaphase.
C – Homologous chromosome pairs (bivalents) line up on the equator at metaphase.
- 1A only
- 2B only
- 3C only
- 4A and B only
- 5B and C only
Which of the following statements about enzymes is correct?
- 1Every amino acid of an enzyme forms part of its active site.
- 2Prosthetic groups such as haem are tightly and permanently bound to their enzymes.
- 3Allosteric activators attach to the regulatory site by covalent bonds.
- 4Non-competitive inhibitors compete with the substrate for the active site.
- 5The reaction rate keeps rising in proportion to substrate concentration even after the enzyme is saturated.
Which of the following statements about the photosystems in the thylakoid membrane is correct?
- 1Photosystem II passes its excited electrons directly to NADP⁺ reductase.
- 2The reaction centre of each photosystem contains a special pair of chlorophyll b molecules.
- 3Electrons released by photolysis of water fill the electron hole in P700.
- 4In both photosystems, light energy absorbed by pigments raises electrons to an excited state.
- 5P680 is the reaction-centre chlorophyll of photosystem I.
Viruses are not assigned to any kingdom in biological classification mainly because they
- 1contain either DNA or RNA but never both.
- 2do not have a cellular structure.
- 3multiply only inside living host cells.
- 4are too small to be seen with a light microscope.
- 5lack their own ribosomes.
A land plant produces only one kind of spore. Each spore grows into a free-living gametophyte bearing both antheridia and archegonia, and the conspicuous, long-lived plant is the sporophyte. This plant most likely belongs to the phylum
- 1Bryophyta
- 2Cycadophyta
- 3Anthophyta
- 4Pterophyta
- 5Coniferophyta
In which of the following phyla are the sexes typically separate (dioecious)?
A – Echinodermata
B – Platyhelminthes
C – Nematoda
D – Arthropoda
- 1A and C only
- 2B and D only
- 3C and D only
- 4A, B and C only
- 5A, C and D only
Match each type of wood with its feature.
Type: A – Soft wood; B – Heart wood; C – Hard wood
Feature: P – Contains xylem vessels (wood of angiosperms); Q – Has no xylem vessels; R – Dark, filled with resins and tannins that resist fungal decay; S – Actively conducts water
Which option has all combinations correct?
- 1A-P, B-S, C-Q
- 2A-Q, B-R, C-P
- 3A-Q, B-S, C-P
- 4A-S, B-R, C-Q
- 5A-P, B-R, C-S
Which one of the following lists only tissues that form part of the bark of a secondarily thickened dicot stem?
- 1Cork, cork cambium, secondary phloem and crushed primary phloem
- 2Cork, cork cambium, vascular cambium and secondary xylem
- 3Secondary phloem, vascular cambium and secondary xylem
- 4Primary xylem, primary phloem and cork
- 5Cork, secondary xylem and pith
In many flowering plants, sucrose moves from mesophyll cells into the sieve tube–companion cell complexes of minor veins against its concentration gradient. This loading occurs by
- 1simple diffusion
- 2osmosis
- 3mass (bulk) flow
- 4H⁺–sucrose cotransport driven by proton pumps (active transport)
- 5imbibition
Which of the following plant associations is an example of commensalism?
- 1Loranthus growing on a mango tree
- 2Cuscuta coiled around a host plant
- 3Rhizobium in root nodules of a pea plant
- 4An epiphytic orchid growing on a tree branch
- 5Nepenthes trapping and digesting insects
In which plant does the male gametophyte develop inside the microspore without chlorophyll, while the female gametophyte that protrudes from the cracked megaspore may become green?
- 1Marchantia
- 2Cycas
- 3Selaginella
- 4Pinus
- 5Nephrolepis
A dark-grown pea seedling that meets a physical obstacle slows its stem elongation, thickens its stem and grows horizontally. Separately, growers spray a hormone on seedless grape clusters to enlarge the berries. The hormones involved are, respectively,
- 1auxin and cytokinin
- 2abscisic acid and ethylene
- 3ethylene and gibberellin
- 4gibberellin and ethylene
- 5cytokinin and auxin
Which of the following statements about human saliva is/are correct?
A – Its amylase hydrolyses starch to maltose and shorter polysaccharides.
B – It moistens food and helps to keep the mouth clean.
C – Its enzymes begin the digestion of proteins in the mouth.
- 1A only
- 2B only
- 3A and B only
- 4A and C only
- 5A, B and C
A patient's pancreas is surgically removed and no enzyme supplements are given. Hydrolysis of which of the following in the small intestine would be most severely affected?
- 1DNA and RNA to nucleotides
- 2Maltose to glucose
- 3Dipeptides to amino acids
- 4Sucrose to glucose and fructose
- 5Nucleotides to nucleosides
Which of the following statements about the human heart is correct?
- 1The pacemaker is located in the wall of the left atrium.
- 2The AV node starts each heartbeat.
- 3During complete diastole all chambers are relaxed and blood flows passively into the ventricles through open AV valves.
- 4Atrial systole lasts about 0.3 s.
- 5The semilunar valves stay open throughout diastole.
Which of the following statements about the human lungs is correct?
- 1The right lung has two lobes.
- 2The visceral pleura lines the inner surface of the thoracic wall.
- 3The left lung is slightly smaller than the right because of the cardiac notch.
- 4Cilia on the alveolar walls sweep dust particles outwards.
- 5Goblet cells in the alveoli secrete mucus to trap dust.
Match each part of the human nephron with a process that takes place there.
Part: A – Proximal convoluted tubule; B – Descending limb of loop of Henle; C – Thick ascending limb of loop of Henle; D – Distal convoluted tubule
Process: P – Reabsorption of glucose and HCO₃⁻; Q – Reabsorption of water by osmosis; R – Active removal of NaCl while impermeable to water; S – Secretion of K⁺
Which option has all combinations correct?
- 1A-P, B-R, C-Q, D-S
- 2A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S
- 3A-S, B-Q, C-R, D-P
- 4A-P, B-Q, C-Q, D-S
- 5A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S
Stimulation by the sympathetic division of the human autonomic nervous system causes
- 1contraction of the urinary bladder wall.
- 2constriction of the bronchi.
- 3secretion of adrenaline and noradrenaline from the adrenal medulla.
- 4contraction of the gall bladder.
- 5increased peristalsis in the intestine.
Which of the following structures of the human inner ear contains perilymph rather than endolymph?
- 1Cochlear duct
- 2Utricle
- 3Saccule
- 4Tympanic canal (scala tympani)
- 5Semicircular ducts
A person eats very salty food and drinks no water for several hours, so plasma osmolarity rises. Which sequence correctly shows (ADH secretion; water permeability of collecting ducts; volume of urine)?
- 1Increases; increases; decreases
- 2Decreases; increases; decreases
- 3Increases; decreases; increases
- 4Decreases; decreases; increases
- 5Increases; increases; increases
Which of the following statements about the reproductive cycles of a human female is correct?
- 1The secondary oocyte released at ovulation is arrested at prophase I.
- 2As the follicles grow during the follicular phase, the oestradiol they secrete gradually increases.
- 3The endometrium is shed at the time of ovulation.
- 4The corpus luteum secretes progesterone throughout the whole pregnancy.
- 5New oogonia start dividing by mitosis in the ovary during each menstrual flow.
Which of the following is a function of the yolk sac in human development?
- 1Enclosing the embryo in a fluid-filled protective cavity
- 2Producing early blood cells and giving rise to primordial germ cells
- 3Forming the foetal part of the placenta that resists maternal immune attack
- 4Forming the umbilical blood vessels and becoming linked with the urinary bladder
- 5Storing a large food reserve that nourishes the embryo throughout pregnancy
Which of the following statements about the adult human vertebral column is correct?
- 1It consists of 33 separate bones.
- 2Foramina for the vertebral arteries are found in the transverse processes of lumbar vertebrae.
- 3The sacrum has paired foramina on each side through which spinal nerves pass.
- 4All seven cervical vertebrae have bifid spinous processes.
- 5The lumbar curvature is concave anteriorly.
Which of the following statements about joints of the human appendicular skeleton is correct?
- 1The shoulder joint is formed between the head of the humerus and the clavicle.
- 2The hip joint, with its deep acetabulum, is strong and stable enough to carry the body weight.
- 3The knee joint allows free rotation in all directions like a ball-and-socket joint.
- 4The radius and ulna articulate with one common articular surface on the humerus.
- 5The ankle joint is formed between the tibia and the calcaneus.
In a randomly mating population of a flowering plant in Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium, purple flowers are dominant over white. If 16% of the plants have white flowers, what is the frequency of heterozygous plants?
- 10.16
- 20.24
- 30.36
- 40.48
- 50.60
Which of the following statements about polyploidy in plants are correct?
A – It often increases cell and organ size.
B – Triploid plants usually produce seedless fruits.
C – It can be induced artificially by spraying gibberellins.
D – It always increases the growth rate of plants.
- 1A only
- 2A and B only
- 3A, B and D only
- 4B and C only
- 5A, C and D only
Which of the following enables a cell to make many copies of a polypeptide quickly from a single mRNA molecule?
- 1A signal sequence at the N-terminus of the polypeptide
- 2The start codon AUG
- 3A stop codon such as UAA
- 4Simultaneous translation by several ribosomes forming a polyribosome
- 5Transport of proteins through the Golgi apparatus
Which of the following statements about DNA repair is/are correct?
A – The gap left after excision of a damaged segment is filled by DNA polymerase.
B – DNA ligase cuts out the damaged nucleotides.
C – Failure of repair can allow mutations to accumulate, leading to cancer.
- 1A only
- 2C only
- 3A and B only
- 4A and C only
- 5B and C only
Which of the following food chains, as they could occur in a natural ecosystem, transfers the greatest proportion of the producer's energy to its top consumer?
- 1Grass → grasshopper → frog → snake → hawk
- 2Spotted deer → leopard
- 3Grass → spotted deer → leopard
- 4Grass → leopard → spotted deer
- 5Grass → kangaroo → Bengal tiger
Match each biome with an animal commonly found in it.
Biome: A – Northern coniferous forest (taiga); B – Hot desert; C – Tundra; D – Temperate grassland
Animal: P – Arctic fox; Q – Bison; R – Moose; S – Camel
Which option has all combinations correct?
- 1A-P, B-S, C-R, D-Q
- 2A-R, B-Q, C-P, D-S
- 3A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q
- 4A-Q, B-S, C-P, D-R
- 5A-R, B-S, C-Q, D-P
In which of the following pairs would an increase in (i) be likely to cause an increase in (ii)?
A – (i) Methyl bromide release into the atmosphere; (ii) Incidence of cataract and skin cancer
B – (i) Atmospheric CO₂; (ii) Thickness of the stratospheric ozone layer
C – (i) Number of poultry farms; (ii) Mercury content of drinking water
- 1A only
- 2B only
- 3C only
- 4A and B only
- 5A and C only
Vaccines with which of the following compositions are used against tuberculosis (BCG) and tetanus respectively?
A – Live attenuated bacteria
B – Killed bacteria
C – Inactivated toxin (toxoid)
D – Ready-made antibodies
- 1A and B
- 2A and C
- 3B and C
- 4C and A
- 5D and C
Which of the following statements about composting is/are correct?
A – Mesophilic microorganisms dominate the early stage and are later replaced by thermophiles.
B – Turning the heap improves the process because composting is mainly aerobic.
C – Only bacteria take part; fungi and protozoa are absent.
- 1A only
- 2B only
- 3A and B only
- 4B and C only
- 5A, B and C
Which of the following best describes coliform bacteria used as indicators of faecal pollution of water?
- 1Gram-positive, endospore-forming rods that ferment lactose with gas within 48 h at 35 °C
- 2Aerobic or facultatively anaerobic, Gram-negative, non-endospore-forming rods that ferment lactose with gas within 48 h at 35 °C
- 3Gram-negative, non-endospore-forming cocci that ferment glucose producing acid only within 24 h at 44 °C
- 4Gram-negative, endospore-forming rods that ferment lactose with gas within 48 h at 60 °C
- 5Gram-positive cocci that ferment sucrose with gas within 24 h at 35 °C
Stem cells taken from the inner cell mass of an early human embryo differ from stem cells in adult bone marrow because embryonic stem cells
- 1are unspecialised cells.
- 2can be grown in culture.
- 3are pluripotent, able to give rise to all cell types of the body.
- 4divide by mitosis.
- 5can be used to replace damaged tissue.
Which of the following occur(s) during alcoholic fermentation of glucose by yeast?
(A) Pyruvate is decarboxylated, releasing CO₂ and forming acetaldehyde.
(B) Acetaldehyde is oxidised by NAD⁺ to form ethanol.
(C) NAD⁺ is regenerated so that glycolysis can continue.
(D) The net ATP gain of 2 per glucose comes only from substrate-level phosphorylation in glycolysis.
(E) Each glucose molecule yields one ethanol and one CO₂.
- 1(A), (B) and (D) only
- 2(A), (C) and (D) only
- 3(A) and (B) only
- 4(C) and (D) only
- 5Any other response or combination
Which of the following statements about protists is/are correct?
(A) Paramecium has a pellicle.
(B) Amoeba has a contractile vacuole.
(C) Gelidium moves by flagella.
(D) Euglena moves using a flagellum.
(E) Amoeba is photoautotrophic.
- 1(A), (B) and (D) only
- 2(A), (C) and (D) only
- 3(A) and (B) only
- 4(C) and (D) only
- 5Any other response or combination
Which of the following features favour cross-pollination in flowering plants?
(A) Dichogamy (protandry or protogyny)
(B) Heterostyly
(C) Cleistogamy
(D) Self-incompatibility
(E) Bisexual flowers with homostyly
- 1(A), (B) and (D) only
- 2(A), (C) and (D) only
- 3(A) and (B) only
- 4(C) and (D) only
- 5Any other response or combination
Which of the following are functions of epithelial tissues in the human body?
(A) Lining and protecting body surfaces
(B) Secreting substances as glands
(C) Storing fat for thermal insulation
(D) Conducting nerve impulses
(E) Absorbing digested nutrients in the intestine
- 1(A), (B) and (D) only
- 2(A), (C) and (D) only
- 3(A) and (B) only
- 4(C) and (D) only
- 5Any other response or combination
Which of the following statements about human leucocytes is/are correct?
(A) Neutrophils are the most numerous leucocytes and are phagocytic.
(B) Monocytes have multilobed nuclei.
(C) Natural killer cells, a type of lymphocyte, take part in innate defence.
(D) Basophils release histamine during inflammation.
(E) Eosinophils are the main antibody-producing cells.
- 1(A), (B) and (D) only
- 2(A), (C) and (D) only
- 3(A) and (B) only
- 4(C) and (D) only
- 5Any other response or combination
Which of the following are functions of the association areas of the human cerebral cortex?
(A) Interpreting and giving meaning to sensory input
(B) Carrying out higher mental functions such as reasoning, memory and planning
(C) Receiving impulses directly from skin receptors for touch and temperature
(D) Sending motor commands directly to skeletal muscles
(E) Generating action potentials in photoreceptors of the retina
- 1(A), (B) and (D) only
- 2(A), (C) and (D) only
- 3(A) and (B) only
- 4(C) and (D) only
- 5Any other response or combination
Which of the following statements about human spermatozoa are correct?
(A) Their production begins at puberty.
(B) The acrosome contains hydrolytic enzymes that help penetrate the layers around the oocyte.
(C) They are nourished by Leydig cells during development.
(D) They become motile within the seminiferous tubules.
(E) Their mid-piece contains many mitochondria.
- 1(A), (B) and (D) only
- 2(A), (C) and (D) only
- 3(A) and (B) only
- 4(C) and (D) only
- 5Any other response or combination
Which of the following are traditional household methods of preserving food in Sri Lanka?
(A) Making jam with a high sugar content
(B) Preparing dried salted fish
(C) Pickling vegetables in vinegar
(D) Exposing food to gamma radiation
(E) Sun-drying chillies
- 1(A), (B) and (D) only
- 2(A), (C) and (D) only
- 3(A) and (B) only
- 4(C) and (D) only
- 5Any other response or combination
Which of the following statements about bacteria is/are correct?
(A) Clostridium is an obligate anaerobe.
(B) Nitrosomonas is chemoautotrophic.
(C) Escherichia coli is an obligate aerobe.
(D) Purple sulphur bacteria are photoautotrophs.
(E) Lactobacillus is an obligate aerobe.
- 1(A), (B) and (D) only
- 2(A), (C) and (D) only
- 3(A) and (B) only
- 4(C) and (D) only
- 5Any other response or combination
Which of the following statements about nucleic acid probes is/are correct?
(A) They are labelled, single-stranded nucleic acid fragments.
(B) They cut DNA at specific recognition sequences.
(C) They identify specific sequences on a membrane after Southern blotting, e.g. in DNA fingerprinting.
(D) They can base-pair with complementary RNA.
(E) They are the chain-terminating molecules used in Sanger sequencing.
- 1(A), (B) and (D) only
- 2(A), (C) and (D) only
- 3(A) and (B) only
- 4(C) and (D) only
- 5Any other response or combination
(i) Give two general properties of monosaccharides.
(ii) (a) Which reagent is used to detect lipids in a food sample? (b) Before Benedict's test can detect a non-reducing sugar such as sucrose, what must first be done to the solution?
(iii) Give an example of a structural protein whose functional form is (a) a secondary structure, (b) a quaternary structure.
(iv) Where are 70S ribosomes found (a) in a bacterial cell, (b) in a eukaryotic cell (two sites)?
(v) Name the chief substance that cements adjacent plant cells together in the middle lamella.
(i) Name the eukaryotic cell component mainly responsible for each of these: (a) cellulose synthesis, (b) conversion of fatty acids to sugars in germinating seeds, (c) glycoprotein synthesis, (d) carbohydrate metabolism, (e) water balance, (f) detoxification of drugs and poisons.
(ii) In which stage(s) of meiosis does each of the following happen: (a) sister chromatids separate, (b) crossing over, (c) the nuclear envelope re-forms?
(iii) Name two locations in a eukaryotic cell where ATP is made by substrate-level phosphorylation during aerobic respiration of glucose.
(iv) Explain what happens to the rate of an enzyme-controlled reaction when the temperature rises above the optimum.
(v) Draw a labelled sketch graph of the absorption spectrum of chlorophyll b over 400–700 nm.
(i) How many ATP molecules are formed when one NADH and one FADH₂ are oxidised through the electron transport chain?
(ii) List the three products of the link reaction (oxidation of pyruvate).
(iii) According to the fossil record, roughly how long after the first prokaryotes did eukaryotic cells appear?
(iv) From which group of fishes did the first tetrapods evolve?
(v) Approximately how long ago did (a) the first food chains (predator–prey relationships) appear, (b) large plants with true roots, stems and leaves (trees) appear?
(i) How is the author who first named a species shown when the scientific name is written?
(ii) Name two classes of Chordata that show each of these: (a) endothermy, (b) keratinised epidermal structures, (c) external fertilisation.
(iii) Give three externally visible features of a shark that are characteristic of class Chondrichthyes.
(iv) Name three animal phyla whose members exchange gases only through the body surface.
(v) Name three photosynthetic pigments found in both brown algae and golden-brown algae.
(i) State the structural difference between xylem vessels formed in spring (early) wood and those formed in summer (late) wood.
(ii) Name a stain used to show lignified tissues in a transverse section of a woody dicot stem.
(iii) State the main difference in composition between phloem sap and xylem sap.
(iv) Name the element whose ions act as a second messenger in plant signal transduction.
(v) (a) What does the ovary wall become in a fruit? (b) Explain how a root senses gravity.
(i) Give reasons why bone is classified as a connective tissue.
(ii) (a) A patient who takes no NSAIDs is diagnosed with gastritis. Suggest two likely causes. (b) Name two vitamins that act as antioxidants.
(iii) (a) Name three respiratory pigments found in annelids. (b) Explain why carbon dioxide does not compete with oxygen for binding sites on haemoglobin.
(iv) Explain how cigarette smoking leads to bronchitis.
(v) Explain how sebaceous gland secretions contribute to innate immunity.
(i) (a) Give two factors that decide the type of nitrogenous waste an animal excretes. (b) Where do the Malpighian tubules of an insect empty?
(ii) What does the hormone produced by the human kidney do?
(iii) (a) Explain why animals need coordination between stimuli and responses. (b) Name a phylum whose members have radial nerves.
(iv) (a) What are the main components of the human peripheral nervous system? (b) Which structure joins the two cerebral hemispheres? (c) Which parts of the brain control breathing?
(v) (a) Name the receptors for (1) smell and (2) rotational (angular) movement of the head. (b) Give the function of (1) the ciliary muscles and (2) the choroid of the eye.
(i) (a) What is the main effect of parathyroid hormone? (b) Name three of its target sites.
(ii) (a) Give an example of an invertebrate that reproduces by parthenogenesis. (b) Draw a labelled flow diagram of spermatogenesis from a primary spermatocyte to spermatozoa, showing ploidy.
(iii) Apart from tissue layers and blood vessels, name three structures seen in a light-microscope section of a human ovary.
(iv) (a) Name two components of breast milk that protect the infant against infection. (b) Explain how drugs bring about a medical (non-surgical) abortion in early pregnancy.
(v) Name two sexually transmitted diseases caused by bacteria.
(i) (a) Explain how the hydrostatic skeleton of a roundworm brings about movement. (b) How does a fusiform body help a bird in flight?
(ii) Name the two paired bones of the human cranium.
(iii) (a) Give one function of the sternum other than support and protection. (b) Name a degenerative, non-inflammatory joint disease that causes joint pain.
(iv) In the cross-bridge cycle of skeletal muscle, what must happen for a myosin head to detach from actin?
(v) A dominant trait (allele H; recessive h) is followed in a family. In generation II, an affected woman has an unaffected father and an affected mother. She marries an affected man whose parents are both affected, and both their children (generation III) are affected. Give the genotypes of the mother and the father of generation III, explaining any uncertainty.
(i) (a) List the components of the initiation complex formed at the start of translation. (b) Which proteins keep the separated DNA strands apart during replication?
(ii) Apart from PCR, name three techniques used to analyse DNA.
(iii) Define (a) community and (b) ecosystem.
(iv) (a) Explain why tundra soils stay wet although precipitation is low. (b) State the main abiotic features of salt marshes.
(v) (a) What is meant by a flagship species? (b) Give two criteria used to identify a biodiversity hotspot.
(i) Name the two main driving forces behind desertification.
(ii) (a) What does the Basel Convention regulate? (b) Which international agreement deals with protecting the ozone layer?
(iii) Name a chemical sterilant suitable for (a) hospital mattresses, (b) sealed buildings contaminated with Bacillus anthracis spores.
(iv) List, in order, the steps in preparing a heat-fixed smear of microorganisms from a toddy sample for staining.
(v) Apart from causing disease, give two properties of the toxin of Salmonella typhi.
(i) Explain how phosphate-solubilising bacteria make phosphorus available in the soil solution.
(ii) Name a bacterial genus used to produce vitamin B₁₂.
(iii) List the intrinsic (internal) factors of a food that affect its spoilage.
(iv) Apart from Vibrio, name a bacterial genus that contaminates water supplies.
(v) Besides water, oxygen and a suitable temperature, give two conditions a viable seed must satisfy before it can germinate.
Describe the light-independent reactions (Calvin cycle) of photosynthesis, including the role of ATP and NADPH.
Outline the characteristic features of organisms in kingdom Fungi.
Describe, with a labelled diagram, the primary internal structure of a dicotyledonous root.
Explain how low temperatures affect plants and describe the ways in which plants cope with cold stress.
Explain how natural killer cells contribute to human immunity.
Describe active immunity in humans, including how it is acquired.
Describe the structure of a chemical synapse and explain how a nerve impulse is transmitted across it.
Describe the symptoms of Parkinson disease and explain their underlying causes.
Describe the steps involved in isolating DNA from cells for gene technology.
Describe the main stages of industrial wastewater treatment and the principle behind each stage.
Write a short note on human traits inherited in a Mendelian pattern.
Write a short note on tropical thorn scrub vegetation in Sri Lanka.
Write a short note on how ornamental fish culture affects the environment.
Answer key — this booklet
Answer key — original 2025 paper (MEDVision model answers)
For students working from the original paper. Shaded cells: check against the official marking scheme (amber = likely, red = disputed).
Paper I — reviews
Paper II — marking points
- Monosaccharides: sweet, water-soluble, crystalline, reducing sugars (any two)
- Lipid test indicator: Sudan III (red stain in lipid)
- Non-reducing sugar test first step: boil the solution with dilute HCl to hydrolyse (then neutralise with NaHCO₃ before Benedict's)
- Secondary structure protein: keratin (α-helix) / silk fibroin (β-pleated sheet)
- Quaternary structure protein: collagen
- 70S ribosomes in prokaryotes: cytoplasm (free in cytosol)
- 70S ribosomes in eukaryotes: mitochondrial matrix and chloroplast stroma
- Middle lamella main component: calcium pectate (pectins)
- Cellulose manufacture: plasma membrane (cellulose synthase complexes); Golgi makes other wall polysaccharides
- Converting fatty acids to sugar: glyoxysomes
- Glycoprotein synthesis: rough ER (with Golgi apparatus)
- Carbohydrate metabolism: smooth ER
- Water balance: contractile vacuole / central vacuole
- Detoxification: smooth ER (also peroxisomes)
- Separation of sister chromatids: anaphase II; crossing over: prophase I; nuclear envelope reforms: telophase I and telophase II
- Substrate-level phosphorylation: cytosol (glycolysis) and mitochondrial matrix (Krebs cycle)
- Above optimum temperature: rate falls rapidly as H-bonds and other weak bonds break, active site shape changes, enzyme denatures
- Chlorophyll b graph: axes absorbance vs wavelength; peaks in blue (~450–470 nm) and red-orange (~640–650 nm), trough in green (500–600 nm)
- NADH → about 2.5 ATP; FADH₂ → about 1.5 ATP
- Link reaction products: acetyl CoA, CO₂, NADH (per pyruvate)
- Prokaryotes ~3.5 billion years ago, eukaryotes ~1.8 billion years ago → about 1.7 (1.5–2) billion years later
- Earliest tetrapods evolved from lobe-finned fishes (Sarcopterygii)
- First food chains (predator–prey relationships): about 535–525 million years ago (Cambrian explosion)
- Large trees with roots, stems and leaves: about 385 million years ago (Devonian)
- Author's name (often abbreviated) written after the species name in non-italic form, e.g. Homo sapiens L.
- Endothermy: Aves, Mammalia
- Keratinised structures: Reptilia, Aves, Mammalia (any two)
- External fertilisation: Amphibia, Osteichthyes (also Cyclostomata)
- Shark external features: placoid scales, 5–7 pairs of gill slits without operculum, heterocercal caudal fin, ventral mouth, claspers in males (any three)
- Phyla respiring only through body wall: Porifera, Cnidaria, Platyhelminthes, Nematoda (any three)
- Pigments common to brown and golden-brown algae: chlorophyll a, chlorophyll c, fucoxanthin (also β-carotene)
- Spring wood vessels: wider lumen, thinner walls; summer wood vessels narrower with thicker walls
- Stain: safranin (stains lignified walls red)
- Phloem sap is rich in sugar (sucrose) and organic solutes; xylem sap is mainly water and mineral ions
- Calcium (Ca²⁺) acts as a second messenger in plant signal transduction
- Ovary wall develops into the pericarp (fruit wall)
- Gravity detected by statoliths (starch-filled amyloplasts) settling to the lower side of root cap columella cells
- Bone: cells (osteocytes) scattered in abundant extracellular matrix of collagen fibres and calcium phosphate; derived from mesoderm
- Gastritis causes: Helicobacter pylori infection; excess alcohol, smoking, stress, spicy/irregular meals (any two)
- Antioxidant vitamins: vitamin C, vitamin E (also A/β-carotene)
- Annelid respiratory pigments: haemoglobin (erythrocruorin), chlorocruorin, haemerythrin
- CO₂ binds to amino groups of globin chains, not to the haem iron, so it does not compete with O₂
- Cigarette smoke irritates bronchi, increases mucus secretion and damages/paralyses cilia, so mucus and particles accumulate, causing inflammation and infection of bronchi
- Sebum is oily and acidic (pH ~3–5) with fatty acids that inhibit microbial growth on skin
- Type of nitrogenous excretory product depends on habitat (water availability) and evolutionary history (also mode of reproduction)
- Malpighian tubules open into the gut at the junction of midgut and hindgut
- Kidney hormone erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production in bone marrow
- Coordination links stimuli to suitable responses so the organism responds to environmental changes, maintains homeostasis and survives
- Radial nerves: phylum Echinodermata
- PNS: cranial nerves, spinal nerves and ganglia (sensory/afferent and motor/efferent divisions — somatic and autonomic)
- Corpus callosum connects the two cerebral hemispheres
- Respiration regulated by medulla oblongata and pons
- Olfaction: olfactory receptor (chemoreceptor) cells; angular head movement: hair cells in ampullae of semicircular canals
- Ciliary muscles change lens shape for accommodation; choroid is pigmented to absorb stray light and supplies blood to the retina
- PTH raises blood Ca²⁺ concentration
- Target sites: bone, kidney, small intestine (indirectly via activated vitamin D)
- Parthenogenetic invertebrate: honey bee (drones), aphids, Daphnia, rotifers
- Spermatogenesis diagram: primary spermatocyte (2n) → meiosis I → two secondary spermatocytes (n) → meiosis II → four spermatids (n) → differentiation → spermatozoa
- Ovary TS: primary follicles, secondary follicles, Graafian follicle, corpus luteum, corpus albicans, oocytes (any three)
- Breast milk components resisting infection: antibodies (IgA), lactoferrin, lysozyme, white blood cells
- Abortion drugs (e.g. mifepristone/RU-486) block progesterone receptors so the endometrium cannot be maintained and is shed; prostaglandins induce uterine contractions
- Bacterial STIs: gonorrhoea, syphilis, chlamydia
- Nematodes: longitudinal muscles contract against fluid under pressure in the pseudocoel, producing undulating/thrashing movement
- Fusiform (streamlined) body reduces air resistance (drag) during flight
- Paired cranial bones: parietal and temporal
- Sternum also gives attachment for muscles and ribs/clavicles, aiding breathing; its red marrow forms blood cells
- Degenerative non-inflammatory joint disease: osteoarthritis
- Binding of a new ATP molecule to the myosin head releases it from actin, breaking the cross bridge
- Pedigree: mother of 3rd generation is affected but had an unaffected father → Hh
- Father of 3rd generation is affected: HH or Hh (cannot be decided from the chart)
- Initiation complex: mRNA, small and large ribosomal subunits, initiator tRNA carrying methionine (with initiation factors/GTP)
- Single-strand binding (SSB) proteins prevent re-pairing
- DNA analysis techniques: gel electrophoresis, DNA sequencing, nucleic acid hybridisation/Southern blotting, restriction fragment analysis (RFLP)/DNA fingerprinting
- Community: all populations of different species living and interacting in an area at a given time
- Ecosystem: a community together with its abiotic environment interacting, with energy flow and nutrient cycling
- Tundra soil moist: permafrost prevents drainage and low temperature reduces evaporation
- Salt marshes: high salinity, regular tidal flooding, waterlogged anoxic muddy soil, nutrient rich
- Flagship species: a charismatic species used as a symbol to raise public support for conservation of a habitat (e.g. Asian elephant)
- Hotspots: very high numbers of endemic species and high threat — lost ≥70% of original habitat
- Desertification drivers: climatic variation (drought) and human activities (overgrazing, deforestation, poor land use)
- Basel Convention controls transboundary movement and disposal of hazardous wastes
- Ozone layer: Montreal Protocol (under the Vienna Convention)
- Mattresses: ethylene oxide gas; anthrax-contaminated buildings: chlorine dioxide gas (or formaldehyde vapour)
- Smear: clean grease-free slide → place a drop of toddy with a sterile loop and spread thinly → air dry → heat fix by passing through a flame → stain
- S. typhi toxin is an endotoxin: lipopolysaccharide (lipid A) of outer membrane, released on cell lysis, heat stable, weakly immunogenic/not neutralised by antitoxin, causes fever (any two)
- Phosphate solubilising bacteria secrete organic acids that lower pH and chelate Ca/Fe/Al, converting insoluble phosphates to soluble forms; phosphatases mineralise organic P
- Vitamin B12 producers: Propionibacterium, Pseudomonas, Streptomyces
- Internal (intrinsic) factors: pH, moisture/water activity, nutrient content, redox potential, natural antimicrobial substances, biological structure
- Water contaminating genera other than Vibrio: Salmonella, Shigella, Escherichia, Campylobacter
- Seed must be mature/after-ripened and must have overcome dormancy before germination (with water, O₂ and suitable temperature available)
- Occurs in the stroma of chloroplasts; uses ATP and NADPH from light reactions
- Three phases: carbon fixation, reduction, regeneration of RuBP
- Fixation: CO₂ combines with RuBP (5C) catalysed by rubisco
- Forms an unstable 6C intermediate that splits into two 3-phosphoglycerate (PGA, 3C)
- Reduction: PGA phosphorylated by ATP to 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate
- 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate reduced by NADPH to glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P)
- For 3 CO₂ fixed, 6 G3P formed; 1 G3P leaves the cycle as net product
- G3P used to make glucose, sucrose, starch and other organic compounds
- Regeneration: remaining 5 G3P rearranged to 3 RuBP using ATP
- Per 3 CO₂: 9 ATP and 6 NADPH used; per glucose: 18 ATP and 12 NADPH
- ADP, Pi and NADP⁺ return to the thylakoid light reactions
- Light-independent but indirectly depends on light; enzymes light-activated
- Eukaryotic, mostly multicellular (yeasts unicellular)
- Body made of hyphae forming a mycelium; septate or aseptate (coenocytic)
- Cell walls contain chitin
- Heterotrophic by absorption: secrete exoenzymes and absorb digested food
- Saprotrophs, parasites or mutualists (mycorrhizae, lichens)
- Lack chlorophyll; store food as glycogen and oil
- No embryo stage; no flagellated cells (except chytrids)
- Reproduce asexually by spores, budding or fragmentation
- Sexual reproduction by plasmogamy, heterokaryotic/dikaryotic stage, karyogamy, meiosis
- Spores produced in sporangia/fruiting bodies; dispersed by wind/water
- Haploid-dominant life cycle; zygote only diploid stage
- Phyla: Chytridiomycota, Zygomycota, Glomeromycota, Ascomycota, Basidiomycota
- Epidermis (piliferous layer): single layer of thin-walled cells, no cuticle, bears root hairs
- Cortex: wide, several layers of thin-walled parenchyma with intercellular spaces; stores starch
- Endodermis: innermost cortical layer; barrel-shaped cells with Casparian strips (suberin) in radial and transverse walls
- Passage cells in endodermis opposite xylem
- Pericycle: one layer of parenchyma inside endodermis; gives rise to lateral roots
- Vascular cylinder (stele) with radial arrangement of xylem and phloem alternating
- Xylem exarch (protoxylem towards outside, metaxylem towards centre)
- Usually 2–6 xylem strands (diarch to hexarch)
- Phloem groups between xylem arms
- Conjunctive parenchyma between xylem and phloem
- Pith small or absent (metaxylem meets in centre)
- Diagram expected: labelled TS of dicot root
- Low temperature reduces membrane fluidity; membranes become rigid, transport and membrane protein function impaired
- Enzyme activity, respiration and photosynthesis slowed; growth reduced
- Chilling injury: leakage of solutes, membrane damage
- Freezing: ice crystals form in cell walls/intercellular spaces, drawing water out → dehydration of cytoplasm
- Intracellular ice ruptures membranes and organelles → cell death
- Water uptake by roots reduced (cold soil) → water stress
- Response: increase the proportion of unsaturated fatty acids in membrane lipids to maintain fluidity
- Accumulation of solutes (sugars, proline) lowers freezing point and reduces dehydration
- Synthesis of antifreeze / cold-shock proteins that limit ice crystal growth
- Cold acclimation: gradual exposure induces tolerance genes
- Dormancy of buds, leaf fall in deciduous plants, perennation as seeds/underground organs
- Abscisic acid involved in cold stress signalling
- NK cells are lymphocytes of innate (non-specific) defence
- Circulate in blood and lymph; patrol the body
- Recognise cells with reduced/abnormal MHC class I molecules (virus-infected and cancer cells)
- Do not need prior exposure or antigen-specific receptors
- Release perforin forming pores in target cell membrane
- Release granzymes that enter and trigger apoptosis of the target cell
- Kill infected cells before virus multiplies further, limiting spread
- Destroy tumour cells – immune surveillance
- Secrete cytokines (e.g. interferon-γ) that activate macrophages
- Also kill antibody-coated cells (antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity)
- Link innate and adaptive responses
- Immunity produced by the person's own immune system after exposure to an antigen
- Natural active immunity: follows infection by the pathogen
- Artificial active immunity: follows vaccination (immunisation)
- Vaccines: live attenuated, inactivated/killed, toxoids, subunit/recombinant, mRNA
- Antigen presented by APCs to helper T cells which activate B and cytotoxic T cells
- Clonal selection and proliferation of specific lymphocytes
- B cells form plasma cells secreting antibodies (humoral response)
- Cytotoxic T cells destroy infected cells (cell-mediated response)
- Memory B and T cells formed
- Primary response slow; secondary response faster, stronger and longer lasting
- Long-lasting (sometimes lifelong) protection, but takes time to develop
- Contrasts with passive immunity (ready-made antibodies, short-lived)
- Synapse: junction between neuron and another neuron/effector
- Presynaptic membrane at synaptic terminal containing vesicles of neurotransmitter and mitochondria
- Synaptic cleft ~20 nm wide
- Postsynaptic membrane with ligand-gated ion channel receptors
- Action potential reaches terminal, depolarises membrane
- Voltage-gated Ca²⁺ channels open; Ca²⁺ enters terminal
- Ca²⁺ causes vesicles to fuse with presynaptic membrane, releasing neurotransmitter (e.g. acetylcholine) by exocytosis
- Neurotransmitter diffuses across cleft and binds receptors
- Ligand-gated channels open; Na⁺ influx → EPSP (or K⁺/Cl⁻ → IPSP)
- Summation of EPSPs reaching threshold generates action potential
- Neurotransmitter removed by enzymes (acetylcholinesterase) or reuptake, ending signal
- Transmission one-way and involves synaptic delay
- Progressive degenerative disorder of the motor system
- Symptoms: resting tremor
- Muscle rigidity / stiffness
- Slowness of movement (bradykinesia), difficulty initiating movements
- Poor balance and posture, shuffling gait
- Mask-like face, soft speech, small handwriting
- Later: depression, sleep and cognitive problems
- Cause: death of dopamine-releasing neurons in the substantia nigra of midbrain
- Dopamine deficiency in basal nuclei disrupts control of movement
- Accumulation of protein aggregates (Lewy bodies, α-synuclein)
- Risk factors: ageing, genetic mutations (few cases), environmental toxins
- No cure; L-dopa treatment relieves symptoms
- Aim: obtain pure DNA free of proteins, RNA, lipids, carbohydrates
- Collect and homogenise tissue/cells (grinding, blending) to break cell walls
- Lyse cells and nuclear membranes using detergent (e.g. SDS) / buffer
- Lysozyme for bacterial walls; cellulase for plant cells
- Salt (NaCl) added to neutralise DNA charges and help clump DNA
- Protease (proteinase K) degrades proteins including histones
- RNase removes RNA
- Remove proteins/debris with phenol–chloroform extraction or centrifugation
- Precipitate DNA using ice-cold ethanol or isopropanol
- DNA appears as white threads, spooled or pelleted by centrifugation
- Wash with 70% ethanol and dissolve in TE buffer/water
- Check purity and quantity by spectrophotometry (A260/A280) or gel electrophoresis
- EDTA chelates Mg²⁺ inhibiting DNases
- Aim: remove solids, organic matter (BOD), toxic chemicals and pathogens before discharge
- Preliminary treatment: screening and grit removal of large debris
- Primary treatment: sedimentation in settling tanks removes suspended solids; physical principle
- Neutralisation/chemical treatment of acids, alkalis; coagulation/flocculation (alum) removes colloids
- Secondary treatment: biological degradation of dissolved organic matter by aerobic microbes
- Activated sludge process: aeration with microbial floc; floc settles and part recycled
- Trickling filter: wastewater sprayed over rocks with microbial biofilm
- Reduces BOD substantially
- Anaerobic digestion of sludge produces methane (biogas); digested sludge dried
- Tertiary treatment: removal of N, P, heavy metals by chemical precipitation, filtration, adsorption (activated carbon)
- Disinfection by chlorination/UV/ozone kills pathogens
- Treated effluent tested to meet discharge standards (CEA)
- Traits controlled by a single gene with two alleles showing dominance
- Follow Mendel's laws of segregation and independent assortment
- Dominant traits: widow's peak, free earlobes, freckles, dimples, tongue rolling (traditional examples)
- Recessive traits: straight hairline, attached earlobes
- Recessive disorders: albinism, cystic fibrosis, sickle-cell anaemia, Tay–Sachs, phenylketonuria
- Dominant disorders: Huntington disease, achondroplasia
- Recessive disorders appear in homozygotes; heterozygotes are carriers
- Dominant: one allele enough, affected person usually has an affected parent
- Studied using pedigree analysis
- Sex-linked Mendelian traits: colour blindness, haemophilia
- Found in arid zone: Hambantota, Mannar, Puttalam, Jaffna coastal areas
- Rainfall < 1250 mm, long dry season, high temperature and evaporation
- Sandy, saline soils
- Vegetation of thorny shrubs and scattered small trees, open canopy
- Plants: Acacia, Euphorbia, Cassia, Opuntia, Ziziphus, Salvadora, Carissa
- Xerophytic adaptations: thorns, small/reduced leaves, succulence, deep roots, thick cuticle
- Deciduous in dry season
- Fauna: elephants, deer, wild boar, peacocks, reptiles
- Part of Yala, Bundala, Wilpattu areas
- Threats: grazing, fire, clearing, invasive species (Prosopis juliflora)
- Overharvesting of wild fish (e.g. endemic species) for trade reduces natural populations
- Introduction of exotic/alien invasive species through escapes or release
- Invasive fish compete with and prey on native species, reducing biodiversity
- Spread of diseases and parasites to wild fish
- Genetic pollution through hybridisation with native species
- Effluent rich in nutrients and organic waste causes eutrophication
- Chemicals, antibiotics and hormones in wastewater pollute water bodies, antibiotic resistance
- Destructive collection methods damage habitats (e.g. reefs)
- High water use
- Mitigation: regulation, captive breeding, quarantine, waste water treatment
Scan notes: All 50 MCQs and all Paper II parts present; OCR clear. Only figure (pedigree, P2 3C(v)) read from page image. Q19 ambiguous (nucleic acids vs triglycerides both depend on pancreatic enzymes).
G.C.E. (Advanced Level) — Biology
Current syllabus (2019 onward) · Re-set practice paper
Every question tests the same concept as question of the same number in the 2026 paper, re-written by MEDVision. Source coverage: Paper I + Paper II (two Part A pages missing from scan).
Which of the following diseases can be passed from one person to another by an infectious agent?
- 1Stroke
- 2Osteoarthritis
- 3Lung cancer
- 4Tuberculosis
- 5Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Which one of the following statements about the levels of protein structure is correct?
- 1Proteins of living organisms are built from about 30 different kinds of amino acids.
- 2Silk fibroin is a protein whose secondary structure is mainly an α-helix.
- 3Myoglobin, which has a single polypeptide chain, shows quaternary structure.
- 4The secondary structure of a protein is formed by peptide bonds between R groups.
- 5A protein such as haemoglobin, built from four polypeptide chains, has quaternary structure.
Consider the following pairs of organelles and functions.
A — Smooth ER: stores Ca²⁺ ions in muscle fibres
B — Lysosome: hydrolysis of old, damaged organelles
C — Rough ER: synthesis of steroid hormones
D — Peroxisome: synthesis of ribosomal RNA
Which pairs are correct?
- 1A and B only
- 2A and C only
- 3B and D only
- 4C and D only
- 5A, B and C only
At which two stages of meiosis do the chromosomes uncoil and become less visible under the light microscope?
- 1Prophase I and metaphase I
- 2Telophase I and telophase II
- 3Anaphase I and prophase II
- 4Prophase I and telophase II
- 5Metaphase II and anaphase II
Which statement about the regulation of enzyme activity by inhibitors is correct?
- 1A competitive inhibitor binds to a site on the enzyme away from the active site.
- 2Non-competitive inhibition can be overcome by increasing substrate concentration.
- 3Binding of an allosteric inhibitor at a regulatory site stabilises the inactive form, lowering the activity of all active sites of a multi-subunit enzyme.
- 4In feedback inhibition, the end product of a pathway combines with the first substrate.
- 5A high ATP concentration allosterically activates enzymes that produce ATP.
Which of the following statements about C₄ photosynthesis in a plant such as maize is correct?
- 1PEP carboxylase fixes CO₂ in the bundle sheath cells.
- 2CO₂ released from malate in the bundle sheath cells is fixed again by Rubisco into the Calvin cycle.
- 3Oxaloacetate is the compound that is carried from mesophyll to bundle sheath cells.
- 4Pyruvate formed in the bundle sheath cells is converted to malate in the mesophyll cells.
- 5The Calvin cycle takes place only in the mesophyll cells.
Consider these statements about the link reaction (pyruvate oxidation) for one glucose molecule.
A — Pyruvate enters the mitochondrion by simple diffusion without using energy.
B — Converting the two pyruvates to acetyl CoA releases two CO₂ molecules.
C — The link reaction itself makes ATP by substrate-level phosphorylation.
Which is/are correct?
- 1A only
- 2B only
- 3C only
- 4A and B only
- 5B and C only
Which of the following ideas formed part of Lamarck's explanation of evolution?
- 1Individuals with favourable variations leave more offspring.
- 2Populations produce more offspring than the environment can support.
- 3Heritable variation exists among members of a population.
- 4Organs used often become larger and stronger, and these acquired changes are inherited.
- 5Individuals in a population compete for limited resources.
Which of the following is/are regarded as artificial groupings rather than natural lineages?
A — Kingdom Protista
B — Domain Archaea
C — Viruses
- 1A only
- 2C only
- 3A and C only
- 4B and C only
- 5A, B and C
Which feature could be used to tell apart a green alga (Ulva), a red alga (Gelidium) and a brown alga (Sargassum)?
- 1The main storage carbohydrate
- 2Presence of chlorophyll a
- 3Marine habitat
- 4Multicellular body
- 5Cellulose in the cell wall
Which set lists only chordate classes whose members are ectothermic and have an endoskeleton made of bone?
- 1Chondrichthyes, Osteichthyes and Amphibia
- 2Osteichthyes, Amphibia and Reptilia
- 3Amphibia, Reptilia and Aves
- 4Reptilia, Aves and Mammalia
- 5Chondrichthyes, Amphibia and Reptilia
Match each vascular tissue element with its feature.
Element: A — Tracheid; B — Sieve tube element; C — Vessel element; D — Companion cell
Feature: P — Lignified walls with pits but no perforations; Q — No nucleus, cytoplasm as a thin layer along the wall; R — End walls with perforation plates; S — Active loading of sucrose into phloem
- 1A-R, B-Q, C-P, D-S
- 2A-P, B-S, C-R, D-Q
- 3A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S
- 4A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S
- 5A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q
Which of the following happen when a stoma closes?
A — K⁺ ions move out of the guard cells.
B — The water potential of the guard cells becomes lower than that of neighbouring cells.
C — The guard cells become flaccid.
- 1A only
- 2A and B only
- 3A and C only
- 4B and C only
- 5A, B and C
A plant with separate male and female gametophytes and a plant with separate male and female sporophytes are, respectively,
- 1Nephrolepis and Selaginella
- 2Pogonatum and Nephrolepis
- 3Nephrolepis and Cycas
- 4Pogonatum and Cycas
- 5Pogonatum and Selaginella
Parthenocarpic (seedless) fruits occur naturally or can be induced in which of the following?
A — Banana
B — Pineapple
C — Grape
- 1A only
- 2A and B only
- 3B and C only
- 4A and C only
- 5A, B and C
A dark-grown pea seedling that meets a stone stops elongating, its stem thickens and it grows sideways around the obstacle. Which hormone mainly causes this response?
- 1Auxin
- 2Cytokinin
- 3Ethylene
- 4Gibberellin
- 5Abscisic acid
Which option gives examples of parasitism, commensalism and mutualism, in that order?
- 1Nepenthes, Cuscuta and lichen
- 2Cuscuta, an epiphytic orchid on a tree and Rhizobium in legume root nodules
- 3Epiphytic orchid, Loranthus and Anabaena in Azolla
- 4Loranthus, Rhizobium and an epiphytic orchid
- 5Drosera, a barnacle on a whale and mycorrhiza
Which 'epithelium – location – function' combination is correct?
Epithelium: A — Simple squamous; B — Stratified squamous; C — Simple cuboidal
Location: P — Lung alveoli; Q — Lining of the oesophagus; R — Kidney tubules
Function: X — Protection against abrasion; Y — Gas exchange by diffusion; Z — Secretion and absorption
- 1A-Q-Y
- 2B-P-X
- 3C-R-Z
- 4A-R-X
- 5B-Q-Y
Which statement about the human digestive system is correct?
- 1Bacteria in the large intestine synthesise vitamin D.
- 2Water is absorbed not only in the colon but also in the small intestine and, to a small extent, in the stomach.
- 3All the muscle in the wall of the alimentary canal is smooth muscle.
- 4Cholecystokinin mainly stimulates the secretion of gastric juice.
- 5Most chemical digestion of fat takes place in the stomach.
Which 'circulatory system – animal' pairs are correct?
A — Open circulatory system: insects
B — Closed double circulatory system: bony fish
C — Closed double circulatory system: birds
- 1A only
- 2B only
- 3A and B only
- 4A and C only
- 5B and C only
Which statement about the human heart and major blood vessels is correct?
- 1Pressure of blood leaving the right ventricle into the pulmonary trunk is lower than that of blood leaving the left ventricle into the aorta.
- 2The left atrioventricular valve has three cusps.
- 3Deoxygenated blood from the head and arms returns to the heart through the inferior vena cava.
- 4The carotid arteries are the first branches of the aorta.
- 5Pulmonary veins carry deoxygenated blood to the left atrium.
Which statement about breathing in humans is correct?
- 1Inhalation results from relaxation of the diaphragm.
- 2Vital capacity equals tidal volume plus expiratory reserve volume only.
- 3The hypothalamus is the main centre that sets the rhythm of breathing.
- 4The diaphragm is made of smooth muscle.
- 5In exhaled air, the partial pressure of oxygen is greater than that of carbon dioxide.
Which statement about human immunity is correct?
- 1Injecting antiserum gives life-long immunity.
- 2Plasma cells develop from cytotoxic T cells.
- 3Antibodies destroy bacteria directly by digesting them.
- 4Cytokines released by helper T cells are needed to activate B cells that become antibody-secreting plasma cells.
- 5Epitopes are the antigen-binding sites on the receptors of lymphocytes.
In which pairs does a rise in (i) lead to a rise in (ii)?
A — (i) Aldosterone in blood; (ii) Na⁺ reabsorption in the distal tubule
B — (i) ADH in blood; (ii) Volume of urine produced
C — (i) Angiotensin II in blood; (ii) Aldosterone secretion
- 1A only
- 2A and B only
- 3A and C only
- 4B and C only
- 5A, B and C
Drugs used to treat schizophrenia mainly block the receptors of which neurotransmitter?
- 1GABA
- 2Acetylcholine
- 3Dopamine
- 4Glycine
- 5Endorphin
A passenger's ears 'pop' as an aircraft descends, as air pressure is equalised across the eardrum. The tube responsible connects the
- 1middle ear and the pharynx.
- 2inner ear and the pharynx.
- 3middle ear and the inner ear.
- 4outer ear and the middle ear.
- 5middle ear and the larynx.
A patient has a slow heart rate, feels cold easily, has dry skin and is gaining weight despite a poor appetite. Which is the most likely cause?
- 1Excessive secretion of thyroxine
- 2Underproduction of TSH by the anterior pituitary
- 3Excessive secretion of parathyroid hormone
- 4Excessive secretion of glucagon
- 5Deficiency of ADH
Which sequence correctly describes intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)?
- 1Oocytes are mixed with many sperm in a dish; embryo is transferred to the uterus; implantation
- 2Washed sperm are placed in the uterus near ovulation; fertilisation in the oviduct; implantation
- 3Oocytes and sperm are placed together in the oviduct; fertilisation; implantation
- 4Oocyte is retrieved; a single sperm is injected into its cytoplasm; the embryo is cultured and transferred to the uterus; implantation
- 5An embryo from one woman is transferred to another woman's uterus; implantation
A man takes testosterone injections. Which of the following responses is/are most likely?
A — Reduced secretion of LH from the anterior pituitary
B — Increased release of GnRH from the hypothalamus
C — Increased secretion of FSH
- 1A only
- 2B only
- 3A and B only
- 4A and C only
- 5B and C only
Which statement about human vertebrae is correct?
- 1Lumbar vertebrae have transverse foramina.
- 2Turning the head from side to side occurs at the joint between the atlas and the dens of the axis.
- 3Thoracic vertebrae have bifid spinous processes.
- 4The sacrum is formed by fusion of three vertebrae.
- 5The atlas has a large, thick vertebral body.
The elbow and the knee are hinge joints. Which movements do such joints mainly permit?
- 1Abduction and adduction
- 2Rotation and circumduction
- 3Flexion and extension
- 4Gliding only
- 5Abduction and rotation
In tomato, tall stem (T) is dominant to dwarf (t) and red fruit (R) is dominant to yellow fruit (r). A tall, red-fruited plant was test-crossed and half the offspring were tall with red fruit while half were tall with yellow fruit. What were the parental genotypes?
- 1TTRR × ttrr
- 2TtRr × ttrr
- 3TTRr × ttrr
- 4TtRR × ttrr
- 5TTrr × ttRR
Which human characteristic is controlled by more than two alleles at a single gene locus?
- 1Haemophilia A
- 2Height
- 3Skin colour
- 4ABO blood group
- 5Sickle-cell anaemia
The following events occur during the initiation of translation.
P — The small ribosomal subunit binds to the mRNA together with the initiator tRNA carrying methionine.
Q — The anticodon of the initiator tRNA base-pairs with the AUG start codon.
R — The large ribosomal subunit joins to form a functional ribosome.
S — The initiator tRNA comes to occupy the P site of the complete ribosome.
What is the correct order?
- 1P, Q, R, S
- 2P, R, Q, S
- 3R, P, Q, S
- 4Q, P, S, R
- 5P, Q, S, R
Which international agreement specifically regulates the safe transfer, handling and use of living modified organisms across national borders to protect biodiversity?
- 1Ramsar Convention
- 2CITES
- 3Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety
- 4Montreal Protocol
- 5Kyoto Protocol
Which of the following biomes has the smallest range of average annual precipitation?
- 1Temperate grassland
- 2Tundra
- 3Savanna
- 4Temperate broadleaf forest
- 5Northern coniferous forest
Which pairs of features of mycoplasmas and unicellular protists are correct?
A — Mycoplasma: no cell wall, so shape is variable | Protists: may be solitary or colonial
B — Mycoplasma: smallest known free-living cells | Protists: all are photosynthetic
C — Mycoplasma: reproduce by binary fission | Protists: asexual fission and sexual reproduction by gametes
D — Mycoplasma: cell wall rich in peptidoglycan | Protists: aerobic or anaerobic
- 1A and B only
- 2A and C only
- 3A and D only
- 4B and C only
- 5C and D only
Streptococcus species cause diseases in which of the following human organ systems?
A — Respiratory system
B — Nervous system
C — Cardiovascular system
D — Digestive system
E — Urinary system
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A, B and C only
- 3B, C and E only
- 4A, D and E only
- 5C, D and E only
Which microorganism is correctly matched with its industrial use?
- 1Saccharomyces cerevisiae: production of acetic acid
- 2Acetobacter spp.: production of vitamin B₁₂
- 3Aspergillus niger: production of citric acid
- 4Acetogenic bacteria: production of methane
- 5Lactobacillus spp.: production of penicillin
Match each vegetative propagation structure with a plant that uses it.
Structure: A — Corm; B — Runner; C — Stolon
Plant: P — Mint; Q — Spider plant (Chlorophytum); R — Colocasia
- 1A-P, B-Q, C-R
- 2A-R, B-Q, C-P
- 3A-Q, B-R, C-P
- 4A-R, B-P, C-Q
- 5A-P, B-R, C-Q
If a drug stopped the Golgi apparatus of a cell from working, which of the following would be directly affected?
A — Formation of lysosomes
B — Production of non-cellulose cell-wall polysaccharides in a plant cell
C — Synthesis of proteins on ribosomes
D — Sorting and dispatch of membrane proteins and lipids
E — Breakdown of hydrogen peroxide
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3B, C and E only
- 4A and D only
- 5C and E only
Consider: dominant generation P — sporophyte, Q — gametophyte; spore type R — homospores, S — heterospores; examples X — Selaginella, Y — Pogonatum, Z — Nephrolepis.
Which combinations are correct?
A — P-S-X B — Q-R-Y C — P-R-Z D — P-R-X E — Q-S-Y
- 1A, B and C only
- 2A and D only
- 3B, C and E only
- 4C and D only
- 5A, B, C and D only
Which of the following features of shoot architecture help a plant capture the most light?
A — Phyllotaxy (leaf arrangement)
B — Height of the stem
C — Branching pattern
D — Near-vertical leaves, as in grasses, letting light reach lower leaves
E — Presence of root hairs
- 1A, B and C only
- 2A, B, C and D only
- 3A, C and E only
- 4B, D and E only
- 5A and D only
Which of the following are functions of the human hypothalamus?
A — Regulating body temperature
B — Coordinating balance and posture
C — Secreting releasing hormones that control the anterior pituitary
D — Controlling thirst and hunger
E — Reflex control of heart rate
- 1A, B and C only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3B, D and E only
- 4C, D and E only
- 5A and E only
Which statements about human extra-embryonic (fetal) membranes are correct?
A — Amniotic fluid cushions the fetus against mechanical shock and prevents drying.
B — The yolk sac is the source of primordial germ cells that later migrate to the gonads.
C — The allantois secretes hCG, which maintains the corpus luteum.
D — The chorion contributes to the fetal part of the placenta.
E — The amnion forms the umbilical blood vessels.
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3B, C and E only
- 4A and D only
- 5C and E only
Which 'chromosomal mutation – syndrome' descriptions are correct?
A — Klinefelter syndrome: aneuploidy with an extra sex chromosome (47,XXY)
B — Turner syndrome: polyploidy
C — Down syndrome: aneuploidy with an extra autosome (trisomy 21)
D — Turner syndrome: aneuploidy with one sex chromosome missing (45,X)
E — Down syndrome: monosomy
- 1A, B and C only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3B, D and E only
- 4C and D only
- 5A and E only
Which 'Sri Lankan ecosystem – climatic zone' pairs are correct?
A — Tropical thorn forest: arid zone
B — Tropical montane forest: wet zone
C — Dry patana: dry zone
D — Tropical lowland wet evergreen forest: dry zone
E — Wet patana: arid zone
- 1A and B only
- 2A, B and C only
- 3B and D only
- 4C and E only
- 5A, C and D only
Which options list an exotic (introduced) organism followed by an organism endemic to Sri Lanka?
A — Water hyacinth and purple-faced langur
B — Gliricidia and Sri Lanka junglefowl
C — Tilapia and Indian peafowl
D — Sri Lanka blue magpie and Prosopis
E — Rubber and mugger crocodile
- 1A and B only
- 2A, B and C only
- 3B and D only
- 4C and E only
- 5A, D and E only
Which statements about the treatment of industrial wastewater are correct?
A — Settleable solids are removed by sedimentation during primary treatment.
B — In the activated sludge process, aerobic microbes oxidise organic matter.
C — Trickling filters are part of tertiary treatment.
D — Sludge is digested by anaerobic microbes to give biogas, mainly methane and CO₂.
E — Anaerobic digestion takes place in the aeration tank of the activated sludge process.
- 1A, B and D only
- 2A, C and D only
- 3B, C and E only
- 4A and D only
- 5C and E only
Which characteristics are desirable in a fish species chosen for aquaculture?
A — Good consumer acceptability
B — Accepts formulated (artificial) feed
C — Tolerates high stocking density
D — Breeds uncontrollably in grow-out ponds
E — Reaches sexual maturity at a very small size
- 1A, B and C only
- 2A, B and D only
- 3B, C and E only
- 4C, D and E only
- 5A and E only
(i) (a) Name the monomer of chitin and give two places where chitin has a structural role.
(b) Give two ways in which NAD⁺ and NADP⁺ are functionally alike.
(ii) Name two structural components found both in the matrix of a mitochondrion and in the stroma of a chloroplast.
(iii) Which protein subunit polymerises to form the microfilaments of animal cells?
(iv) Tabulate three differences between the genetic material of a prokaryotic cell and a eukaryotic cell.
(v) Name the animal cell junction that (a) firmly anchors the cytoskeletons of neighbouring cells, and (b) forms cytoplasmic channels between adjacent cells. Give one tissue where each is found.
(i) Name the stage of interphase in which each of the following occurs: (a) packaging of new DNA around histones; (b) duplication of the centrosome; (c) replication of DNA.
(ii) Give one event common to anaphase I and anaphase II of meiosis.
(iii) Give one way in which anaphase I differs from anaphase II.
(iv) Define anabolism.
(v) You are given 1% amylase, 1% starch, iodine solution, pipettes, a dropper, test tubes, a white tile and a stopwatch. List, in order, the steps you would follow to find how long amylase takes to digest the starch at room temperature.
(i) Name the two kinds of complex that make up a photosystem and state what each contains.
(ii) For one glucose molecule, how many ATP are formed in the citric acid cycle (a) by substrate-level phosphorylation, and (b) by oxidative phosphorylation of the reduced coenzymes it produces?
(iii) Arrange carbohydrates, proteins and fats in increasing order of respiratory quotient.
(iv) Give the exact site in the cell where (a) CO₂ is released and (b) citrate is formed during aerobic respiration.
(v) List, in order, the main stages by which protocells are thought to have arisen during chemical evolution.
(i) (a) List the four species concepts used to define a species.
(b) Give two ways in which protein synthesis in archaea differs from that in bacteria.
(ii) (a) Apart from the nucleus, name two structures visible with a light microscope in both Paramecium and Euglena.
(b) Name a vascular plant group that has: naked seeds with xylem vessels; no seeds and one type of spore; no seeds and two types of spore.
(iii) (a) Name a fungal phylum with septate, dikaryotic hyphae. (b) Name the fungal phylum that includes commensals of humans.
(iv) (a) Give two features that appear for the first time in the animal kingdom in annelids. (b) What is the main role of the mollusc mantle?
(v) (a) How do keratinised scales help reptiles live on land? (b) Name the chordate class in which several different respiratory surfaces are used.
(i) (a) Which meristem lets grasses quickly regrow damaged leaves? (b) Name the mechanism of long-distance transport in plants.
(ii) (a) Explain how abscisic acid protects a plant from wilting. (b) State the role of molybdenum in plants.
(iii) (a) Explain what is meant by heteromorphic alternation of generations. (b) Give one adaptation that favours cross-pollination.
(iv) Name the main photoreceptor that controls seed germination.
(v) State the function of (a) tendons and (b) reticular fibres.
(i) In a villus of the human small intestine, name (a) the cell layer covering its surface, (b) the network of vessels that takes up glucose and amino acids, and (c) the central blind-ended vessel. State the function of the vessels formed when the central vessels join.
(ii) List the stages of the cardiac cycle in order.
(iii) (a) What does thrombin do during blood clotting? (b) What makes a person Rh-positive?
(iv) (a) Where in the body does the mucus escalator operate? (b) How does it protect the body?
(v) (a) What failure of the immune system leads to autoimmune disease? (b) What is attacked in multiple sclerosis?
(i) (a) Name the nitrogenous excretory product that is most toxic, and the one that costs the most energy to make. (b) What is reabsorbed from the descending limb of the loop of Henle?
(ii) Describe the organisation of the nervous system in (a) annelids and (b) echinoderms.
(iii) Give the position of the pons in the human brain and two of its functions.
(iv) Name the thermoreceptors and the mechanoreceptors of human skin.
(v) Where is each of the following hormones made? (a) ADH (b) Aldosterone
(i) (a) Explain what a positive feedback mechanism is. (b) Give one human hormone that acts through positive feedback.
(ii) Draw a flow chart of the path of a sperm from where it is made to where it leaves the body.
(iii) Give two functions of the secretion of the bulbourethral glands.
(iv) Name the target cell of FSH and of LH in the testis and state what each cell does.
(v) Name the two cell groups formed when cells of the blastocyst rearrange, and state what each develops into.
(i) Give three functions of the human skeleton beyond support and movement, which are common to animal skeletons.
(ii) How many carpal bones and how many tarsal bones does a human have?
(iii) Name the two curvatures of the vertebral column that are convex anteriorly.
(iv) (a) Define codominance. (b) Give one human example.
(v) Name a human disease caused by a pleiotropic allele.
(i) Give three differences between DNA replication in prokaryotes and in eukaryotes.
(ii) State the role in DNA replication of (a) helicase and (b) topoisomerase.
(iii) (a) Why is DNA polymerase useful in gene technology? (b) Name the DNA polymerase most used in gene technology and its source organism.
(iv) In what unit are distances between restriction sites expressed on a restriction map?
(v) In making a recombinant DNA molecule, state the use of: restriction enzymes; DNA ligase; gel electrophoresis; probes.
(i) Define primary production.
(ii) (a) Which terrestrial biome has the greatest variety of plants and animals? (b) Describe a mangrove ecosystem.
(Later sub-parts of this question are not in the scan.)
(Sub-parts (i)–(iv) are not in the scan.)
(v) (a) Explain what adventitious roots are and give an example. (b) Name one type of nanoparticle used in smart drug delivery.
Describe the steps of alcoholic fermentation and lactic acid fermentation, and compare the two.
Give an account of the main characteristic features of bacteria.
Describe how water is lost from a leaf by stomatal transpiration.
Explain how root pressure develops and how it leads to guttation.
Outline the basic plan of the human lymphatic system and describe its functions.
Discuss the risk factors for hypertension and its effects on the body.
Describe the microscopic (histological) structure of a human liver lobule.
Explain how the liver helps maintain homeostasis in humans.
Discuss the value of biodiversity in terms of environmental services and education.
Give an account of the toxigenicity of pathogenic microorganisms.
Write a short note on dominant epistasis.
Write a short note on the environmental issues of genetically modified organisms.
Write a short note on postharvest losses during storage.
Answer key — this booklet
Answer key — original 2026 paper (MEDVision model answers)
For students working from the original paper. Shaded cells: check against the official marking scheme (amber = likely, red = disputed).
Paper I — reviews
Paper II — marking points
- Chitin monomer: N-acetylglucosamine (an amino sugar). Functions: arthropod exoskeleton and fungal cell walls (structural support/protection)
- NAD⁺ and NADP⁺ are both coenzymes/electron (hydrogen) carriers in redox reactions, and both are dinucleotides that are reduced to NADH/NADPH
- Found in both mitochondrial matrix and chloroplast stroma: circular DNA, 70S ribosomes (also enzymes)
- Microfilament protein subunit: actin (G-actin)
- Prokaryote DNA is circular, naked (no histones) and lies in the nucleoid; eukaryote DNA is linear, bound to histones and enclosed in a nucleus
- Prokaryotes usually have a single chromosome plus plasmids; eukaryotes have several chromosomes
- Prokaryote genes have few or no introns; eukaryote genes have introns
- Mechanical attachment: desmosome, e.g. skin epidermis/cardiac muscle
- Cytoplasmic channels: gap junction, e.g. cardiac muscle/smooth muscle of the gut
- Winding of DNA around histones: S phase. Centrosome duplication: S phase (G₂ is also accepted in some keys). DNA replication: S phase
- In both anaphases, spindle fibres shorten and pull chromosomes/chromatids to opposite poles
- Difference: in anaphase I homologous chromosomes separate (each still has two chromatids); in anaphase II sister chromatids separate
- Anabolism: metabolic pathways that build complex molecules from simpler ones, using energy (e.g. protein synthesis, photosynthesis)
- Procedure: place iodine drops in rows on a white tile
- Pipette a measured volume of starch solution into a test tube
- Add a measured volume of amylase, mix and start the stopwatch at once
- At regular intervals (e.g. every 30 s) transfer a drop of the mixture to a fresh iodine drop
- Continue until the iodine no longer turns blue-black (stays yellow-brown); the elapsed time is the reaction time
- Reaction-centre complex: a special pair of chlorophyll a molecules plus the primary electron acceptor
- Light-harvesting complexes: pigment molecules (chlorophyll a, b, carotenoids) bound to proteins
- Citric acid cycle per glucose: substrate-level phosphorylation 2 ATP (GTP); oxidative phosphorylation from its NADH and FADH₂: 6×2.5 + 2×1.5 = 18 ATP
- RQ in increasing order: fats (~0.7) < proteins (~0.8–0.9) < carbohydrates (1.0)
- CO₂ is released in the mitochondrial matrix (link reaction and Krebs cycle); citric acid is produced in the mitochondrial matrix
- Protocell stages: abiotic synthesis of small organic molecules (amino acids, nitrogenous bases)
- These join into macromolecules (proteins, nucleic acids)
- The molecules are packaged into protocells (membrane-bound droplets)
- Self-replicating molecules (RNA) arise, making inheritance possible
- Species definitions: biological, morphological, ecological and phylogenetic species concepts
- Archaea differ from bacteria in protein synthesis: initiator amino acid is methionine (not formyl-methionine); not inhibited by streptomycin/chloramphenicol; several kinds of RNA polymerase
- Seen in both Paramecium and Euglena: contractile vacuole, food (or other) vacuoles/pellicle
- Naked seeds with xylem vessels: Gnetophyta (gnetophytes)
- Seedless, homosporous: Pterophyta, e.g. ferns (Nephrolepis)
- Seedless, heterosporous: Lycophyta, e.g. Selaginella
- Septate dikaryotic hyphae: Ascomycota or Basidiomycota
- Fungal phylum with commensals: Ascomycota (e.g. yeasts on the body)
- Features first shown by annelids: true coelom with metameric segmentation; closed circulatory system
- Mollusc mantle: secretes the shell (and encloses the mantle cavity)
- Keratinised scales/skin in reptiles prevent desiccation, an adaptation to terrestrial life
- Class with several respiratory structures: Amphibia (gills, lungs, skin, buccal cavity)
- Meristem for rapid regrowth of damaged leaves (e.g. grasses): intercalary meristem
- Long-distance transport in plants: bulk flow (driven by pressure differences in xylem and phloem)
- ABA prevents wilting by closing stomata: it makes guard cells lose K⁺ and water, which reduces transpiration
- Molybdenum is a cofactor of nitrate reductase (and of nitrogenase in N₂ fixation)
- Heteromorphic alternation: the sporophyte and gametophyte generations differ in form/structure and size
- Cross-pollination adaptations: dichogamy (protandry/protogyny), self-incompatibility, heterostyly or dioecy
- Major photoreceptor for seed germination: phytochrome (red/far-red light)
- Tendons attach skeletal muscle to bone and transmit the force of contraction
- Reticular fibres form a supporting network (framework) in organs and join connective tissue to adjacent tissues
- (a) Simple columnar epithelium with microvilli. (b) Blood capillary network. (c) Lacteal (lymph capillary)
- Lacteals converge into lymph vessels that absorb fats as chylomicrons and transport them to the blood
- Cardiac cycle: atrial systole → ventricular systole → complete cardiac diastole
- Thrombin is an enzyme that converts soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin threads
- Rh⁺ persons have the Rh (D) antigen on their red blood cell surface
- The mucus escalator works in the respiratory tract (trachea, bronchi, bronchioles)
- Benefit: mucus traps dust and microbes, and cilia beat them up to the pharynx to be swallowed, so the lungs are cleaned
- Autoimmunity: the immune system loses self-tolerance and attacks the body's own cells/molecules
- Multiple sclerosis: T cells attack the myelin sheath of CNS neurons
- Most toxic N-excretory product: ammonia. Most energy to produce: uric acid
- Reabsorbed in the descending limb of the loop of Henle: water
- Annelids: a cerebral ganglion (brain) and a ventral nerve cord with segmental ganglia
- Echinoderms: a nerve net with a central nerve ring and radial nerves (no brain)
- Pons location: brainstem, between the midbrain and medulla oblongata (in front of the cerebellum)
- Pons functions: helps the medulla regulate breathing and relays information between the cerebrum and cerebellum
- Skin thermoreceptors: free nerve endings (heat and cold receptors)
- Skin mechanoreceptors: Meissner's corpuscles, Pacinian corpuscles, Merkel discs, Ruffini endings, hair-follicle receptors
- ADH is produced by neurosecretory cells of the hypothalamus (released from the posterior pituitary)
- Aldosterone is produced by the adrenal cortex (zona glomerulosa)
- Positive feedback: a change (output) causes responses that amplify the original change further
- Hormone example: oxytocin (childbirth/milk ejection), or oestrogen causing the LH surge
- Sperm pathway: seminiferous tubules → epididymis → vas deferens → ejaculatory duct → urethra → exterior
- Bulbourethral secretion neutralises acidic urine remaining in the urethra
- It also lubricates the urethra (pre-ejaculate) and may carry some sperm
- FSH target: Sertoli cells, which nourish developing sperm/support spermatogenesis and secrete inhibin
- LH target: Leydig (interstitial) cells, which secrete testosterone
- Blastocyst cell rearrangement gives the inner cell mass, which develops into the embryo (and some extraembryonic membranes)
- It also gives the trophoblast, which develops into the chorion/fetal part of the placenta
- Human-specific skeletal functions: blood cell production (haemopoiesis in red marrow)
- Storage of minerals (Ca²⁺, phosphate) and fat (yellow marrow)
- Protection of internal organs (e.g. skull–brain, rib cage–heart/lungs); also helps hearing (ossicles)
- Wrist bones (carpals): 8. Ankle bones (tarsals): 7
- Anteriorly convex curvatures: cervical and lumbar curvatures
- Codominance: both alleles of a heterozygote are fully and separately expressed in the phenotype
- Human example: AB blood group (also MN blood group)
- Pleiotropic disease example: sickle-cell anaemia (also cystic fibrosis)
- Prokaryotes have a single origin of replication; eukaryotes have many origins
- Prokaryotic replication is faster; eukaryotic replication is slower
- Prokaryotes replicate in the cytoplasm (circular DNA, no telomeres); eukaryotes in the nucleus (linear DNA with telomeres and histones)
- Helicase unwinds the double helix by breaking hydrogen bonds between base pairs at the replication fork
- Topoisomerase relieves strain/supercoiling ahead of the fork by breaking, swivelling and rejoining DNA strands
- DNA polymerase copies/amplifies DNA in vitro (PCR) and is used in sequencing and cDNA production
- Most widely used: Taq polymerase from Thermus aquaticus (heat-stable)
- Restriction map distances are measured in base pairs (bp/kb)
- Restriction enzymes cut the DNA and the vector at specific sites, leaving sticky ends
- DNA ligase joins the fragment to the vector (seals sugar-phosphate bonds)
- Gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments by size
- Probes are labelled sequences that identify/detect the specific gene or clone carrying it
- Primary production: the amount of light energy converted to chemical energy (organic compounds) by autotrophs in an ecosystem in a given time
- Most diverse terrestrial biome: tropical (rain) forest
- Mangroves: coastal ecosystem in intertidal areas of estuaries/lagoons with brackish water
- Dominated by salt-tolerant woody plants (halophytes) with pneumatophores, stilt roots and vivipary
- Mangroves act as breeding/nursery grounds for fish and crustaceans and protect the coastline
- Sub-parts (iii) onwards were on the missing page 9
- Adventitious roots arise from organs other than the radicle/primary root, e.g. from stems, nodes or leaves
- Examples: prop roots of maize, stilt roots, roots from stem cuttings
- Nanoparticles used in smart drugs: liposomes, dendrimers, gold or silica nanoparticles, carbon nanotubes
- Sub-parts (i)–(iv) of 4C were on the missing page 9
- Both start with glycolysis in the cytosol: glucose → 2 pyruvate, with a net 2 ATP and 2 NADH
- No O₂ is needed; fermentation regenerates NAD⁺ so glycolysis can continue
- Alcoholic fermentation (yeast, some bacteria, plant cells under anoxia): pyruvate is decarboxylated to acetaldehyde, releasing CO₂ (pyruvate decarboxylase)
- Acetaldehyde is reduced by NADH to ethanol (alcohol dehydrogenase), regenerating NAD⁺
- Net equation: C₆H₁₂O₆ → 2C₂H₅OH + 2CO₂ + 2ATP
- Lactic acid fermentation (muscle cells under O₂ deficit, Lactobacillus): pyruvate is reduced directly by NADH to lactate (lactate dehydrogenase)
- No CO₂ is released: C₆H₁₂O₆ → 2 lactate + 2ATP
- Only 2 ATP per glucose, all from substrate-level phosphorylation; most energy stays in ethanol/lactate
- Uses: ethanol in bread/alcohol making; lactate in yoghurt/cheese; in muscle lactate goes to the liver
- Prokaryotic: no nucleus or membrane-bound organelles; DNA in a nucleoid
- Single circular chromosome without histones; plasmids often present
- 70S ribosomes
- Peptidoglycan cell wall: Gram-positive (thick) or Gram-negative (thin layer plus outer membrane)
- Some have a capsule/slime layer, fimbriae/pili and flagella (simple, rotating)
- Shapes: cocci, bacilli, spirilla, vibrios; arrangements such as chains and clusters
- Unicellular, microscopic (about 0.5–5 µm); some form endospores that resist harsh conditions
- Reproduce asexually by binary fission; gene transfer by transformation, transduction and conjugation
- Diverse nutrition: photoautotrophs, chemoautotrophs, chemoheterotrophs (saprotrophs, parasites, symbionts)
- Respiration varies: obligate aerobes, obligate anaerobes, facultative anaerobes
- Ecological roles: decomposition, nitrogen fixation and nutrient cycling; some are pathogens
- Transpiration is the loss of water vapour from aerial parts, mainly through stomata (~90%)
- Water reaches leaf mesophyll from xylem in the veins
- Water evaporates from the moist walls of mesophyll cells into intercellular air spaces
- The air spaces become saturated with water vapour
- When stomata are open, vapour diffuses out down a water-potential/vapour-pressure gradient to the drier outside air
- Water lost from mesophyll walls is replaced from adjacent cells and xylem, creating tension (negative pressure)
- This tension pulls the xylem water column up (cohesion–tension: transpiration pull)
- The rate depends on stomatal opening (light, CO₂, K⁺ movement in guard cells, ABA)
- External factors: temperature, humidity, wind, light intensity and soil water availability
- Leaf structural factors: number and position of stomata, cuticle, sunken stomata and hairs
- Significance: cools leaves, drives the uptake and transport of water and minerals
- Root cells actively pump mineral ions into the xylem of the stele (using ATP), mainly at night when transpiration is low
- The endodermis/Casparian strip stops ions leaking back out of the stele
- Ion accumulation lowers the water potential of xylem sap
- Water moves into xylem from the surrounding root tissues by osmosis
- This builds a positive pressure in the root xylem (root pressure) that pushes sap upward
- Root pressure is small (a few hundred kPa) and cannot alone lift water to the top of tall trees
- When the soil is moist, humidity high and transpiration low (night/early morning), root pressure pushes more water into leaves than is lost
- Excess water is forced out as liquid droplets through hydathodes at leaf tips/margins: guttation
- Guttation fluid contains water plus dissolved minerals/organic substances
- Examples: grasses and Colocasia; guttation is different from dew
- Lymph capillaries are blind-ended vessels in tissues that take up excess interstitial fluid (lymph)
- Capillaries join into larger lymph vessels with valves (like veins)
- Lymph moves by skeletal muscle contraction, breathing movements and smooth muscle in vessel walls; valves prevent backflow
- Lymph passes through lymph nodes, which contain lymphocytes and macrophages
- Vessels join the thoracic duct (left side) and the right lymphatic duct
- These empty into the subclavian veins, returning fluid to the blood
- Lymphoid organs: lymph nodes, spleen, thymus, tonsils, adenoids, appendix, Peyer's patches
- Functions: return leaked fluid and proteins to blood, so maintaining blood volume and preventing oedema
- Absorb fats via lacteals in villi and carry them as chylomicrons
- Defence: filter pathogens, and produce/mature lymphocytes for immune responses
- Hypertension: persistently raised arterial blood pressure (≥140/90 mmHg)
- Non-modifiable risks: age, family history/genetics, male sex
- Modifiable risks: obesity and physical inactivity
- High salt intake and high saturated fat/cholesterol diet
- Smoking and excess alcohol
- Stress, diabetes and kidney disease
- Atherosclerosis narrows arteries and raises resistance
- Consequences: heart works harder, causing left ventricular hypertrophy and heart failure
- Damage to arterial walls speeds atherosclerosis, leading to coronary heart disease/heart attack
- Stroke (rupture or blockage of cerebral vessels), aneurysm
- Kidney damage/failure and retinal damage (vision loss)
- The liver is made of many roughly hexagonal lobules (structural/functional units)
- A central vein runs through the centre of each lobule
- Portal triads at the corners contain a branch of the hepatic artery, a branch of the hepatic portal vein and a bile ductule
- Hepatocytes are arranged in plates/cords one to two cells thick, radiating from the central vein
- Sinusoids between the plates carry mixed blood from the artery and portal vein towards the central vein
- Sinusoids have fenestrated (leaky) endothelium for exchange
- Kupffer cells (macrophages) line the sinusoids and phagocytose old RBCs and bacteria
- Bile canaliculi between hepatocytes carry bile outward to the bile ductules (opposite to blood flow)
- Central veins join to form hepatic veins, which drain to the inferior vena cava
- Connective tissue (Glisson's capsule) surrounds the liver and separates lobules
- Blood glucose: stores excess glucose as glycogen (glycogenesis, insulin) and releases glucose by glycogenolysis/gluconeogenesis (glucagon)
- Lipids: makes cholesterol and lipoproteins and converts excess carbohydrate to fat
- Proteins: deamination of excess amino acids; urea synthesis via the ornithine cycle
- Transamination makes non-essential amino acids
- Makes plasma proteins (albumin for osmotic pressure; fibrinogen and prothrombin for clotting)
- Detoxification of drugs, alcohol and hormones
- Breaks down old RBCs (Kupffer cells); bilirubin is excreted in bile
- Stores iron, vitamins A, D and B₁₂ and glycogen
- Produces bile salts for fat emulsification
- Heat production from high metabolic activity helps thermoregulation
- Environmental (ecosystem) services: photosynthesis/oxygen production and carbon sequestration that regulate climate
- Nutrient cycling and soil formation; decomposition of wastes
- Water purification and regulation of the water cycle (watersheds, wetlands)
- Pollination of crops and wild plants; natural pest control
- Soil protection against erosion; flood and coastal protection (mangroves, coral reefs)
- Ecosystem stability and resilience
- Educational value: natural ecosystems are open laboratories for teaching and research
- They provide knowledge of evolution, ecology, taxonomy and genetics
- Biodiversity supports discovery of new medicines/genes and biotechnology
- Field studies, nature trails, botanical gardens and zoos build environmental awareness and conservation attitudes
- Toxigenicity: a pathogen's ability to produce toxins that harm host tissues; a major factor in virulence
- Two types: exotoxins and endotoxins
- Exotoxins are proteins secreted by mainly Gram-positive (some Gram-negative) bacteria
- Exotoxins are highly potent, specific and heat-labile; they can be converted into toxoids for vaccines
- Examples: tetanus toxin (Clostridium tetani), botulinum toxin, diphtheria toxin, cholera toxin (Vibrio cholerae)
- Types: neurotoxins, enterotoxins, cytotoxins
- Endotoxins are the lipid A part of lipopolysaccharide in the Gram-negative outer membrane
- Endotoxins are released when cells die/lyse; they are heat-stable and less potent
- They cause fever, inflammation, aches, and in severe cases septic shock (e.g. Salmonella typhi)
- Fungi also produce toxins (mycotoxins such as aflatoxin from Aspergillus flavus), which are carcinogenic
- Toxins can act away from the site of infection, and some cause food poisoning without infection
- Epistasis: a gene at one locus alters/masks the phenotypic expression of a gene at another locus
- Dominant epistasis: a dominant allele of the epistatic gene masks the expression of the other gene
- Example: fruit colour in summer squash. W (dominant) gives white and masks the Y/y colour gene
- ww Y_ gives yellow; ww yy gives green
- Crossing WwYy × WwYy gives a modified F₂ ratio of 12 white : 3 yellow : 1 green instead of 9:3:3:1
- A test cross gives 2 white : 1 yellow : 1 green
- Shows that genes interact and that phenotypic ratios deviate from Mendelian ratios
- Gene flow: transgenes spread to wild relatives via pollen, possibly creating 'superweeds'
- Herbicide-resistant crops encourage heavy herbicide use, which selects for resistant weeds
- Bt crops may harm non-target organisms (e.g. beneficial insects, pollinators, soil organisms)
- Pests evolve resistance to Bt toxin
- Loss of biodiversity/genetic diversity as uniform GM varieties replace traditional varieties
- GMOs may become invasive and disrupt ecosystems and food webs
- Horizontal gene transfer (e.g. antibiotic-resistance markers) to microbes
- Regulated by biosafety measures, e.g. the Cartagena Protocol
- Postharvest loss: a measurable fall in the quantity or quality of produce between harvest and consumption
- Physiological causes: continued respiration and transpiration (water loss, wilting, weight loss), ripening/senescence driven by ethylene, sprouting
- Biological causes: microbial spoilage by fungi and bacteria (rots, mycotoxins), insect pests, rodents and birds
- Physical/mechanical causes: bruising and injury that open entry points for microbes
- Environmental factors: high temperature and humidity, poor ventilation, unsuitable storage structures
- Effects: loss of nutritional value, quality, market value and food security
- Reduction: cold storage, controlled/modified atmosphere storage and proper packaging
- Also: drying of grains to safe moisture, hygienic stores, pest control and careful handling
Scan notes: Paper II page 9 is missing from the scan. It contained Q4(B)(iii) onwards and Q4(C)(i)–(iv), so 4B and 4C cover only the visible sub-parts (4B i–ii; 4C v). All Paper I pages (Q1–50) and all Part B questions are present. The OCR mangled Q12 options; they were read from the page image. Q41 (Golgi/cellulose), Q43, Q47 and Q48 depend on NIE syllabus interpretations and are marked medium.