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MEDVISION GLOBAL ACADEMY

GCE A/LBiology

ENGLISH MEDIUMFAST TRACK WORK PACKAGE
🍃 Concept focused📝 Exam oriented📈 Practice driven
Prepared under the guidance ofDr. Muthunu Akurugodagama
10syllabus units
850past-paper items analysed
77model MCQs
18structured / essay drills
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About this package

A complete and focused resource to help you master Advanced Level Biology with clarity, confidence and the right guidance towards an A+.

📖
Complete curriculum coverage
All 10 units of the current G.C.E. (A/L) Biology syllabus, in syllabus order.
📝
Exam-oriented concise notes
Only what the examiner asks for, organised as tiles and tables.
🔬
Diagrams, flowcharts & key concepts
Every process drawn as a step-by-step flow you can redraw in an essay.
📊
Structured revision & model questions
Model MCQs with instant feedback and essay marking points for every unit.
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Practice-focused, past-paper style
Each topic shows how often it was examined in 2016–2026 and lists the actual questions.
⭐
Strategies and guidance towards an A+
Paper blueprints, priority lists and an 8-week fast-track planner.
A+
ACADEMIC GUIDANCE

Dr. Muthunu Akurugodagama

A dedicated medical professional and passionate educator, committed to making Biology simple, visual and exam-focused for every Advanced Level student. Through MEDVision Global Academy, he aims to empower learners with the right guidance, effective resources and a clearer path towards higher futures.

“Knowledge today for healthier tomorrows.”
EXCELLENCE IS A HABIT
➜

How to use this package

1 · Read the radar first
Every paperSeen in 8/8 papers

Every topic opens with an exam radar: how often it appeared in the new-syllabus papers (2019 onward), MCQs per paper, Paper II appearances, the last year asked, and the full list of past questions.

2 · Learn the tiles and flows
ReadCoverRedraw

Tiles hold the facts and flows hold the sequences. Cover a flow and redraw it from memory — that is exactly what essays reward.

3 · Kill the traps
Exam traps the distractors examiners love.

Red boxes list the misconceptions that the wrong MCQ options are built on.

4 · Test, then tick

Finish each unit with its model MCQs and essay marking points. Press Mark done on a topic to track your progress in the sidebar (saved in this browser).

Notes are written to align with the NIE G.C.E. (A/L) Biology syllabus and resource books; where textbooks differ (e.g. number of skull bones, ATP yield), the NIE figure is used. Exam statistics come from the 850 question parts of the 2016–2026 papers (12 papers; 8 under the current syllabus).

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Exam intelligence

Paper I — 2 hours

  • 50 MCQs, five options, one correct
  • About 2 min 24 s per question — aim for 90 s on the first pass
  • No negative marking: never leave a blank

Paper II — 3 hours

  • Part A: 4 structured questions — answer all, in the spaces given
  • Part B: 6 essays — answer 4 (Q10 is usually short notes)
  • Spend ~90 min on Part A and ~90 min on Part B

Where the marks are — MCQs per paper by unit (new syllabus)

U1 Introduction to Biology0.8
U2 Chemical & Cellular Basis of Life6.9
U3 Evolution & Diversity5.8
U4 Plant Form & Function6.1
U5 Animal Form & Function16.2
U6 Genetics2.6
U7 Molecular Biology & rDNA Technology2.6
U8 Environmental Biology3.9
U9 Microbiology3.9
U10 Applied Biology1.2

Animal Form & Function alone is about one third of Paper I. Plant Form & Function has been rising (from about 4 to 6 MCQs per paper).

Paper I position blueprint

MCQs follow the syllabus order, then cycle through it a second time. Knowing this lets you recognise a question's unit instantly.

Q1–7Unit 2 · cells & biochemistry
Q8–11Unit 3 · evolution & diversity
Q12–17Unit 4 · plants
Q18–30Unit 5 · animals
Q31–34Units 6–7 · genetics, molecular
Q35–40Units 8–10 · environment, microbes, applied
Q41–50Second pass through the same order

Paper II blueprint

QuestionUsual unit(s)Prepare
Q1 structuredUnit 2 (+ Unit 3)Biomolecules, food tests, organelles, cell division, enzymes
Q2 structuredUnits 3 / 4 / 5Classification tables, plant tissues and transport
Q3 structuredUnit 5 (+ Unit 6)Human systems with labelled diagrams; genetics problems
Q4 structuredUnits 6–10Genetics, ecology, microbiology, applied — short answers
Q5 essayUnit 2Photosynthesis, respiration, membranes, cell cycle
Q6 essayUnit 4Water transport, plant reproduction, hormones
Q7–8 essaysUnit 5Nervous, circulation, excretion, reproduction, immunity
Q9 essayUnits 7 / 8 / 9rDNA technology, environment, applied microbiology
Q10 short notesAny, often 6–10Three short notes — aquaculture, propagation, food, stem cells, vectors

Most-examined subtopics (new syllabus)

#SubtopicUnitMCQsPaper II parts
1Reproduction & developmentU52312
2Circulation & bloodU5148
3Nervous systemU5166
4Digestion & nutritionU5127
5Skeleton, muscle & movementU5162
6Biomes & Sri Lankan ecosystemsU8126
7Plant diversityU3152
8Water relations & transportU4115
9Excretion & osmoregulationU597
10PhotosynthesisU277
11Plant tissues & anatomyU4104
12Cell organelles & structureU2112
13Cellular respiration & fermentationU2103
14Animal diversityU3121
15Biomolecules & waterU285

Marks per textbook page — where your reading time pays most

Yield = a unit's share of MCQs ÷ its share of NIE resource-book pages. Above 1× means the exam rewards that unit more than its length suggests.

UnitBook pagesMCQ shareYieldAdvice
U3 Evolution & Diversity3411.5%1.83×Over-rewarded: revise first
U4 Plant Form & Function5012.2%1.33×Over-rewarded: revise first
U2 Chemical & Cellular Basis of Life6513.8%1.15×Over-rewarded: revise first
U9 Microbiology377.8%1.14×Over-rewarded: revise first
U5 Animal Form & Function17532.5%1.01×Fair
U8 Environmental Biology437.8%0.98×Fair
U6 Genetics515.2%0.56×Under-rewarded: learn the essentials, skip fine detail
U7 Molecular Biology & rDNA Technology535.2%0.54×Under-rewarded: learn the essentials, skip fine detail
U10 Applied Biology282.5%0.48×Under-rewarded: learn the essentials, skip fine detail
Unit 01

Introduction to Biology

A short unit, but it sets up the vocabulary for everything else. Expect about one MCQ per paper plus part of Paper II Q1.

0.8MCQs / paper
2%of Paper I
1Paper II parts since 2019
6textbook pages

Nature, scope and importance of biology

OccasionalSeen in 2/8 new-syllabus papers0.1 MCQs per paper1 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (2)
  • 2026 P1 Q1 — Communicable disease (AIDS)
  • 2021 (2022) P2 Q1A — Origin of life, characteristics, food production, eras

Biology (bios = life, logos = study) is the study of living organisms. "Life" has no single accepted definition; it is recognised by a set of characteristics shown together.

Main branches

  • Zoology, Botany, Microbiology
  • Cell biology, Histology (tissues), Anatomy (gross structure), Physiology (function)
  • Biochemistry, Genetics, Ecology

Why biology matters today

  • Understanding biodiversity (10 to over 100 million species)
  • Understanding the human body and its functions
  • Sustainable use of natural resources (pollution, biodiversity loss, desertification)
  • Sustainable food production: high-yielding and disease-resistant varieties, better postharvest technology
  • Understanding plant life (plants are primary producers)
  • Understanding diseases; legal and ethical issues (DNA fingerprinting in parentage, crime, immigration)

Diseases named in the syllabus

Non-communicableCommunicable
Cancers, heart diseases, diabetes, chronic renal disease (CKDu in Sri Lanka)Dengue, AIDS
Exam trap AIDS is the communicable disease in this list; cancers, diabetes, heart disease and chronic renal disease are all non-communicable (2026 Q1).

Characteristics of organisms and levels of organisation

FrequentSeen in 5/8 new-syllabus papers0.6 MCQs per paper0 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2025
Past-paper questions (7)
  • 2025 P1 Q3 — Characteristics of organisms
  • 2024 P1 Q1 — Basic functional unit of life
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q2 — Characteristics unique to life
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q41 — Levels of biological organisation
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q1 — Basic unit of life
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q1 — Scientific method
  • 2018 P1 Q41 — Levels of organisation

Seven characteristics

  1. Order and organisation: molecules → biosphere
  2. Metabolism: sum of all chemical reactions (catabolism + anabolism)
  3. Growth and development: growth = irreversible increase in dry mass; development = irreversible changes over the life span
  4. Irritability and coordination: response to internal and external stimuli; together they produce movement
  5. Adaptation: e.g. sunken stomata in xerophytes, vivipary in mangroves, splayed foot of camel
  6. Reproduction
  7. Heredity and evolution: evolution = change over time due to genetic modification

Hierarchy of organisation

MoleculesOrganellesCellsTissuesOrgansOrgan systemsOrganismPopulationCommunityEcosystemBiosphere

The cell is the basic structural and functional unit of life. Nothing below the cell level is "living".

Diversity of form

  • Size: bacteria 0.25–2 µm to giant sequoia ~100 m
  • Shape: cylindrical (earthworm), streamlined (birds, fish)
  • Form: unicellular (Amoeba), multicellular
  • Habitat: terrestrial (rat), aquatic (fish), arboreal (loris), aerial (birds)
Exam trap Non-living things can show one characteristic (crystals grow, waves move). Only organisms show all of them. Features found only in living things: metabolism and heredity (2023 Q2). Evolution is a change in a population over generations, not in one organism's life span.
Hierarchy check Each level must contain the one before. "Neurilemma → axon → neurone → brain → nervous system" works; "toad → Amphibia → Chordata" is a taxonomic hierarchy, not organisation.

Unit 1 — Model MCQs

Pick an answer to check it. Questions follow the past-paper style (five options, one correct).

1.1 Which of the following is a characteristic shown by all living organisms but NOT by a growing crystal? Characteristics of life & levels of organisation

Answer: (3) Crystals grow, have order and shape, but have no enzyme-controlled metabolism.

1.2 Which statement about the scope of biology in Sri Lanka is correct? Biology, health & society

Answer: (2) IPM combines biological, cultural and chemical control to reduce pesticide use; tissue culture produces identical clones.

1.3 The correct order of levels of biological organisation, from simplest to most complex, is Characteristics of life & levels of organisation

Answer: (1) Organelle/cell → tissue → organ → organ system → organism → population → community → ecosystem → biosphere.

Unit 1 — Structured & essay practice

Structured (a) List five characteristics of living organisms. (b) State three ways biology helps solve food-production problems in Sri Lanka.

Show marking points
  1. Organisation (cellular), metabolism, growth & development, reproduction, irritability/response, homeostasis, adaptation/evolution — any five
  2. Improved crop varieties by breeding / tissue culture
  3. Integrated pest management; biofertilisers
  4. Post-harvest technology and food preservation; soil and water management
Unit 02

Chemical & Cellular Basis of Life

The biochemical and cellular core of the syllabus. It owns MCQ positions 1–7, structured Q1 and essay Q5. Photosynthesis, respiration and enzymes are tested every year.

6.9MCQs / paper
14%of Paper I
23Paper II parts since 2019
65textbook pages

Elements, water and the organic compounds of life

Every paperSeen in 8/8 new-syllabus papers1.0 MCQs per paper11 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (24)
  • 2026 P1 Q2 — Protein structure levels
  • 2026 P2 Q1A — Chitin, NAD/NADP, cytoskeleton, cell junctions
  • 2025 P2 Q1A — Sugars, lipid/sugar tests, protein structure, ribosomes
  • 2024 P1 Q2 — Carbohydrates
  • 2024 P2 Q1A — Proteins, fats, keratin, microscopy, ER
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q41 — Nucleotide coenzymes (NAD/FAD)
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q1 — Lipids
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q1 — Non-reducing sugar
  • 2020 P1 Q2 — Proteins
  • 2020 P1 Q6 — ATP
  • 2020 P2 Q1A — Irritability, monomers, coenzymes, cytoskeleton, cell wall
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q2 — Nucleotides
  • 2019 (New) P2 Q1A — Lipids, RER, vacuoles, mitosis
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q2 — Properties of water
  • 2019 (Old) P2 Q1A — Life characteristics, protein structure, vacuoles, SER
  • 2018 P1 Q4 — Elements in living matter
  • 2018 P1 Q5 — Cohesion/adhesion of water
  • 2018 P2 Q1A — Life characteristics, organic compounds, food tests
  • 2018 P2 Q1B — Monosaccharides, disaccharides, reducing sugar test
  • 2017 P1 Q1 — Role of trace elements
  • 2017 P2 Q1A — Water properties & roles
  • 2016 P1 Q42 — Polymers of glucose
  • 2016 P2 Q5a — Protein structure
  • 2016 P2 Q1A — Macromolecules, sugars, lipids

Elements

  • ~92 natural elements; about 20–25% are essential (≈25 for humans, ≈17 for plants)
  • C, H, O, N = 96% of living matter
  • Ca, P, K, S make up most of the remaining 4%
  • Trace elements (needed in minute amounts): B, Co, Cu, Cr, F, I, Fe, Mo, Mn, Se, Si, Sn, V, Zn
  • Main role of trace elements: enzyme cofactors

Water: small, polar, angular

O is δ−, H is δ+, so hydrogen bonds form between molecules. H-bonds underlie all four key properties:

PropertyBiological importance
Cohesion / adhesion, high surface tensionWater columns in xylem; water skaters on ponds
High specific heat; high heat of vaporisationThermal buffer for organisms and water bodies; cooling by sweating and transpiration
Maximum density at 4 °C; ice floatsAquatic life survives under ice in winter
Versatile solvent (polarity)Dissolves polar (glucose) and ionic (NaCl) solutes; medium for reactions and transport

Carbohydrates: C, H, O with H:O = 2:1, general formula Cx(H2O)y

Monosaccharides (CH2O)n, n = 3–7

  • Triose: glyceraldehyde (PGAL is a derivative)
  • Tetrose: erythrose (rare)
  • Pentose: ribose, deoxyribose, ribulose (RuBP derivative)
  • Hexose: glucose, fructose, galactose
  • Aldoses: glucose, galactose · Ketose: fructose
  • All are reducing, water-soluble and crystalline

Disaccharides (glycosidic bond, condensation)

SugarMonomersReducing?
Maltoseglucose + glucoseYes
Lactoseglucose + galactoseYes
Sucroseglucose + fructoseNo

Sucrose is the form translocated in phloem and stored in sugarcane; lactose is milk sugar.

Polysaccharides

PolysaccharideMonomerRole
Starch (amylose linear, amylopectin branched)GlucoseStorage in plants and chlorophytes
Glycogen (branched)GlucoseStorage in animals and fungi
Cellulose (linear)GlucosePlant cell wall
InulinFructoseStorage in Dahlia tubers
PectinGalacturonic acidMiddle lamella
Hemicellulose (branched)Pentoses (+ others)Plant cell wall
Chitin (contains N)GlucosamineFungal wall, arthropod exoskeleton
Peptidoglycan–Bacterial and cyanobacterial walls

Lipids: hydrophobic, not polymers, more H than 2:1

Fats (triacylglycerol)

  • Glycerol (3C alcohol) + 3 fatty acids (16–18C) joined by ester bonds
  • Saturated: no C=C; mostly animal; solid (butter)
  • Unsaturated: ≥1 C=C; mostly plant; liquid (oils); cis or trans
  • Excess saturated and trans fats → atherosclerosis

Phospholipids

  • Glycerol + 2 fatty acids + phosphate (often + choline)
  • Amphipathic: hydrophilic head, hydrophobic tails, so they form bilayers
  • Major membrane component

Steroids and functions

  • Cholesterol (animal membranes; regulates fluidity), steroid hormones
  • Functions: energy store, membrane fluidity, signalling (hormones), insulation
  • Test: Sudan III → red-stained oil droplets

Proteins: C, H, O, N, S, from 20 amino acids

Amino acids

  • Central asymmetric C (except glycine), –NH2, –COOH, H and an R group
  • Amphoteric: basic amino + acidic carboxyl group
  • Peptide bond forms by condensation

Four levels of structure

LevelBasisExample
PrimaryAmino acid sequence, peptide bondsAll proteins
SecondaryH-bonds within the backbone: α-helix, β-pleated sheetKeratin (α), spider silk (β)
TertiaryR-group interactions: H-bonds, disulphide, ionic, hydrophobic/van der WaalsMost enzymes, myoglobin, albumin
Quaternary≥2 polypeptide subunitsHaemoglobin, collagen

Functions and denaturation

  • Catalytic (pepsin, amylase) · Structural (keratin, collagen) · Storage (ovalbumin, casein) · Transport (haemoglobin; serum albumin carries fatty acids) · Hormonal (insulin, glucagon) · Contractile (actin, myosin) · Defensive (immunoglobulins)
  • Denatured by heat and high-energy radiation, strong acid or alkali, concentrated salts, heavy metals, organic solvents and detergents
  • Test: Biuret → violet

Nucleic acids and other nucleotides

Nucleotide = pentose + base + phosphate

  • Nucleoside = no phosphate (adenosine, guanosine)
  • Purines (2 rings): A, G · Pyrimidines (1 ring): C, T, U
  • Phosphodiester bonds form the sugar–phosphate backbone
  • DNA: antiparallel double helix, A=T (2 H-bonds), G≡C (3 H-bonds), 10 bp per turn

RNA types

TypeShapeRole
mRNALinear; least abundantCarries code from nucleus to ribosome
tRNASmallest; three-loopedBrings amino acids
rRNAComplex, irregular; most abundantSite where polypeptides are assembled

ATP, NAD⁺, NADP⁺, FAD

  • ATP: universal energy carrier
  • NAD⁺: coenzyme, electron carrier, oxidising agent in respiration
  • NADP⁺: coenzyme, electron carrier; NADPH is the reducing agent in photosynthesis
  • FAD: coenzyme and electron carrier

Practical food tests

Test forReagentPositive
Reducing sugarBenedict's, heatBrick-red precipitate
Non-reducing sugarBoil with dilute HCl (hydrolysis), neutralise with NaHCO3, then Benedict'sBrick-red after hydrolysis
StarchIodine in KIBlue-black
ProteinBiuretViolet
LipidSudan IIIRed
Exam traps There are 20 amino acids, not 24 or 26. Proteins are C, H, O, N, S, not P. Keratin is an α-helix. Haemoglobin is quaternary. Galactose is an aldose and glucosamine is chitin's monomer. NADP⁺ itself is an oxidising agent; it becomes the reducing agent (NADPH) after accepting electrons.

Microscopy

FrequentSeen in 4/8 new-syllabus papers0.5 MCQs per paper0 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2023 (2024)
Past-paper questions (5)
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q3 — Transmission electron microscope
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q2 — Light microscope
  • 2020 P1 Q3 — Using a light microscope
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q3 — Microscopes
  • 2018 P1 Q2 — Light microscope visibility

Key terms

  • Magnification = image size ÷ actual size; light microscope (LM) max ≈ ×1000
  • Resolution = minimum distance at which two points are seen as separate; LM = 0.2 µm
  • Resolution is inversely proportional to wavelength, which is why electrons give better resolution
  • Total magnification = objective × eyepiece (×40 × ×15 = ×600)
  • The objective's image is the object for the eyepiece

TEM vs SEM

TEMSEM
Beam passes through a very thin sectionBeam scanned over the surface
Internal ultrastructure3-D surface view
Heavy-metal stains; fewer electrons pass through densely stained regionsUsually gold-coated; specimen scatters many electrons, others absorbed

EM theoretical magnification 1×108; practical just over 5×105.

Light vs electron microscope

LMEM
Glass lenses, lightElectromagnets, electron beam
Image seen directlyMicrograph or screen
Living or dead specimensNon-living only
True colour; dyesNo colour; heavy metals
Adjust mirror / lightLow power: coarse focusFine focusChange to high power: fine focus only
Exam trap Living specimens cannot be viewed with EM. Mitochondria are not normally visible in a typical plant cell under the LM; chloroplasts, nucleus, vacuole and starch grains are.

The cell: theory, organelles, membranes and junctions

Every paperSeen in 8/8 new-syllabus papers1.4 MCQs per paper3 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (23)
  • 2026 P1 Q3 — Organelle–function pairs
  • 2026 P1 Q41 — Golgi apparatus functions
  • 2025 P1 Q1 — Nucleus structure
  • 2025 P2 Q1B — Organelle functions, meiosis stages, enzymes, chlorophyll spectrum
  • 2024 P1 Q3 — Mitochondria
  • 2024 P1 Q41 — Cell junctions
  • 2024 P2 Q1B — ECM, organelles, mitosis, G0, respiration sites, fermentation
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q1 — Lysosomes vs peroxisomes
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q3 — RER vs SER function
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q4 — Subcellular components
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q3 — Organelle–function
  • 2020 P1 Q4 — Prokaryotic vs eukaryotic cell features
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q4 — Cytoskeleton
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q3 — Organelles
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q4 — Cell junctions
  • 2018 P1 Q42 — Glycolipid synthesis
  • 2018 P1 Q43 — Plant-only structures
  • 2017 P1 Q2 — DNA outside the nucleus
  • 2017 P1 Q5 — SER functions
  • 2017 P1 Q7 — Cell junctions
  • 2017 P2 Q1B — Cell theory, eukaryote features, microscope steps
  • 2016 P1 Q1 — Glyoxysomes convert fats
  • 2016 P1 Q4 — Structure–function mismatch

History and cell theory

  • Hooke (1665): named "cell" (cork)
  • Leeuwenhoek: first living cells (Euglena, bacteria)
  • Schleiden (plants), Schwann (animals), Virchow (1855: cells from pre-existing cells)
  • Theory: (1) all organisms are made of cells; (2) the cell is the basic structural and functional unit; (3) all cells arise from pre-existing cells

Prokaryote vs eukaryote

ProkaryoteEukaryote
Size1–5 µm10–100 µm
Origin3.5 bya1.8 bya
DNACircular, naked, nucleoidLinear, with histones, in nucleus
Ribosomes70S80S (+70S in mitochondria and chloroplasts)
DivisionBinary fissionMitosis / meiosis
FlagellumSimple, 20 nm, extracellular9+2, 200 nm, membrane-covered
N₂ fixationSomeNone

Shared by all cells: plasma membrane, cytosol, DNA, ribosomes.

Plasma membrane: fluid mosaic (Singer and Nicolson, 1972)

  • ~7 nm; phospholipid bilayer with proteins (integral/transmembrane, peripheral)
  • Glycoproteins and glycolipids; cholesterol in animal membranes (fluidity buffer)
  • Protein functions: cell recognition, receptors, attachment to cytoskeleton (shape), enzymes, channels
  • Phospholipids give fluidity; cholesterol modulates it
ComponentStructureKey functions
NucleusDouble envelope, 20–40 nm gap, pore complexes; nuclear lamina lines the insideControls the cell; DNA synthesis; nucleolus makes rRNA and ribosomal subunits; mRNA, tRNA synthesis
RibosomesrRNA + protein; 70S or 80S; free or boundProtein synthesis
Rough ERFlattened sacs with ribosomes; continuous with nuclear envelopeTransports proteins; glycoproteins; transport vesicles; "membrane factory"
Smooth ERTubular sacs, no ribosomesLipids, steroids, phospholipids; carbohydrate metabolism; detoxification; Ca²⁺ store; vesicles
Golgi apparatusStacked cisternae; cis face (receiving), trans face (shipping)Packaging and distribution; makes cellulose and pectin; produces lysosomes; glycolipids
LysosomeSingle membrane; hydrolytic enzymesDigests phagocytosed food and worn-out organelles; exocytosis of residues; autolysis
PeroxisomeSingle membrane; oxidising enzymesBreaks down H2O2; detoxification; photorespiration. Glyoxysomes convert fatty acids to sugar
MitochondrionDouble membrane; cristae with stalk particles; matrix with 70S ribosomes, circular DNA, phosphate granulesAerobic respiration (Krebs in matrix, ETC on cristae); photorespiration
ChloroplastDouble membrane; thylakoids → grana; stroma with DNA, 70S ribosomes, starchPhotosynthesis
CytoskeletonMicrotubules (tubulin, hollow), microfilaments (actin), intermediate filaments (e.g. keratin)Shape, organelle movement, chromosome movement (MT), cytoplasmic streaming and cleavage furrow (MF), nuclear lamina (IF)
Cilia/flagella9+2 microtubules; basal body 9+0 (triplets)Locomotion; moving fluid (oviduct)
Centrioles9 triplets (9+0), in pairs at right angles; animals onlyAster and spindle formation
Central vacuoleTonoplast; cell sapStorage, water balance, turgor, pigments (anthocyanin)

Cell wall

  • Primary wall: thin, flexible, permeable, mainly cellulose
  • Middle lamella: Ca and Mg pectates; glues cells together
  • Secondary wall (between membrane and primary wall): lignin, suberin; rigid
  • Pits and plasmodesmata connect cells

Cell junctions

JunctionFunctionExample
TightSeal; prevent leakage of extracellular fluidSkin epithelium
Desmosome (anchoring)Attach cytoskeletons via intermediate filamentsMuscle
Gap (communicating)Cytoplasmic channels for ions and small moleculesHeart muscle, embryos
PlasmodesmataLiving channels through plant wallsPlants

Extracellular matrix (animals)

  • Glycoproteins: collagen (most abundant) in a proteoglycan network
  • Protects; links to cytoskeleton; signalling
Exam traps Lysosomes and peroxisomes are both single-membrane vesicles. Photorespiration enzymes are in chloroplasts, peroxisomes and mitochondria. Golgi makes cellulose; it does not detoxify (that is SER). A function shared by RER and SER is producing transport vesicles. Nuclear lamina lines the interior of the envelope; the gap is 20–40 nm, not µm.

Membranes and transport

FrequentSeen in 4/8 new-syllabus papers0.4 MCQs per paper1 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2025
Past-paper questions (4)
  • 2025 P1 Q5 — Plasma membrane protein functions
  • 2024 P2 Q5b — Plasma membrane structure
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q15 — Facilitated diffusion
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q2 — Plasma membrane

Passive

  • Diffusion: down a concentration gradient
  • Facilitated diffusion: via channel or carrier proteins; passive (water and hydrophilic solutes)
  • Osmosis: water across a selectively permeable membrane, from high to low water potential

Active and bulk

  • Active transport: against a gradient, uses ATP (Na⁺/K⁺ pump, K⁺ uptake by root hairs)
  • Endocytosis (phagocytosis, pinocytosis) and exocytosis

Cell cycle, mitosis and meiosis

Every paperSeen in 8/8 new-syllabus papers0.9 MCQs per paper2 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (13)
  • 2026 P1 Q4 — Chromosome decondensation in meiosis
  • 2026 P2 Q1B — Cell cycle phases, meiosis, enzyme practical
  • 2025 P1 Q6 — Mitosis phase–event
  • 2024 P1 Q4 — Telophase I & II
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q4 — Cell cycle phase–event
  • 2022 (2023) P2 Q5a — Meiosis I
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q4 — Meiosis event sequence
  • 2020 P1 Q5 — Cell cycle events
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q5 — Cell cycle
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q5 — Cell cycle
  • 2018 P1 Q1 — Metaphase of mitosis
  • 2017 P1 Q33 — Evolutionary advantage of meiosis
  • 2017 P1 Q48 — Sources of variation in meiosis
G1: growth, proteins, organellesS: DNA replication, histones, chromatin formsG2: growth, proteins for M; centrosomes duplicateM: mitosis + cytokinesis (~10%)

Interphase is about 90% of the cycle. Checkpoints at G1, G2 and M. Cells without a go-ahead at G1 enter G0 (most nerve and muscle cells).

Mitosis stageKey events
ProphaseChromatin condenses into chromosomes (2 sister chromatids, cohesins); nucleoli disappear; spindle begins; centrosomes move apart
PrometaphaseNuclear envelope fragments; kinetochores attach to microtubules
MetaphaseCentromeres aligned on the metaphase plate
AnaphaseSister chromatids separate; kinetochore MTs shorten; cell elongates
TelophaseEnvelopes and nucleoli reform; chromosomes decondense; spindle depolymerises
CytokinesisAnimals: cleavage furrow (actin). Plants: cell plate from Golgi vesicles

Meiosis I (reduction division)

  • Prophase I: synaptonemal complex → synapsis → crossing over between non-sister chromatids → chiasmata
  • Metaphase I: homologous pairs on the plate, random orientation
  • Anaphase I: homologues separate; sister chromatids stay together
  • Telophase I: two haploid nuclei, genetically different
  • No DNA replication between meiosis I and II

Meiosis II (like mitosis)

  • Plate perpendicular to that of meiosis I
  • Anaphase II: sister chromatids separate
  • Four haploid, genetically different cells

Significance: constant chromosome number across generations; variation through crossing over, independent assortment and random fertilisation.

Mitosis significance

  • Genetic stability
  • Growth and development
  • Repair, replacement, regeneration
  • Asexual reproduction

Cancer and galls

  • Transformation → benign tumour (stays put) or malignant (invasive) → metastasis
  • Galls: uncontrolled division when the auxin:cytokinin balance is upset (viruses, fungi, bacteria, insects, mites)
EventMitosisMeiosis IMeiosis II
Chromatids separateYesNoYes
Homologues pair and cross overNoYesNo
Chromosomes decondense at telophaseYesYesYes
Products2, diploid, identical2, haploid, different4 haploid in total
Exam traps DNA replicates in S phase, not G1. Centrosomes duplicate in G2 (NIE). Crossing over is in prophase I, not metaphase. Spindle formation begins in prophase. Separation of sister chromatids happens in mitosis and meiosis II but not meiosis I.

Energy in metabolism and enzymes

Very frequentSeen in 7/8 new-syllabus papers0.6 MCQs per paper5 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (11)
  • 2026 P1 Q5 — Enzyme inhibition / allosteric
  • 2025 P1 Q7 — Enzyme properties & cofactors
  • 2024 P2 Q1C — Cofactors, allosteric, photosystems, cyclic e- flow, eras
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q5 — Allosteric regulation
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q5 — Enzyme properties
  • 2020 P1 Q7 — Enzyme characteristics
  • 2019 (New) P2 Q5a — General characteristics of enzymes
  • 2019 (New) P2 Q5b — pH, temperature & inhibitors
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q41 — Cofactors
  • 2019 (Old) P2 Q1B — Cytokinesis, kinetochore, cofactors, ATP
  • 2017 P2 Q5a — Mechanism of enzyme action

Energy relations

  • Catabolism: breaks down molecules, releases energy (exergonic)
  • Anabolism: builds molecules, absorbs energy (endergonic)
  • ATP = ribose + adenine + 3 phosphates; hydrolysis of each terminal phosphate gives −30.5 kJ mol⁻¹
  • Phosphorylation types: photo- (light), substrate-level (breakdown of a substrate), oxidative (ETC)

Enzyme properties

  • Mostly globular proteins; lower activation energy
  • Substrate-specific (active site); induced fit
  • Not used up; do not change end products; most reactions reversible
  • Heat-sensitive; affected by pH, temperature, substrate and enzyme concentration, inhibitors
  • Only a few amino acids form the active site; the rest maintain shape

Cofactors

  • Non-protein; bound permanently or temporarily
  • Organic = coenzymes (vitamin derivatives: NAD, FAD, biotin)
  • Inorganic: Zn²⁺, Fe²⁺, Cu²⁺

Factors

  • Temperature: rate rises (more collisions) up to the optimum (~35–40 °C in humans; ~70 °C in hot-spring bacteria), then falls as H-bonds and ionic bonds break and the enzyme denatures
  • pH: most 6–8; pepsin 2; trypsin 8
  • Substrate concentration: rate rises, then plateaus when the enzyme is saturated

Inhibition

CompetitiveNon-competitive
Resembles the substrate; binds the active siteBinds elsewhere; changes the active-site shape
Overcome by more substrateNot overcome by more substrate
e.g. HIV protease inhibitor drugse.g. many toxins and poisons (some irreversible, covalent)

Regulation

  • Allosteric: regulators bind a regulatory site non-covalently; enzyme has ≥2 subunits; one molecule affects all active sites
  • ADP = allosteric activator; ATP = allosteric inhibitor (of catabolism)
  • Cooperativity: one substrate binding raises the affinity of other sites (O₂ and haemoglobin)
  • Feedback inhibition: the end product inhibits an early enzyme of its pathway
Practical: 1% starch + 1% amylase at room temperatureStart stopwatch on mixingEvery 30 s, place a drop on a white tile with iodineEnd point: iodine no longer turns blue-blackRecord time
Exam traps Competitive inhibitors resemble the substrate, not the active site. Feedback inhibitors bind the enzyme, not the substrate. Rate does not rise indefinitely with substrate concentration. Regulatory molecules bind non-covalently.

Photosynthesis

Very frequentSeen in 7/8 new-syllabus papers0.9 MCQs per paper11 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (20)
  • 2026 P1 Q6 — C4 pathway
  • 2026 P2 Q1C — Photosystems, ATP yield, RQ, protocells
  • 2025 P1 Q8 — Photosystems
  • 2025 P2 Q5a — Calvin cycle
  • 2024 P1 Q5 — Photorespiration organelles
  • 2024 P1 Q6 — Calvin cycle product G3P
  • 2023 (2024) P2 Q5a — Linear electron flow
  • 2023 (2024) P2 Q5b — Efficiency of C4 plants
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q5 — Photosynthetic pigments
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q6 — Light reactions
  • 2021 (2022) P2 Q2A — Water, proteins, mitosis vs meiosis, C4, secondary growth, stomata
  • 2020 P2 Q1B — Meiotic variation, carotenoids, action spectrum, C4 cells
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q6 — Chlorophyll
  • 2019 (New) P2 Q1B — Calvin cycle, light reactions, photorespiration
  • 2019 (Old) P2 Q5a — Chloroplast structure
  • 2019 (Old) P2 Q5b — Photorespiration
  • 2017 P1 Q6 — Light reaction events
  • 2017 P2 Q5b — C3 & C4 CO2 fixation
  • 2017 P2 Q5c — C4 efficiency
  • 2016 P1 Q6 — C3 vs C4 comparison

Pigments and spectra

  • Chlorophylls absorb violet-blue and red, so leaves look green
  • Chlorophyll a: main pigment, directly in the light reactions
  • Chlorophyll b and carotenoids (carotenes, xanthophylls) are accessory pigments; carotenoids also give photoprotection (stop reactive oxidative molecules)
  • Absorption spectrum = light absorbed by a pigment; action spectrum = effectiveness of each wavelength in driving photosynthesis

Photosystems (in thylakoid membranes)

  • Each = reaction-centre complex (special chlorophyll a pair + primary electron acceptor) + light-harvesting complexes
  • PS I = P700; PS II = P680

Linear electron flow (thylakoid membrane)

Light excites PS II (P680)e⁻ to primary acceptorWater split: O₂ + H⁺ + e⁻ (replaces PS II e⁻)ETC → ATP (photophosphorylation)e⁻ reach PS I (P700), which was also excitedPS I e⁻ → ETC → NADP⁺ reductase → NADPH

Cyclic flow: PS I only; makes ATP but no NADPH and no O₂.

Calvin cycle (stroma): 3 turns per net G3P

1. Carboxylation: CO₂ + RuBP (5C), catalysed by Rubisco → unstable 6C → 2 × 3-PGA (first stable product)2. Reduction: 3-PGA → 1,3-BPG → G3P (uses ATP + NADPH)3. Regeneration of RuBP (uses ATP)

G3P is the precursor for glucose and other carbohydrates.

Photorespiration

  • Rubisco acts as an oxygenase: RuBP + O₂ → one 3-PGA + 2-phosphoglycolate (toxic)
  • Processed in chloroplast, peroxisome and mitochondrion
  • Costs energy and releases CO₂; worse when hot, dry, bright and stomata are closed

C4 pathway

  • Mesophyll: CO₂ → HCO₃⁻ (carbonic anhydrase); PEP + HCO₃⁻ → oxaloacetate (PEP carboxylase)
  • OAA → malate or aspartate → diffuse to bundle sheath
  • Bundle sheath: CO₂ released and re-fixed by Rubisco (Calvin cycle only here)
  • Kranz anatomy; many plasmodesmata; bundle-sheath chloroplasts have few or no grana and little PS II
  • PEP carboxylase is more efficient: uses HCO₃⁻ (50× more concentrated) and has no affinity for O₂

C3 vs C4

C3C4
ExamplesWheat, rice, barleyMaize, sugarcane, many grasses
Optimum T15–25 °CHigher (~35 °C)
CO₂ fixationOnceTwice
AcceptorRuBPPEP, then RuBP
First product3-PGAOAA
YieldLowerHigher; better water- and N-use efficiency

Limiting factors (Blackman)

The rate is limited by the factor nearest its minimum value. Light intensity, CO₂ (usually the main limiting factor; greenhouse tomatoes are grown in CO₂-enriched air), temperature, water, pollutants. Very high light intensity bleaches chlorophyll.

Exam traps OAA (not malate) is the first C4 product; malate moves to the bundle sheath (not the reverse). The light reaction in C4 plants is mainly in mesophyll. Electrons from water replace PS II's electrons, not PS I's. The reaction centre contains a special pair of chlorophyll a, not chlorophyll a + b.

Cellular respiration and fermentation

Every paperSeen in 8/8 new-syllabus papers1.2 MCQs per paper3 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (19)
  • 2026 P1 Q7 — Link reaction
  • 2026 P2 Q5a — Two types of fermentation
  • 2025 P1 Q41 — Ethanol fermentation
  • 2025 P2 Q1C — ATP from NADH/FADH2, link reaction, evolution timeline
  • 2024 P1 Q7 — Glycolysis ATP/NADH yield
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q6 — Ethanol fermentation
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q7 — Glycolysis
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q6 — Electron transport chain
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q7 — Aerobic respiration event sequence
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q41 — Ethanol vs lactic fermentation
  • 2020 P2 Q5 — Aerobic respiration in liver cells
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q41 — Energy relations & ATP
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q7 — Compound common to fermentation & respiration
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q6 — Glycolysis
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q7 — Krebs cycle
  • 2018 P1 Q3 — Processes requiring ATP
  • 2017 P1 Q4 — Energy yield of compounds
  • 2016 P1 Q41 — Products of oxidative phosphorylation
  • 2016 P1 Q5 — Glycolysis common to all pathways

C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ → 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + energy (ATP + heat)

StageSitePer glucose
Glycolysis (no O₂ needed)CytosolGlucose → 2 pyruvate; 2 ATP used, 4 made (net 2 ATP, substrate-level); 2 NADH
Link reaction (pyruvate oxidation)Matrix (pyruvate enters by active transport)2 pyruvate → 2 acetyl CoA + 2 CO₂ + 2 NADH
Krebs (citric acid / TCA) cycleMatrixOAA (4C) + acetyl (2C) → citrate (6C) → OAA; per glucose: 4 CO₂, 2 ATP, 6 NADH, 2 FADH₂
ETC + oxidative phosphorylationInner membrane (cristae)NADH → 2.5 ATP; FADH₂ → 1.5 ATP; 28 ATP; O₂ = final electron acceptor

NIE ATP total

Glycolysis: 2 ATP + 2 NADH (5)7
Link: 2 NADH5
Krebs: 2 ATP + 6 NADH (15) + 2 FADH₂ (3)20
Total (liver, heart)32
Other cells (2 ATP spent moving cytosolic NADH in)30

Fermentation (cytosol, no O₂)

Ethanol (yeast)Lactic acid (LAB, muscle)
Pyruvate → acetaldehyde + CO₂ → ethanol (NADH used)Pyruvate → lactate (NADH used), no CO₂
Both: glycolysis first; net 2 ATP; regenerates NAD⁺; final H acceptor is organic (acetaldehyde or pyruvate)

Respiratory quotient

RQ = volume CO₂ produced ÷ volume O₂ used

Carbohydrate1.0
Protein0.8
Fat0.7

Increasing order: fat < protein < carbohydrate.

Exam traps Net glycolysis yield = 2 ATP and 2 NADH. 1 glucose → 2 pyruvate, not 1. The link reaction releases 1 CO₂ per pyruvate (2 per glucose). Most ATP comes from the ETC, not Krebs. Krebs and FADH₂ oxidation are in different places (matrix vs inner membrane). Ethanol fermentation releases one CO₂ per pyruvate (2 per glucose).

Unit 2 — Model MCQs

Pick an answer to check it. Questions follow the past-paper style (five options, one correct).

2.1 Which of the following is a reducing sugar giving a positive Benedict's test? Biomolecules & water

Answer: (3) Maltose has a free anomeric carbon; sucrose and polysaccharides do not reduce Benedict's reagent.

2.2 A peptide bond is formed between Biomolecules & water

Answer: (2) Condensation between carboxyl and amino groups releases water and forms –CO–NH–.

2.3 Which organelle is the site of synthesis of ribosomal RNA? Cell organelles & structure

Answer: (3) The nucleolus transcribes rRNA and assembles ribosomal subunits.

2.4 Uptake of glucose against its concentration gradient coupled with Na⁺ movement down its gradient is Membranes & transport

Answer: (4) The Na⁺ gradient (made by the Na⁺/K⁺ pump using ATP) drives glucose symport.

2.5 In an animal cell, centrosomes are duplicated during Cell cycle, mitosis & meiosis

Answer: (3) NIE: centrosome duplication occurs in G2, ready to form the spindle.

2.6 A non-competitive inhibitor Enzymes

Answer: (3) Non-competitive inhibitors bind elsewhere; Vmax falls and extra substrate cannot overcome them.

2.7 In the light-dependent reactions, the final electron acceptor is Photosynthesis

Answer: (2) Electrons from PSI reduce NADP⁺ to NADPH. Water is the electron donor; O₂ is a by-product.

2.8 Using NIE values, how many ATP are produced from the NADH and FADH₂ generated in one turn of the Krebs cycle? Cellular respiration & fermentation

Answer: (1) 3 NADH × 2.5 = 7.5 and 1 FADH₂ × 1.5 = 1.5, giving 9 (plus 1 ATP/GTP by substrate-level phosphorylation).

2.9 The resolving power of a light microscope is about Microscopy

Answer: (3) Light microscope ≈ 0.2 µm (200 nm); electron microscope ≈ 0.2 nm.

Unit 2 — Structured & essay practice

Essay (Q5 style) Describe the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis and explain how their products are used in the Calvin cycle.

Show marking points
  1. Location: thylakoid membranes; pigments in photosystems II (P680) and I (P700)
  2. Light excites electrons in PSII; photolysis of water replaces them → H⁺, O₂ released
  3. Electron transport chain (plastoquinone, cytochrome complex, plastocyanin) pumps H⁺ into lumen
  4. Chemiosmosis: H⁺ flow through ATP synthase → ATP (photophosphorylation)
  5. PSI re-excites electrons → ferredoxin → NADP⁺ reductase → NADPH
  6. Cyclic flow (PSI only) makes ATP but no NADPH/O₂
  7. Calvin cycle in stroma: RuBisCO fixes CO₂ to RuBP → 2 × 3-PGA
  8. ATP + NADPH reduce 3-PGA → G3P; ATP regenerates RuBP
  9. 3 CO₂ → 1 G3P exported, using 9 ATP and 6 NADPH

Structured Compare mitosis and meiosis under: number of divisions, pairing of homologues, crossing over, daughter cells and significance.

Show marking points
  1. Mitosis 1 division; meiosis 2
  2. Synapsis/bivalents only in meiosis I (prophase I)
  3. Crossing over only in meiosis (chiasmata)
  4. Mitosis: 2 identical diploid cells; meiosis: 4 genetically different haploid cells
  5. Mitosis: growth, repair, asexual reproduction; meiosis: gametes/spores, keeps chromosome number constant, variation
Unit 03

Evolution & Diversity

The highest-yield unit per page of the textbook. Classification tables (kingdoms, phyla, classes) can be learned quickly and score reliably.

5.8MCQs / paper
12%of Paper I
14Paper II parts since 2019
34textbook pages

Origin of life and theories of evolution

Every paperSeen in 8/8 new-syllabus papers1.0 MCQs per paper3 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (15)
  • 2026 P1 Q8 — Lamarck's hypothesis
  • 2025 P1 Q2 — Evidence for first living cells
  • 2024 P1 Q42 — Timeline of early life
  • 2024 P2 Q9a — Darwin–Wallace theory
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q8 — Early-earth event sequence
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q8 — Phanerozoic eras & events
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q7 — Darwin–Wallace theory
  • 2020 P1 Q1 — First organisms on earth
  • 2020 P1 Q8 — Biochemical evolution
  • 2019 (New) P2 Q10a — Natural selection
  • 2019 (New) P2 Q1C — Biochemical evolution, polyphyly, zygosporangium, plants, flukes
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q36 — Chronology of organisms
  • 2018 P1 Q35 — Stanley Miller experiment
  • 2017 P1 Q49 — Geological periods & organisms
  • 2016 P1 Q32 — Timeline of organism groups

Early Earth

  • Earth formed ~4.6 billion years ago (bya)
  • First atmosphere: water vapour, N₂ and its oxides, CO₂, CH₄, NH₃, H₂, H₂S; became reducing; little O₂
  • Energy for abiotic synthesis: volcanic eruptions, lightning, intense UV, hydrothermal and alkaline vents
  • Other organic sources: meteorites
  • Evidence from chemistry, geology and physics; oldest microbial fossils ~3.5 bya

Biochemical evolution: 4 stages

Abiotic synthesis of small organic molecules (amino acids, N-bases)Polymerisation into macromolecules (proteins, nucleic acids)Packaging into membranes → protocellsSelf-replicating nucleic acids → inheritance

Haldane: "primitive soup". Miller showed organic molecules form from inorganic gases. First genes and enzymes were probably RNA.

Timeline

Microbial fossils~3.5 bya
Photosynthetic cyanobacteriabefore ~2.7 bya
First eukaryotes~1.8 bya
Oldest protists (small red algae)~1.2 bya
Sponges~700 mya
Ancestors of arthropods, chordates~670 mya
Colonisation of landafter ~500 mya
Earliest tetrapods (from lobe-finned fish)~365 mya
Human lineage splits from other primates6–7 mya
Homo sapiens~195,000 years ago
Cyanobacteria increaseFe²⁺ oxidised (precipitated)Water bodies saturated with O₂Atmospheric O₂ rises (from the Archaean)
Eon / eraKey events
HadeanOrigin of Earth
ArchaeanOldest rocks; oldest prokaryote fossils; atmospheric O₂ begins to rise
ProterozoicOldest eukaryote fossils; diverse algae; soft-bodied invertebrates
Phanerozoic: PalaeozoicAnimal phyla diversify (Cambrian); land colonised; vascular plants; bony fish, first tetrapods, insects; amphibians dominate; first seed plants; origin of reptiles; mass extinction
Phanerozoic: MesozoicGymnosperms dominate; dinosaurs; origin of mammals; angiosperms appear; mass extinction including dinosaurs
Phanerozoic: CenozoicRadiation of mammals, birds and pollinating insects; angiosperm dominance; primates; genus Homo

Lamarck (1809)

  • Use and disuse
  • Inheritance of acquired characteristics (giraffe neck)

Darwin–Wallace: natural selection

Observations: heritable variation exists; every species produces more offspring than the environment can support.

Over-productionVariationCompetition, survival of the fittestNatural selection of favourable traits

Favourable traits: escaping predators, tolerating stress, obtaining food, disease resistance, fertilisation success, number of offspring.

Neo-Darwinism

Natural selection + Mendelian genetics + population genetics. Evolution = change in the genetic composition of a population over generations.

Exam traps "Unused parts deteriorate" is Lamarck. Over-production and variation are Darwin's observations. Correct order of early-Earth events: origin of cyanobacteria → increase in photosynthetic bacteria → oxidation of Fe²⁺ → water saturated with O₂.

Classification, taxonomy and nomenclature

Very frequentSeen in 6/8 new-syllabus papers0.6 MCQs per paper6 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (14)
  • 2026 P1 Q9 — Artificial groups (Protista, viruses)
  • 2026 P2 Q2A — Species concepts, archaea, protists, plant/fungal/animal groups
  • 2025 P1 Q9 — Why viruses lack a kingdom
  • 2024 P2 Q2A — Eukarya vs Archaea, protist walls, ovule, Ascaris
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q9 — Organisms with most common features
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q10 — Pair with most shared features
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q9 — Artificial group (Protista)
  • 2021 (2022) P2 Q10a — Rules of nomenclature
  • 2021 (2022) P2 Q1B — Classification, arthropods, mammals
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q9 — Natural classification
  • 2019 (Old) P2 Q10c — Natural classification
  • 2019 (Old) P2 Q1C — Scientific names, nomenclature, Allomyces, symmetry
  • 2018 P1 Q8 — Classification history
  • 2016 P1 Q8 — History of taxa (Haeckel)

Artificial vs natural

ArtificialNatural
A few pre-selected charactersMany characters
Ignores evolutionReflects phylogeny
Cereals vs medicinal plants; number of legs; Linnaeus's stamen countPhyla; based on morphology, anatomy, cytology, DNA/RNA sequences

Today's criteria: DNA base sequences of key genes and organelle DNA, rRNA sequences, protein amino-acid sequences, molecular structure of cell components.

History

AristotlePlants vs animals
TheophrastusPlants by habit and life span
Linnaeus (1753)Binomial nomenclature; 2 kingdoms; hierarchy
Haeckel (1866)Kingdom Protista; introduced phylum
Whittaker (1969)5 kingdoms (cell type, cellularity, nutrition)
Woese (1977)3 domains: Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya

Artificial groups today

  • Protista: polyphyletic
  • Viruses: no cellular organisation, so they belong to no kingdom

Hierarchy

DomainKingdomPhylumClassOrderFamilyGenusSpecies

Towards species, shared characteristics increase; towards domain, the number of individuals increases.

Species concepts

  • Biological: interbreed → viable, fertile offspring
  • Morphological: structural features
  • Ecological: niche and interactions
  • Phylogenetic: smallest group sharing a common ancestor

Rules of binomial nomenclature

  • No two species share a name
  • Genus + specific epithet; Latinised, Roman script
  • Italics in print, underlined by hand
  • Genus capitalised; epithet lower case
  • Author added at the end, not Latinised: Cocos nucifera L.
  • Third word for subspecies: Panthera pardus kotiya
FeatureBacteriaArchaeaEukarya
Cell wallPeptidoglycanProteins, polysaccharides; no peptidoglycanCellulose, hemicellulose, pectin, chitin
Membrane lipidsUnbranchedSome branchedUnbranched
Histones with DNAAbsentPresent in somePresent
Circular chromosomePresentPresentAbsent
IntronsVery rareIn some genesIn many genes
RNA polymeraseOne kindSeveralSeveral
Initiator amino acidFormyl-methionineMethionineMethionine
Streptomycin, chloramphenicolGrowth inhibitedNot inhibitedNot inhibited
Growth >100 °CNoSomeNo
ExamplesNostoc, Anabaena, E. coli, SalmonellaMethanococcus, Thermococcus, HalobacteriumProtists, fungi, plants, animals
Dichotomous keys Use paired, contrasting, observable features. Each couplet leads to a name or another couplet. Keys identify; they do not show evolutionary relationships. Wings or eyes are poor choices for scorpion/millipede/cockroach/prawn/centipede because they don't split the group cleanly.

Prokaryotes, protists and fungi

Very frequentSeen in 6/8 new-syllabus papers0.8 MCQs per paper4 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (17)
  • 2026 P1 Q10 — Ulva, Gelidium, Sargassum
  • 2025 P1 Q42 — Protist features
  • 2025 P2 Q5b — Characteristics of Kingdom Fungi
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q42 — Fungal phyla
  • 2022 (2023) P2 Q6a — Bacteria vs Eukarya
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q10 — Protist structures
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q8 — Archaea/eukarya features
  • 2020 P1 Q9 — Domain features (Nostoc, Euglena, Mucor)
  • 2020 P2 Q10c — Reproduction in Ascomycota / dengue biocontrol
  • 2020 P2 Q1C — Eons, evolution sequence, flatworms, gametophytes, protist key
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q8 — Kingdom Protista
  • 2018 P1 Q38 — Characteristics of fungi
  • 2018 P1 Q7 — Unicellular protists
  • 2017 P1 Q11 — Non-heterotrophic genus
  • 2017 P1 Q8 — Archaea (branched lipids)
  • 2016 P1 Q2 — Prokaryote generalisations
  • 2016 P1 Q9 — Glycogen-storing phyla (fungi)

Domain Bacteria

  • Uni-, colonial or filamentous; 0.5–5 µm
  • Peptidoglycan wall: Gram +/− by amount; often a capsule
  • Flagella without membrane and without 9+2
  • Diverse nutrition and O₂ needs; some fix N₂ (Rhizobium, cyanobacteria)
  • Binary fission; some conjugate

Cyanobacteria: photosynthetic, O₂-producing, solitary or filamentous or colonial, some fix N₂.

Domain Archaea

  • Prokaryotic, unicellular, no peptidoglycan
  • Extreme halophiles and thermophiles; methanogens (including guts of cattle and termites)

Kingdom Protista (polyphyletic)

  • Uni-, colonial or multicellular
  • Photoautotrophs, heterotrophs, mixotrophs
  • Freshwater, marine, damp soil; some symbionts
ProtistKey features
EuglenaNo wall; pellicle; chloroplasts; 1–2 flagella from a pocket; eyespot; contractile vacuole
ParameciumFreshwater; pellicle; cilia; macro- and micronucleus; contractile and food vacuoles; oral groove
AmoebaNo wall; pseudopodia; no fixed shape; food vacuoles; free-living or parasitic
UlvaGreen alga; marine; multicellular blade + holdfast; cell wall
GelidiumRed alga; marine; thallus with holdfast
SargassumBrown alga; holdfast, stipe, blade; gas-filled floats
DiatomsGolden-brown; unicellular; silica "glass" wall of two overlapping halves

Kingdom Fungi

  • Eukaryotic; chitin walls; absorptive heterotrophs secreting extracellular enzymes
  • Decomposers, parasites, mutualists
  • Hyphae → mycelium; septate (pores in septa) or coenocytic
  • Haustoria in some; sexual and asexual spores
  • Store glycogen

Fungal phyla

PhylumHallmarksExamples
ChytridiomycotaFlagellated zoospores; coenocytic when multicellular; some unicellularChytridium
ZygomycotaCoenocytic; sporangia; zygosporangium (resistant, multinucleate); some commensalsMucor, Rhizopus
AscomycotaConidia asexually; asci with 8 ascospores; ascocarps; uni- or multicellularAspergillus, Saccharomyces, Penicillium
BasidiomycotaSeptate, dikaryotic; basidiocarp with gills; exogenous basidiosporesAgaricus, puffballs, shelf fungi
Exam traps Ulva, Gelidium and Sargassum differ in colour/pigments and stored food; all are multicellular with holdfasts. Brown and golden-brown algae share chlorophyll a, chlorophyll c and fucoxanthin. Commensal fungi are in Zygomycota. Septate dikaryotic hyphae = Basidiomycota.

Kingdom Plantae

Every paperSeen in 8/8 new-syllabus papers1.9 MCQs per paper2 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (23)
  • 2026 P1 Q14 — Dioecious gametophyte/sporophyte
  • 2026 P1 Q42 — Dominant generation & spore type
  • 2025 P1 Q10 — Homosporous plant phylum
  • 2025 P1 Q16 — Gametophytes of Selaginella
  • 2024 P1 Q8 — Vascular plant features
  • 2024 P1 Q9 — Plant phyla & gametophytes
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q43 — Evolution of Kingdom Plantae
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q44 — Plant life cycles
  • 2023 (2024) P2 Q6a — Monocots vs dicots
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q11 — Seedless vascular plants spores
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q16 — Life cycles (Selaginella, Nephrolepis)
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q9 — Seedless vascular plants
  • 2021 (2022) P2 Q1C — Seedless plants, microphylls, domains' cell walls
  • 2020 P1 Q11 — Spike vs club mosses (heterospory)
  • 2020 P1 Q20 — Homosporous plants
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q10 — Relative of Marchantia
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q11 — Dicotyledons
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q10 — Kingdom Plantae generalisations
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q29 — Pogonatum life cycle
  • 2018 P1 Q6 — Monocot features
  • 2017 P1 Q41 — Seedless vascular plants
  • 2016 P1 Q49 — Features of vascular plants
  • 2016 P1 Q7 — Plant features (Cycas, Marchantia…)

Plants evolved from green algae (chlorophytes), which lack the four land-plant traits: walled spores in sporangia, multicellular gametangia, dependent embryos and apical meristems.

GroupPhylum (example)Dominant generationSporesKey points
Non-vascular (bryophytes)Hepatophyta (Marchantia)Gametophyte (photosynthetic, independent)HomosporousNo true roots, stems or leaves; rhizoids. Pogonatum: dioecious gametophyte; flagellated sperm swim in water; sporophyte (foot, seta, capsule) green when young but dependent; sporophytes have stomata
Anthocerophyta (Anthoceros)
Bryophyta (Pogonatum)
Seedless vascularLycophyta (Lycopodium club moss, Selaginella spike moss)SporophyteClub mosses homo; spike mosses heteroMicrophylls; strobili; some gametophytes underground, nourished by fungi
Pterophyta (Nephrolepis)SporophyteHomosporous → bisexual gametophyteRhizome; fronds (megaphylls); sori; closer to seed plants than lycophytes are
Gymnosperms (naked seeds)Cycadophyta (Cycas)Sporophyte; gametophyte reduced and dependentHeterosporousPalm-like leaves; large cones; flagellated sperm
Coniferophyta (Pinus)Separate male and female cones
Gnetophyta (Gnetum)Only gymnosperms with xylem vessels; angiosperm-like leaves
AngiospermsAnthophytaFlowers, carpels, fruits; double fertilisation

Innovations of vascular plants

  • Xylem (tracheids, lignin) and phloem allow height
  • Roots replace rhizoids (root tissues resemble stems of early vascular plants)
  • Leaves: microphylls (single unbranched vein, small) vs megaphylls (branched veins)
  • Sporophylls bear sporangia; heterospory: megaspores → ♀ gametophyte, microspores → ♂

Seed plant innovations

  • Seeds: embryo + food + seed coat
  • Reduced, protected gametophytes
  • Heterospory
  • Ovule = megasporangium + megaspore + integument(s)
  • Pollen (sporopollenin wall) = male gametophyte; pollen tube delivers sperm, so no water needed

Monocots vs dicots

MonocotDicot
1 cotyledon2 cotyledons
Fibrous rootsTap root
Parallel veinsReticulate veins
Trimerous; perianthPenta- or tetramerous; calyx and corolla
Pollen 1 aperturePollen 3 apertures
Scattered bundles, no cambiumBundles in a ring, with cambium
Grasses, coconut, riceRose, shoe flower, cucurbits
Gametophyte trend Bryophytes (dominant) → ferns (small, independent, photosynthetic) → Selaginella (reduced, partly dependent) → seed plants (microscopic, dependent). Selaginella: male gametophyte non-photosynthetic; female gametophyte partially photosynthetic.
Exam traps Stomata are not unique to vascular plants (moss sporophytes have them). Some vascular plants have symbiotic (fungus-fed) gametophytes. Most closely related pair: Pinus and Cycas. Liverworts, hornworts and mosses are separate phyla. Pogonatum = dioecious gametophyte; Cycas = dioecious sporophyte.

Kingdom Animalia and phylum Chordata

Every paperSeen in 8/8 new-syllabus papers1.5 MCQs per paper4 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (24)
  • 2026 P1 Q11 — Ectothermic bony chordates
  • 2025 P1 Q11 — Dioecious animal phyla
  • 2025 P2 Q2A — Chordate classes, shark, phyla, algal pigments
  • 2024 P1 Q10 — Phyla from body features
  • 2024 P1 Q11 — First cephalization
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q10 — Unique animal phylum features
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q12 — Feature unique to one chordate class
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q11 — Features within same phylum
  • 2020 P1 Q10 — Protonephridia, mantle, nematocysts
  • 2020 P1 Q12 — Features of reptiles/birds/mammals
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q42 — Fertilisation types in classes
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q8 — First coelom
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q9 — Annelids & arthropods shared feature
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q11 — Platyhelminth classes
  • 2018 P1 Q44 — Animals excreting urea
  • 2018 P1 Q9 — Animal from features (tentacles, coelom)
  • 2018 P2 Q1C — Homosporous plants, animal dichotomous key, echinoderms
  • 2017 P1 Q10 — Arthropod dichotomous key
  • 2017 P1 Q42 — Animals without bony skeleton
  • 2017 P1 Q9 — Animal from features
  • 2017 P2 Q1C — Molluscs, fish fins, amphibians
  • 2016 P1 Q10 — Arthropod class
  • 2016 P1 Q43 — Chordates vs molluscs
  • 2016 P2 Q3A — Invertebrate key & classes

Multicellular, heterotrophic eukaryotes that ingest food; cells form tissues; mostly sexual reproduction.

Phylum (examples)Body planHallmark features
Cnidaria (Hydra, sea anemone, Obelia, corals, jellyfish)Diploblastic (mesoglea between); radial; polyp and/or medusaGastrovascular cavity with one opening; tentacles with cnidocytes/nematocysts; nerve net; mostly marine
Platyhelminthes (Planaria, Taenia, Fasciola)Triploblastic; acoelomate; dorsoventrally flatNo circulatory, respiratory or skeletal system; signs of cephalization; eyespots (free-living); protonephridia with flame cells; no anus (branched gastrovascular cavity); mostly hermaphrodite
Nematoda (round, hook, pin worms)Triploblastic; pseudocoelom; cylindricalTough cuticle, moults; only longitudinal muscles; complete gut; no circulatory or respiratory system; separate sexes, female larger
Annelida (earthworm, leech, ragworm)Segmented; first true coelomFirst to show cephalization (NIE); dorsal cerebral ganglia + ventral nerve cord; clitellum, parapodia, setae, suckers; closed circulation; nephridia
Mollusca (snail, slug, oyster, clam, squid, octopus, chiton)Soft, unsegmented; coelomateMuscular foot, visceral mass, mantle (secretes shell); radula; open circulation (except cephalopods)
Arthropoda (insects, spiders, prawns, crabs, scorpions, mites, millipedes, centipedes)Segmented; jointed legs; chitin exoskeletonMoult; ventral solid nerve cord; open circulation (haemocoel); gills, tracheae or book lungs; Malpighian tubules (uric acid); dioecious
Echinodermata (sea star, sea urchin, sea cucumber, sea lily)Adults pentaradial, larvae bilateral; deuterostomesWater vascular system with tube feet; endoskeleton of calcareous plates; no head; reduced circulation with no heart; separate sexes; marine only

Chordate features (at some stage)

  1. Notochord
  2. Dorsal, hollow nerve cord
  3. Pharyngeal slits
  4. Muscular post-anal tail

Arthropod classes (keys)

Insecta3 pairs legs, 1 pair antennae, often wings
Arachnida4 pairs legs, no antennae
Crustacea2 pairs antennae, gills
Chilopoda1 pair legs/segment, 1 pair antennae
Diplopoda2 pairs legs/segment
ClassKey featuresExamples
ChondrichthyesCartilage skeleton; heterocercal tail; gills without operculum (gill slits visible); placoid scales; internal fertilisation; cloacaSharks, skates, rays
OsteichthyesBony skeleton; operculum; swim bladder; homocercal tail; cycloid/ctenoid scales; mostly external fertilisationCarp, tuna
AmphibiaMoist skin, no scales; ectothermic; first tetrapods; nictitating membrane; tympanum; external fertilisation; no marine species; multiple respiratory surfaces (gills, lungs, skin, buccal cavity)Frog, toad, Ichthyophis (legless)
ReptiliaFirst fully terrestrial; keratinised scales (stop desiccation and abrasion); lungs; ectothermic; shelled eggs; internal fertilisationLizards, snakes, turtles, crocodiles
AvesKeratinised feathers; forelimbs as wings; air-filled bones; toothless beak; endothermic; colour visionCrow, parrot, eagle
MammaliaMammary glands; hair; endothermic; differentiated teeth; 4-chambered heart; diaphragm; large brain; parental careBat, whale, monkey, cow
Exam traps Features unique to some phyla: radula (molluscs), parapodia (annelids). Nephridia occur in annelids and molluscs. Ectothermic animals with bony skeletons: Osteichthyes, Amphibia, Reptilia. Keratinised structures: reptiles, birds, mammals. Internal and external fertilisation both occur in Osteichthyes and Amphibia. Echinoderms have no heart and a calcium carbonate endoskeleton.

Unit 3 — Model MCQs

Pick an answer to check it. Questions follow the past-paper style (five options, one correct).

3.1 Which of the following provides direct evidence of evolution? Origin of life & evolution

Answer: (2) Fossils are the direct record of past life; the others are indirect evidence.

3.2 The three domains of life are Classification & taxonomy

Answer: (2) Woese's three-domain system: Bacteria, Archaea and Eukarya.

3.3 Which character is common to all fungi? Prokaryotes, protists & fungi

Answer: (2) Fungi have chitin walls, store glycogen, and are heterotrophic (absorptive).

3.4 In which plant group is the gametophyte the dominant generation? Plant diversity

Answer: (1) In bryophytes the sporophyte depends on the gametophyte; in all vascular plants the sporophyte dominates.

3.5 Seeds without an ovary wall (naked seeds) are found in Plant diversity

Answer: (2) Gymnosperms (cycads, conifers) bear naked seeds; flowering plants enclose seeds in fruits.

3.6 According to the NIE text, the first animal phylum to show cephalization is Animal diversity

Answer: (3) Use the NIE wording in the exam: Annelida is described as first to show cephalization.

3.7 A coelomate animal with a water vascular system and tube feet belongs to Animal diversity

Answer: (3) Echinoderms have a water vascular system, tube feet and (in adults) radial symmetry.

3.8 Which feature is present in all chordates at some stage of life? Animal diversity

Answer: (2) Notochord, dorsal hollow nerve cord, pharyngeal slits and post-anal tail are the chordate features.

Unit 3 — Structured & essay practice

Structured Give the diagnostic features of phylum Arthropoda and name its main classes with one example each.

Show marking points
  1. Jointed appendages; chitinous exoskeleton, moulting (ecdysis)
  2. Segmented body with tagmata (head, thorax, abdomen)
  3. Haemocoel, open circulation; dorsal heart
  4. Ventral nerve cord; compound eyes
  5. Classes: Insecta (cockroach), Crustacea (prawn), Arachnida (spider), Chilopoda (centipede), Diplopoda (millipede)
Unit 04

Plant Form & Function

Rising in weight. Transport, hormones and reproduction appear every year, and essay Q6 is nearly always set here.

6.1MCQs / paper
12%of Paper I
18Paper II parts since 2019
50textbook pages

Meristems, growth and shoot architecture

Very frequentSeen in 6/8 new-syllabus papers0.9 MCQs per paper5 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (12)
  • 2026 P1 Q43 — Light capture (phyllotaxy, branching)
  • 2026 P2 Q2B — Meristems, transport, ABA, Mo, alternation of generations
  • 2024 P1 Q13 — Plant meristems
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q13 — Meristematic cells
  • 2022 (2023) P2 Q5b — Secondary growth in dicot stem
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q13 — Leaves & light capture
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q42 — Primary growth of roots
  • 2020 P1 Q14 — Shoot apical meristem
  • 2020 P2 Q6b — Design for light capture
  • 2020 P2 Q2A — Plant growth, tissues, lenticels, stomata, chilling
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q13 — Adaptations for photosynthesis
  • 2019 (Old) P2 Q6b — Secondary growth

Meristematic cells

  • Living, isodiametric (roughly spherical), undifferentiated
  • Central nucleus, dense cytoplasm, able to divide
  • Three overlapping zones: division → elongation → differentiation (maturation)

Three meristem types

TypeLocationRole
ApicalRoot and shoot tipsPrimary growth (length)
LateralVascular cambium; cork cambiumSecondary growth (girth); cork cambium forms periderm
IntercalaryBases of leaves and nodes in grassesRegrowth of grazed or damaged leaves

Root apex vs shoot apex

Root apexShoot apex
Protected by root capProtected by leaf primordia
Cells produced both ways (outward → root cap)Cells produced only inwards

Root cells may elongate >10× and push the tip through soil.

Secondary growth (woody dicots, all gymnosperms)

Vascular cambium (between primary xylem and phloem) dividesSecondary xylem (wood) inwards; secondary phloem outwardsRay initials → vascular rays (parenchyma: radial transport, storage, repair)Epidermis splits; cork cambium (outer cortex in stems, pericycle in roots) forms cork outwardsPeriderm = cork cambium + its products; lenticels allow gas exchange

Wood terms

HeartwoodCentral, older; no longer conducts; dark resins protect against fungi and wood-borers
SapwoodOuter; still conducts xylem sap
HardwoodDicot angiosperm secondary xylem (has vessels)
SoftwoodGymnosperm wood: no vessels
Spring woodWide lumen, thin walls: maximum water flow
Summer woodNarrow lumen, thick walls: support

Spring + summer wood = one annual ring (temperate trees can be aged).

Bark

All tissues outside the vascular cambium: secondary phloem (and any remaining primary phloem and cortex) + periderm. Only young secondary phloem conducts.

Shoot architecture and light capture

  • Stem length and branching pattern are designed to capture maximum light; tall stems avoid shading; vines use supports
  • Leaf size: largest in rain forests; smallest in dry or very cold habitats
  • Phyllotaxy = arrangement of leaves on the stem
  • Horizontal leaves capture light well in dim conditions; vertical leaves (grasses) avoid damage from intense light
Exam traps Shoot apical meristem adds cells inwards only and does not increase diameter. Intercalary meristems (not lateral) regrow grass leaves. Lateral meristem contributes to periderm. Meristems may be dormant. Meristematic cells divide by mitosis, not meiosis.

Plant tissues and anatomy

Every paperSeen in 8/8 new-syllabus papers1.2 MCQs per paper7 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (18)
  • 2026 P1 Q12 — Vascular tissue structure–feature
  • 2025 P1 Q12 — Types of wood
  • 2025 P1 Q13 — Tissues of bark
  • 2025 P2 Q6a — Primary structure of dicot root
  • 2025 P2 Q2B — Spring/summer wood, phloem sap, plant signalling, fruit, gravity
  • 2024 P1 Q12 — Plant cell types & functions
  • 2024 P1 Q43 — Monocot leaf anatomy
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q11 — Vascular tissues
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q42 — Tracheids
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q12 — Companion cells
  • 2021 (2022) P2 Q6 — Ground tissue structure & function
  • 2020 P1 Q13 — Collenchyma vs parenchyma
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q12 — Plant epidermis
  • 2019 (New) P2 Q6a — Dicot leaf histology
  • 2019 (Old) P2 Q6a — Secondary structure of dicot stem
  • 2018 P1 Q13 — Vessel element & sclerenchyma
  • 2018 P2 Q3B — Plant tissue diagram, gymnosperms, tissue culture uses
  • 2016 P2 Q3C — Xylem & phloem elements
Tissue / cellLiving?WallFunction
EpidermisYesCuticle on aerial partsProtection; guard cells (gas exchange); root hairs (absorption); trichomes (reduce water loss, reflect light, defence chemicals)
ParenchymaYesThin primaryMetabolism, photosynthesis, storage (leucoplasts with starch), wound repair, totipotent (tissue culture)
CollenchymaYesUnevenly thickened primaryFlexible support of growing stems and petioles, just below the epidermis
Sclerenchyma: sclereids, fibresDeadThick lignified secondarySupport; sclereids in nut shells, seed coats, gritty fruit; fibres in coir and hemp
TracheidDeadLignified, pittedWater conduction via pits; all vascular plants; long, thin, tapered
Vessel elementDeadLignified; perforation plates on end walls; pits on side wallsFast water flow; wider, shorter, thinner-walled than tracheids; angiosperms and some gymnosperms (Gnetophyta)
Sieve-tube elementLivingSieve platesTranslocation; no nucleus, ribosomes or vacuole; thin peripheral cytoplasm
Companion cellLiving–Linked by many plasmodesmata; nucleus and ribosomes serve the sieve tube; phloem loading (leaves) and unloading

Seedless vascular plants and gymnosperms have sieve cells instead of sieve tubes and companion cells.

Primary root (dicot vs monocot)

  • Epidermis with root hairs → cortex (parenchyma, intercellular spaces; storage and transport)
  • Endodermis: Casparian strip (suberin) in radial and transverse walls; no intercellular spaces
  • Pericycle: 2–3 layers; in dicots meristematic (lateral roots, secondary growth); not meristematic in monocots
  • Dicot: star-shaped xylem with phloem between arms
  • Monocot: central pith with a ring of alternating xylem and phloem

Primary stem

  • Dicot: epidermis with stomata; cortex with collenchyma below epidermis; vascular bundles in a ring (phloem outside, xylem inside, cambium between); sclerenchyma cap; large pith
  • Monocot: ground tissue not divided into cortex and pith; scattered bundles each with a sclerenchyma sheath; no cambium

Leaf anatomy

DicotMonocot
Stomata mainly lower epidermisStomata on both surfaces
Palisade + spongy mesophyllUndifferentiated mesophyll, chloroplasts in all cells
Reticulate veins with bundle sheathParallel veins

Stomata

  • Guard cells: only epidermal cells with chloroplasts; bean-shaped; inner wall thicker and less elastic; radial cellulose microfibrils form hoops
  • Gas exchange also via lenticels and a little via cuticle; gases move by diffusion only

Practical: staining a T.S.

  • Safranin stains lignified walls (xylem, sclerenchyma) red
  • Use thin, even sections; mount in water or glycerol
Exam traps Companion cells occur in angiosperms only, not Cycadophyta. Pits are absent between sieve-tube elements (they have sieve plates). Tracheids do not occur in bryophytes. Vessel elements have perforation plates; tracheids have pits. The bark contains secondary phloem and cork cambium but not secondary xylem.

Water relations, transport and transpiration

Every paperSeen in 8/8 new-syllabus papers1.4 MCQs per paper7 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (25)
  • 2026 P1 Q13 — Stomatal closing
  • 2026 P2 Q6a — Stomatal transpiration
  • 2026 P2 Q6b — Root pressure & guttation
  • 2025 P1 Q14 — Phloem loading
  • 2024 P1 Q14 — Water loss & guttation
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q12 — Lenticels, stomata, hydathodes
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q13 — Imbibition
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q14 — Stomatal opening/closing sequence
  • 2023 (2024) P2 Q6b — Apoplastic radial transport
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q14 — Stomatal opening
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q14 — Phloem translocation (pressure flow)
  • 2020 P1 Q15 — Water & solute potential
  • 2020 P1 Q16 — Osmosis
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q14 — Stomatal opening
  • 2019 (New) P2 Q6b — Phloem translocation
  • 2019 (New) P2 Q2A — Epithelia, meristems, water potential practical, calcium
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q15 — Transport in plants
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q16 — Phloem transport
  • 2018 P1 Q12 — Water & mineral transport
  • 2017 P1 Q14 — Factors affecting transpiration
  • 2017 P1 Q15 — Pressure-flow hypothesis
  • 2017 P2 Q6 — Transpiration & potometer
  • 2016 P1 Q15 — Guttation in darkness
  • 2016 P1 Q16 — Phloem transport
  • 2016 P2 Q10c — Stomatal opening & closure

Movement methods

DiffusionDown a concentration gradient; passive
OsmosisFree water across a selectively permeable membrane
ImbibitionPhysical adsorption of water by hydrophilic materials (cellulose walls, seeds)
Facilitated diffusionPassive, through specific transport proteins
Active transportATP; against gradient (K⁺ into root hairs)
Bulk (mass) flowWhole solution moves by a pressure gradient; long distance; independent of solute gradient

Water potential Ψ (MPa)

Ψ = Ψs + Ψp

  • Pure water at atmospheric pressure: Ψ = 0
  • Ψs (solute potential) is always negative; more solute → more negative (0.1 M sucrose ≈ −0.23 MPa)
  • Ψp positive in turgid cells; negative (tension) in xylem (< −2 MPa)
  • Water moves from higher (less negative) to lower Ψ
  • Incipient plasmolysis: Ψp = 0, so Ψ = Ψs
  • Full turgor: Ψp = −Ψs, so Ψ = 0

Practical: Ψ of potato tissue

Blot strips; measure initial length (or mass)Place 2 strips in each sucrose solution (0.15–0.40 M) for a set timeRe-measure; calculate % changePlot % change vs concentrationZero change → Ψ of tissue = Ψs of that solution

From soil to xylem: radial transport

RoutePathNotes
ApoplasticCell walls, intercellular spaces, dead xylemLeast resistance; carries most water; blocked at endodermis by Casparian strip
SymplasticCytosol connected by plasmodesmataCrosses a plasma membrane once on entry
TransmembraneRepeatedly out of and into cellsCrosses many membranes

The endodermis forces all solutes through a selective membrane (keeps toxins out) and stops ions in the stele leaking back. Minerals enter root hairs mostly by active transport (K⁺ is hundreds of times more concentrated inside).

Ascent of sap: cohesion–tension

Evaporation from mesophyll walls lowers their ΨWater pulled from xylem (transpiration pull)Cohesion (H-bonds) passes tension down an unbroken columnAdhesion to lignocellulose walls resists gravity and collapseBulk flow up a pressure gradient; no ATP spent by the plant

Root pressure and guttation

  • At night (humidity near 100%, little transpiration), roots keep pumping ions into the stele → Ψ falls → water enters → root pressure
  • Excess water exudes through hydathodes at leaf tips and margins = guttation (Alocasia, Colocasia)
  • Not in daytime, not through stomata, not dew; root pressure lifts water only short distances

Phloem: pressure-flow hypothesis

Sugar loaded into sieve tube at source (often active)Ψ in sieve tube fallsWater enters from xylem by osmosisPositive pressure buildsBulk flow to sink (~1 m h⁻¹)Sugar unloaded at sink; water returns to xylem

Phloem sap ≈ 30% sucrose + amino acids, hormones, minerals. Sources: mature leaves. Sinks: growing roots, buds, fruits. Tubers can be either.

Transpiration

  • Loss of water vapour from aerial parts: stomatal (~95%), cuticular, lenticular
  • Path: xylem → mesophyll (3 routes) → evaporation into substomatal space → diffusion out through stomata → boundary layer ("diffusion shell")
  • Importance: distributes water and minerals; drives ascent of sap and uptake by roots; cools leaves

Factors

Factor ↑Transpiration
Light↑ (stomata open)
Temperature↑ (greatest effect in light)
Humidity↓
Wind↑ (removes diffusion shell)
CO₂ in leaf↓ (stomata close)
Soil water available↑

Soil texture itself has little direct effect.

Stomatal opening: K⁺ influx

Light → photosynthetic ATP in guard cellsK⁺ actively pumped in from neighbouring cellsGuard-cell Ψ falls → water enters by osmosisTurgor rises; thick inner walls make cells bend apart → pore opens

Closing: K⁺ leaves → water leaves → turgor falls. ABA (drought, from roots and leaves) triggers K⁺ loss and closure, preventing wilting. Low CO₂ in the substomatal cavity opens stomata. Guard cells also have an internal clock.

Practical: potometer

Cut a leafy shoot under water (no air locks) → fit it airtight → introduce an air bubble in the capillary → time how far the bubble moves under controlled conditions → change one factor (light, wind from a fan, humidity with a plastic bag) → reset with the reservoir. Strictly it measures water uptake, which approximates transpiration.

Exam traps Stomata close when guard cells lose water and shrink; turgor falls. Guttation needs root pressure and occurs at night. Transpiration falls at high humidity. Sugar is loaded into phloem by active transport in many plants, not by bulk flow. Stomatal transpiration is ~95%, not 50%.

Plant nutrition

Very frequentSeen in 6/8 new-syllabus papers0.8 MCQs per paper1 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2024
Past-paper questions (7)
  • 2024 P1 Q15 — Mineral deficiency symptoms
  • 2024 P2 Q2B — Trichomes, symplast, sulphur uptake, fertilisation, statoliths
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q15 — Nutrients causing chlorosis
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q16 — Forms of N and B uptake
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q15 — Element sourced only from air
  • 2020 P1 Q17 — Chlorosis in older leaves
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q15 — Plant mineral nutrition

Modes of nutrition

  • Photoautotrophs: all green plants
  • Mutualism: legume + Rhizobium; mycorrhizae; coralloid roots of Cycas + Anabaena
  • Commensalism: epiphytic orchids
  • Parasitism: semi-parasite Loranthus; total parasite Cuscuta (dodder)
  • Carnivorous (photosynthetic but take N and minerals from insects, in nutrient-poor soils): Nepenthes, Drosera, Utricularia (aquatic)

17 essential elements

Macronutrients (9): C, H, O, N, P, S, K, Ca, Mg

Micronutrients (8): Cl, Fe, Mn, B, Zn, Cu, Ni, Mo

C and O come from atmospheric CO₂. H comes from water. N is absorbed from soil as NO₃⁻ or NH₄⁺; atmospheric N₂ is not used directly by plants.

Element (form)Main rolesDeficiency
N (NO₃⁻, NH₄⁺)Amino acids, proteins, nucleic acids, chlorophyll, coenzymesStunted growth, chlorosis especially in older leaves
P (H₂PO₄⁻)ATP, nucleic acids, phospholipidsHealthy look but slow growth, thin stems, purple veins, poor flowering and fruiting
K (K⁺)Stomatal operation; enzyme cofactor; osmotic balanceYellow-brown leaf margins, weak stems, poor roots
Ca (Ca²⁺)Cell wall and middle lamella; membrane permeability; signal transductionCrinkled young leaves; death of terminal buds
Mg (Mg²⁺)Chlorophyll; activates enzymesInterveinal chlorosis in older leaves
S (SO₄²⁻)Some amino acids and proteinsChlorosis in young leaves
Fe (Fe²⁺/Fe³⁺)Chlorophyll synthesis; N₂ fixationInterveinal chlorosis in young leaves
Mn (Mn²⁺)Enzymes of photosynthesisInterveinal chlorosis, young leaves
Zn (Zn²⁺)Enzyme activator; chlorophyll formation; transcriptionCrinkled leaves; short internodes
B (H₂BO₃⁻)Chlorophyll synthesis cofactor; cell wall; pollen tube growthDeath of meristems; thick, leathery leaves
Cu (Cu⁺/Cu²⁺)Enzyme componentLight-green young leaves, dry tips; stunted roots
Mo (MoO₄²⁻)Nitrogen metabolismDeath of root and shoot tips; chlorosis in older leaves
Ni (Ni²⁺)Nitrogen metabolismDeath of leaf tips; chlorosis in older leaves
Cl (Cl⁻)Osmotic and ionic balance; photosynthesisWilting, stubby roots, mottling
Older or younger leaves? Mobile nutrients (N, Mg, P, K, Mo, Ni) move to new growth, so deficiency shows first in older leaves. Immobile nutrients (Ca, Fe, S, B, Mn) show in young leaves.

Plant life cycles and reproduction

Very frequentSeen in 6/8 new-syllabus papers0.9 MCQs per paper4 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (15)
  • 2026 P1 Q15 — Seedless fruits (parthenocarpy)
  • 2026 P1 Q40 — Vegetative propagation structures
  • 2025 P1 Q43 — Adaptations for cross-pollination
  • 2024 P1 Q16 — Embryo sac nuclei
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q17 — Diploid structure (ovule)
  • 2020 P1 Q18 — Seed develops from ovule
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q16 — Sexual reproduction in land plants
  • 2019 (New) P2 Q2B — Gametophytes, sori, pollination, cytokinins
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q28 — Sexual reproduction in land plants
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q30 — Fertilisation in angiosperms
  • 2019 (Old) P2 Q3C — Plant support tissues, seed dormancy & germination, toxins, immunity
  • 2018 P1 Q27 — Male gametophyte
  • 2017 P1 Q30 — Vegetative propagation structures
  • 2017 P2 Q3B — Collenchyma, parthenocarpy, seed germination
  • 2016 P2 Q3B — Ovule & post-fertilisation changes

Alternation of generations (heteromorphic)

Sporophyte (2n)Meiosis → spores (n)Gametophyte (n)Mitosis → gametesInternal fertilisation → zygote (2n), retained and nourished

Gametangia and sporangia have sterile jackets against desiccation. Seedless plants need external water for sperm; seed plants do not. Trend: sporophyte becomes dominant, gametophyte reduced and dependent.

Four life cycles compared

PogonatumNephrolepisSelaginellaCycas
DominantGametophyteSporophyteSporophyteSporophyte
SporesHomoHomo (sori + indusium)Hetero (strobilus)Hetero
GametophyteDioecious, photosyntheticBisexual heart-shaped prothallus, photosynthetic, independent♂ in microspore, non-photosynthetic; ♀ partly photosynthetic, partly dependentReduced, dependent, in ovule
SpermFlagellated, swimFlagellated, swimFlagellated, swimLarge, multi-ciliated, via pollen tube
OtherProtonema; sporophyte = foot, seta, capsuleRhizome, fiddleheads, stolonsHeterophyllous; megasporangium → 4 megasporesDioecious sporophyte; seeds; ovule = nucellus + integument

Flower and gametophytes

  • Sepals and petals are sterile; stamens are microsporophylls; carpels are megasporophylls
  • Pollen grain (male gametophyte): tube nucleus + generative nucleus
  • Ovule: 1 functional megaspore → embryo sac = 8 nuclei in 7 cells: 3 antipodals, central cell with 2 polar nuclei, 2 synergids, 1 egg
  • The ovule itself is diploid (2n) tissue; megaspore, microspore, pollen and embryo sac are haploid

Double fertilisation (unique to angiosperms)

Pollen germinates on stigma; tube grows through styleGenerative nucleus → 2 sperm nucleiTube enters micropyleSperm 1 + egg → zygote (2n)Sperm 2 + 2 polar nuclei → triploid endosperm nucleus (3n)

Ovule → seed; integuments → seed coat; ovary wall → pericarp; ovary → fruit. Significance: endosperm develops only if the egg is fertilised, so no nutrients are wasted.

Cross-pollination adaptations

  • Self-incompatibility (self-infertility)
  • Heterostyly
  • Unisexual flowers
  • (also dichogamy)

Monoecy and homostyly are not cross-pollination adaptations. Cross-pollination increases variation and supports evolution.

Parthenocarpy and parthenogenesis

  • Parthenocarpy: fruit without fertilisation, so seedless. Natural in banana; induced with growth substances in grapes and oranges
  • Parthenogenesis (plants): seed without fertilisation (some grasses)

Seeds, dormancy and germination

  • Seed advantages: coat protects; food reserve; dormancy survives bad periods; dispersal
  • Dormancy causes: inhibitors, hard seed coat, coat impermeable to water
  • Germination needs water, O₂, suitable temperature
  • Sequence: imbibition of water → enzymes activated → food mobilised → radicle emerges (positively gravitropic) → plumule (negatively gravitropic)

Natural vegetative propagation

RhizomeGinger, ferns
Stem tuberPotato (Solanum)
CormColocasia, Alocasia, gladiolus
Runner / stolonCentella, spider plant, mint
BulbilsDioscorea
Leaf budsBryophyllum
Exam traps The embryo sac has 8 nuclei in 7 cells, not 8 cells. Fertilisation is not essential for fruit formation (parthenocarpy). Double fertilisation is unique to angiosperms. The generative nucleus makes 2 sperms, not 3. Both antheridia and archegonia occur on the fern gametophyte.

Plant responses, growth regulators and stress

Every paperSeen in 8/8 new-syllabus papers1.0 MCQs per paper4 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (17)
  • 2026 P1 Q16 — Hormone for lateral expansion (ethylene)
  • 2025 P1 Q17 — Ethylene & gibberellins
  • 2025 P2 Q6b — Cold stress in plants
  • 2024 P1 Q17 — Hormones in seed germination
  • 2024 P2 Q6 — Plant defence against pests & pathogens
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q16 — Hormones promoting rooting
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q18 — Hormone functions
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q17 — ABA & water deficit
  • 2020 P1 Q19 — Hormones promoting senescence
  • 2020 P2 Q6a — Effects of light on plants
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q17 — Plant responses to light
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q25 — Plant movements
  • 2018 P1 Q20 — Gibberellin functions
  • 2018 P1 Q26 — Thigmotropism
  • 2017 P1 Q28 — Nyctinastic movement
  • 2016 P1 Q27 — Hormone preventing leaf fall
  • 2016 P2 Q8 — Plant growth substances

Light (photomorphogenesis)

  • Red and blue light matter most
  • Blue-light photoreceptors: phototropism, light-induced stomatal opening, slowing of hypocotyl elongation as a seedling emerges
  • Phytochromes (mainly red/far-red): seed germination, shade avoidance
  • Shade under a canopy is rich in far-red, so plants grow taller. Direct sun (more red relative to far-red) stimulates branching and inhibits vertical growth
  • Photoperiod controls flowering
  • Phototropism: cells on the shaded side elongate faster

Gravity and touch

  • Roots positively, shoots negatively gravitropic
  • Statoliths = plastids with dense starch grains, in root-cap cells; settling redistributes Ca²⁺, which moves auxin to the lower side; high auxin inhibits root elongation there, so the root bends down
  • Thigmomorphogenesis: wind-exposed trees are shorter and stockier
  • Thigmotropism: tendrils coil around supports
  • Thigmonasty: Mimosa pudica folds as pulvinus cells lose turgor
  • Nyctinasty: flowers opening by day, closing at night
RegulatorMain effects (NIE list)
Auxin (IAA)Stem elongation (low concentration); lateral and adventitious roots; fruit development; apical dominance; photo- and gravitropism; vascular differentiation; retards leaf abscission (prevents leaf fall)
GibberellinsStem (internode) elongation; pollen development and tube growth; fruit growth; seed development and germination (activate enzymes); used for seedless grapes
CytokininsCell division in shoots and roots; promote lateral bud growth (modify apical dominance); move nutrients to sinks; seed germination; delay leaf senescence
Abscisic acidInhibits growth; stomatal closure in drought; seed dormancy (inhibits early germination); promotes leaf senescence; desiccation tolerance
EthyleneFruit ripening; leaf abscission; triple response in seedlings (inhibits stem elongation, promotes lateral expansion, horizontal growth); senescence; roots and root hairs; flowering in the pineapple family
JasmonatesDefence signalling
Quick pairs from past papers Seed germination: cytokinin + gibberellin. Root formation: auxin + ethylene. Leaf senescence: ABA + ethylene. Triple response: ethylene. Fruit growth: gibberellin. Prevents leaf fall: auxin. Released on water deficit: ABA.

Abiotic stress

  • Drought: ABA closes stomata; grass leaves roll; leaf shedding
  • Cold: membranes lose fluidity below a critical temperature, so plants raise the proportion of unsaturated fatty acids. Freezing: extracellular ice draws water out of cells, so frost-tolerant plants accumulate sugars and other solutes
  • Salt: low soil Ψ cuts water uptake; plants make compatible organic solutes; halophytes (mangroves) use salt glands

Biotic stress: defences

Pre-existingInduced
Wax and cuticle; thick epidermal walls; stomatal size, position and shape; thorns, prickles, trichomes; toxins: alkaloids (nicotine), phenolics (flavonoids, lignin, tannins), terpenoids (azadirachtin), lectinsCell-wall changes; cork and abscission layers; phenolics; toxic compounds; enzymes that degrade fungal walls or damage insect organs
Exam traps ABA prevents wilting by removing K⁺ from guard cells. The major photoreceptor for seed germination is phytochrome. Molybdenum works in nitrogen metabolism. Statoliths are starch-containing plastids, not calcium crystals.

Unit 4 — Model MCQs

Pick an answer to check it. Questions follow the past-paper style (five options, one correct).

4.1 Which plant tissue consists of dead cells with lignified walls and provides mechanical support? Plant tissues & anatomy

Answer: (3) Sclerenchyma (fibres, sclereids) is dead and lignified; collenchyma is living with unevenly thickened cellulose walls.

4.2 Secondary growth in girth of a dicot stem is due to Plant form & growth

Answer: (3) Lateral meristems (vascular and cork cambium) produce secondary xylem/phloem and periderm.

4.3 The Casparian strip in the endodermis forces water to move through the Water relations & transport

Answer: (2) The suberin strip blocks the apoplast so water and ions must cross plasma membranes, allowing selection.

4.4 Which force is mainly responsible for the ascent of sap in tall trees? Water relations & transport

Answer: (3) Transpiration creates tension; cohesion and adhesion keep the water column continuous.

4.5 Which deficiency causes interveinal chlorosis in OLD leaves first? Plant nutrition

Answer: (2) Mg is mobile and moved to young leaves, so old leaves show chlorosis first. Fe and Ca deficiency appear in young leaves.

4.6 In a typical angiosperm embryo sac, the number of nuclei and cells are Plant reproduction & life cycles

Answer: (2) The central cell holds 2 polar nuclei, so 8 nuclei are in 7 cells.

4.7 Which pair of hormones together promotes seed germination? Plant hormones & responses

Answer: (3) Past-paper pairing: cytokinin + gibberellin promote germination; ABA maintains dormancy.

4.8 The 'triple response' of seedlings growing towards an obstacle is caused by Plant hormones & responses

Answer: (4) Ethylene slows elongation, thickens the stem and causes horizontal growth.

Unit 4 — Structured & essay practice

Essay (Q6 style) Explain how water moves from the soil to the atmosphere through a flowering plant.

Show marking points
  1. Root hairs: large surface; water enters by osmosis (lower ψ in root cells)
  2. Apoplast, symplast and vacuolar pathways across cortex
  3. Casparian strip forces water into symplast at endodermis
  4. Root pressure from active ion pumping into xylem (guttation)
  5. Xylem vessels/tracheids: dead, lignified, continuous tubes
  6. Cohesion between water molecules (H-bonds); adhesion to walls
  7. Transpiration from mesophyll → stomata creates tension (transpiration pull)
  8. Factors: light, temperature, humidity, wind, soil water
  9. Stomatal control by guard cells (K⁺ uptake, ABA closes)

Structured State the main effect(s) of each plant hormone: auxin, gibberellin, cytokinin, ethylene, abscisic acid. Name a hormone pair that acts together in (i) seed germination (ii) leaf senescence.

Show marking points
  1. Auxin: cell elongation, apical dominance, phototropism, rooting of cuttings, prevents leaf fall
  2. Gibberellin: stem elongation, fruit growth, breaks dormancy
  3. Cytokinin: cell division, delays senescence, shoot formation
  4. Ethylene: fruit ripening, triple response, abscission
  5. ABA: stomatal closure, dormancy, stress hormone
  6. (i) cytokinin + gibberellin (ii) ABA + ethylene
Unit 05

Animal Form & Function

One third of the whole paper. It fills MCQ positions 18–30, structured Q3 and essays Q7–8. Learn it system by system with numbers and hormones.

16.2MCQs / paper
32%of Paper I
56Paper II parts since 2019
175textbook pages

Animal tissues

Every paperSeen in 8/8 new-syllabus papers1.0 MCQs per paper0 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (12)
  • 2026 P1 Q18 — Epithelium–location–function
  • 2025 P1 Q44 — Epithelial tissue functions
  • 2024 P1 Q18 — Cartilage & bone cells
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q17 — Epithelia
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q19 — Connective tissue
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q18 — Tissue–location
  • 2020 P1 Q41 — Respiratory tract tissues
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q18 — Connective tissues (blood)
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q24 — Smooth muscle features
  • 2017 P1 Q3 — Epithelial tissue functions
  • 2017 P1 Q45 — Cardiac muscle
  • 2016 P1 Q21 — Smooth muscle
EpitheliumCellsWhereRole
Simple squamousOne layer, plate-likeCapillaries, alveoli, Bowman's capsuleDiffusion and exchange
Simple cuboidalOne layer, dice-shapedKidney tubules, thyroid, salivary glandsSecretion
Simple columnarOne layer, brick-shapedIntestinal liningSecretion, active absorption
Pseudostratified columnarOne layer of unequal heights; ciliatedNasal passage, tracheaMucous membrane; sweeps mucus
Stratified squamousMany layers; regeneratesSkin surface, mouth, anus, vaginaResists abrasion

Epithelia: closely packed cells, apical and basal surfaces, basement membrane, no blood vessels. Functions: protection, secretion, absorption (not insulation or support).

Connective tissues

Cells scattered in an extracellular matrix with fibres: collagen (strength), reticular (join to adjacent tissues), elastic. Cells include fibroblasts, macrophages, mast cells (heparin, histamine), fat cells and leucocytes.

Loose (areolar)Most widespread; all 3 fibres; under skin; holds organs
Dense fibrousCollagen-packed; tendons (muscle–bone), ligaments (bone–bone)
AdiposeFat droplets; insulation, padding, fuel
BloodLiquid matrix (plasma) not secreted by cells; fibres only on clotting
CartilageChondroitin sulphate + collagen; chondrocytes secrete both; trachea, intervertebral discs
BoneCollagen + Ca, Mg, phosphate salts; osteoblasts (form bone), osteocytes in lacunae; osteons with central canal

Muscle tissues

SmoothSkeletalCardiac
ShapeSpindleLong cylindersBranched
NucleiOneManyOne
StriationsNoYes (sarcomeres)Yes
ControlInvoluntaryVoluntaryInvoluntary, myogenic
OtherGut, bladder, arteriesFatigue quicklyIntercalated discs, gap junctions

Nervous tissue

  • Neurone (structural and functional unit): cell body, dendrites (receive), axon (transmit)
  • Neuroglia: nourish, insulate (myelin), replenish neurones, modulate function
Exam traps Simple cuboidal = salivary glands and kidney tubules; simple columnar = intestine. Pseudostratified epithelium is a simple epithelium. Reticular fibres join connective tissue to adjacent tissues; collagen gives strength. Osteocytes maintain bone; osteoblasts form it.

Nutrition and the human digestive system

Every paperSeen in 8/8 new-syllabus papers1.5 MCQs per paper9 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (26)
  • 2026 P1 Q19 — Human digestive system
  • 2025 P1 Q18 — Human saliva
  • 2025 P1 Q19 — Pancreatectomy & digestion
  • 2025 P2 Q2C — Bone tissue, gastritis, vitamins, respiratory pigments, bronchitis
  • 2024 P1 Q19 — Digestive enzyme–organ–substrate
  • 2024 P1 Q20 — Vitamins
  • 2024 P2 Q7a — Liver in nutrition
  • 2024 P2 Q7b — Regulation of digestion
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q19 — Regulation of digestion (gastrin etc.)
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q20 — Large intestine functions
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q19 — Digestive hormones
  • 2021 (2022) P2 Q7a — Pancreas structure
  • 2021 (2022) P2 Q7b — Pancreas in digestion
  • 2020 P1 Q21 — Mineral elements in humans
  • 2020 P1 Q42 — Digestive substances by region
  • 2020 P2 Q2B — Plant life cycle, symbiosis, BMI, vitamins, gut hormones
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q19 — Feeding types in animals
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q20 — Nucleic acid digestion
  • 2019 (New) P2 Q2C — Caecum, gastric glands, absorption, circulation, hypertension
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q12 — Duodenum histology
  • 2019 (Old) P2 Q2A — Vitamin B, dentition, enterogastrone, gas exchange, excretion
  • 2018 P1 Q10 — Human digestive system
  • 2018 P1 Q45 — Absorption of digestion products
  • 2017 P1 Q12 — Pancreatic & intestinal enzymes
  • 2016 P1 Q11 — Vitamins & anaemia
  • 2016 P2 Q10a — Human pancreas

Holozoic nutrition

IngestionDigestionAbsorptionAssimilationEgestion
Filter feedersClams, oysters
Fluid feedersMosquitoes, aphids, bees, hummingbirds
Substrate feedersLeaf-miner caterpillars, maggots
Bulk feedersMost animals including humans

Symbiosis: mutualism (cellulose digesters in ruminants and termites), parasitism (tapeworm, lice), commensalism (barnacles on whales).

Mouth

  • Teeth: incisors, canines, premolars, molars (adult dental formula 2.1.2.3 per quadrant)
  • Saliva: water (dissolves, aids taste), salivary amylase (starch → smaller polysaccharides + maltose), mucus (lubricates, cleans, protects), lysozyme and immunoglobulins (antimicrobial), buffers (neutralise acid, prevent tooth decay)
  • Tongue (skeletal muscle) mixes and forms the bolus

Stomach

  • Gastric glands: mucous cells (mucus), chief cells (pepsinogen), parietal cells (H⁺ and Cl⁻ separately → HCl)
  • HCl activates pepsinogen → pepsin, which activates more (autocatalysis); pepsin: proteins → small polypeptides
  • HCl kills microbes (non-specific defence)
  • Self-protection: inactive enzyme secretion, mucus, new epithelium every 3 days
  • Absorbs some water, alcohol, drugs; secretes gastrin; chyme leaves via pyloric sphincter
SubstrateEnzyme (source)Product
StarchSalivary and pancreatic amylaseDisaccharides
DisaccharidesDisaccharidases (intestinal: maltase, sucrase, lactase)Monosaccharides
ProteinsPepsin (stomach)Small polypeptides
PolypeptidesTrypsin, chymotrypsin (pancreas; secreted as trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen)Smaller polypeptides
Smaller polypeptidesPancreatic carboxypeptidaseSmall peptides, amino acids
Small peptidesDipeptidases, carboxy- and aminopeptidases (intestinal)Amino acids
Fats (emulsified by bile salts)Pancreatic lipaseFatty acids, glycerol, monoglycerides
DNA, RNAPancreatic nucleasesNucleotides
NucleotidesNucleotidases, nucleosidases, phosphatases (intestinal)N-bases, sugars, phosphates

Fat and nucleic acid digestion start in the small intestine. Duodenum completes most digestion; jejunum and ileum absorb.

Absorption

  • Surface area: circular folds → villi → microvilli (brush border)
  • Glucose (mostly), amino acids, small peptides, vitamins: active; fructose: facilitated diffusion
  • Into villus capillaries → hepatic portal vein → liver
  • Fatty acids + monoglycerides → triglycerides re-formed in cells → chylomicrons → lacteal → lymph → blood
  • ~2 L water drunk + ~7 L in juices; most reabsorbed in small intestine

Large intestine

  • Caecum (with appendix): fermentation of undigested plant matter
  • Colon: completes water and ion reabsorption; bacteria make vitamin K, some B vitamins and folic acid
  • Rectum stores faeces; two anal sphincters

Pancreas and liver

  • Pancreas: exocrine acini (juice: bicarbonate, amylase, lipase, nucleases, trypsinogen) + endocrine islets of Langerhans (insulin, glucagon); pancreatic + bile duct → hepatopancreatic duct
  • Liver lobule (hexagonal): hepatocytes in columns radiating from a central vein; sinusoids with mixed portal and arterial blood; Kupffer cells; bile canaliculi; portal triad at corners

Hormonal regulation

TriggerHormone (source)Effect
Stomach stretchGastrin (stomach)↑ gastric juice
Fatty and amino acids in chymeCholecystokinin (duodenum)Bile from gall bladder; pancreatic enzymes
Acid chymeSecretin (duodenum)Bicarbonate from pancreas
Fat-rich chymeCCK + secretin (enterogastrones)Inhibit gastric peristalsis and secretion

Balanced diet

  • Carbohydrates: energy, heat, stores, protein sparing
  • Proteins: growth, repair, enzymes, antibodies, hormones. 8 essential amino acids (e.g. leucine, methionine, lysine); animal proteins are complete
  • Lipids: most energy per gram; fat-soluble vitamins; steroid hormones; insulation, myelin; essential fatty acids
  • Fibre: bulk, prevents constipation, protects against colorectal cancer
  • Water ≈ 60% of body mass

Vitamins

VitaminRoleDeficiency
AVisual pigment, epithelia, immunityBlindness, skin disorders, low immunity
DCa and P absorptionRickets; bone softening
EAntioxidantNervous degeneration
KClotting; made by colon bacteriaDefective clotting
B1CoenzymesBeriberi
B2FADCracks at mouth corners
B3NADPellagra
B6, B9, B12RBC productionAnaemia (B9: birth defects)
CAntioxidant; collagenScurvy; slow wound healing

Minerals

CaBones, teeth, clotting, nerves, muscles
PBones, teeth, acid–base balance
Na, K, ClAcid–base, water balance, nerve function
FeHaemoglobin, electron carriers
IThyroid hormone (goitre)
FTeeth (decay)
MgEnzyme cofactor

Energy and body mass

  • BMR: minimum rate at rest, post-absorptive (≥12 h fast), no stress; ~1600–1800 kcal/day (men), 1300–1500 (women)
  • Energy budget: C = M + U + F + P (food = metabolism + urine + faeces + production)
  • BMI = mass (kg) ÷ height² (m²). <18.5 malnutrition; ≥30 obesity

Example: 50 kg, 1.53 m → 50 ÷ 2.3409 = 21.4. Minimum non-malnourished mass at 1.53 m = 18.5 × 2.3409 = 43.3 kg.

Disorders

  • Gastritis: excess HCl damages mucosa; causes: prolonged starvation, mental stress, aspirin, Helicobacter pylori
  • Constipation: slow faecal movement, too much water reabsorbed; prevent with fibre and regular habits
Exam traps Salivary enzymes do not prevent tooth decay; buffers do. After pancreatectomy, triglyceride (fat) digestion is most affected. Secretin acts on the pancreas, not the stomach. Fat digestion does not start in the stomach. Vitamin B made in the colon does not prevent bone softening (that is vitamin D).

Circulation, blood and lymph

Every paperSeen in 8/8 new-syllabus papers1.8 MCQs per paper13 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (34)
  • 2026 P1 Q20 — Circulatory system types
  • 2026 P1 Q21 — Human heart & vessels
  • 2026 P2 Q7a — Lymphatic system
  • 2026 P2 Q7b — Hypertension risk factors
  • 2026 P2 Q2C — Villus, cardiac cycle, clotting, mucus escalator, autoimmunity
  • 2025 P1 Q20 — Human heart conduction
  • 2024 P1 Q21 — Heart conduction & atrial emptying
  • 2024 P1 Q44 — Blood transfusion compatibility
  • 2024 P2 Q2C — Skeletal muscle, tongue, fish circulation, lymph, blood pathway
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q20 — Blood route through heart
  • 2023 (2024) P2 Q7a — Structure of heart wall
  • 2023 (2024) P2 Q7b — Coronary circulation & blockage
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q21 — ABO antibodies
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q22 — Lymphatic system
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q43 — Blood clotting
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q20 — Tricuspid valve failure
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q43 — Single vs double circulation
  • 2021 (2022) P2 Q2B — Cartilage, nutrition terms, blood values, cardiac cycle
  • 2020 P1 Q22 — Lymph, gas exchange, clotting, CO2 transport
  • 2020 P1 Q43 — Circulatory features in animals
  • 2020 P2 Q2C — Tissues, SA/AV node, ECG, Hb equation
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q21 — Hypotension consequences
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q13 — Hepatic circulation pathway
  • 2019 (Old) P2 Q7a — Structure of human heart
  • 2019 (Old) P2 Q7b — Coronary circulation
  • 2019 (Old) P2 Q2B — Double circulation, ECG, bypass, Hb, xylem transport
  • 2018 P1 Q14 — Animal circulatory systems
  • 2018 P1 Q46 — Erythrocytes
  • 2018 P2 Q3A — Pacemaker, coronary arteries, thermoregulation, blood groups
  • 2017 P1 Q16 — Human blood cells
  • 2017 P1 Q17 — Animal circulatory systems
  • 2017 P2 Q2C — Circulation, plasma proteins, cardiac cycle, water potential
  • 2016 P1 Q13 — Human blood
  • 2016 P1 Q14 — Heart conducting system

Open vs closed

OpenClosed
Haemolymph bathes organs; no distinction from interstitial fluidBlood confined to vessels
Returns via ostia (pores with valves) in the heartHigher pressure; suits larger, more active animals
Arthropods, most molluscsAnnelids, cephalopods, vertebrates

No circulatory system: cnidarians, flatworms, nematodes (diffusion suffices).

Single vs double circulation

  • Single (fish, including rays and sharks): 2-chambered heart; heart → gills → body; blood reaches organs at reduced pressure
  • Double: pulmonary + systemic circuits. Amphibians and most reptiles: 3 chambers. Birds and mammals: 4 chambers, complete separation
  • Double is better because systemic blood is re-pressurised, giving more efficient supply (brain, muscles)

Lymphatic system

  • Lymph vessels (with valves), nodes (connective tissue + WBCs), tonsils, spleen, thymus
  • Lymph composition = interstitial fluid
  • Drains into veins at the base of the neck via two ducts
  • Moved by vessel contraction and skeletal muscles
  • Roles: return lost fluid and proteins; absorb fats and fat-soluble vitamins; immunity

Heart structure

  • Wall: pericardium (fibrous + serous), myocardium (cardiac muscle + conducting fibres), endocardium (flat epithelium, continuous with endothelium)
  • Left ventricle wall thickest (pumps to whole body)
  • Tricuspid (right AV, 3 flaps); bicuspid/mitral (left AV, 2 flaps); chordae tendineae + papillary muscles stop inversion; semilunar valves at aorta and pulmonary artery
  • Coronary arteries branch from the aorta just after the aortic valve; cardiac veins → coronary sinus → right atrium

Blood route

Vena cavae → right atriumTricuspid valve → right ventriclePulmonary valve → pulmonary arteries → lungsPulmonary veins (4) → left atriumBicuspid valve → left ventricleAortic valve → aorta → coronary arteries first, then body

Head, neck, forelimbs → superior vena cava. Trunk and hind limbs → inferior vena cava. Hepatic artery → liver → hepatic vein → IVC.

Conducting system

  • SA node (right atrium wall near SVC) = pacemaker: initiates and sets rhythm
  • AV node (between atria) relays to ventricles
  • AV bundle (bundle of His) → bundle branches → Purkinje fibres → contraction from apex upwards
  • Heart is myogenic; rate modified by sympathetic (↑), parasympathetic (↓), adrenaline, thyroxine, temperature

Cardiac cycle (0.8 s at ~75 beats/min)

Complete diastole0.4 sAll relaxed; AV valves open; ventricles fill passively
Atrial systole0.1 sSA node fires; atria empty into ventricles
Ventricular systole0.3 sAV node → Purkinje; AV valves shut; semilunar open

Resting rate 60–80 bpm. Stroke volume = blood pumped per ventricle per beat.

ECG

  • P: atrial depolarisation (SA node impulse)
  • QRS: ventricular depolarisation (spread from AV node)
  • T: ventricular repolarisation
  • Atrial repolarisation is hidden in QRS

Blood pressure

  • Normal ~120/80 mmHg (systolic/diastolic); measured with a sphygmomanometer
  • Hypertension risks: obesity, diabetes, family history, smoking, inactivity, salt, alcohol, stress, LDL deposits. Consequences: kidney damage, heart attack, stroke, vessel damage
  • Hypotension: shock, dengue haemorrhagic fever, sudden standing, bleeding, fasting → fainting
  • Atherosclerosis → angina (narrowing) or myocardial infarction (complete block) ± thrombosis; brain → stroke

Respiratory pigments

HaemoglobinVertebrates, annelids
Haemocyanin (Cu)Arthropods, molluscs
ChlorocruorinMany annelids
HaemerythrinSome annelids (marine)
MyoglobinVertebrate muscle: O₂ storage

Pigments evolved because O₂ is poorly soluble in water.

Gas transport

Hb + 4O₂ ⇌ HbO₈ (lung capillaries, inside RBCs)

CO₂ form%
HCO₃⁻ in plasma (carbonic anhydrase in RBC)~70
Carbaminohaemoglobin (binds globin, not haem)~23
Dissolved~7

Blood components

  • RBCs: biconcave, no nucleus, no mitochondria (anaerobic), ~120-day life, 4–6 million µL⁻¹; erythropoietin from kidney
  • WBCs: neutrophils (phagocytes, first to arrive), monocytes → macrophages, lymphocytes (B, T, NK), eosinophils (parasites), basophils (histamine, heparin)
  • Platelets: no nucleus; clotting
  • Plasma: ions, albumin (buffer, osmotic), antibodies, fibrinogen; pH 7.4; serum = plasma without clotting factors
Vessel damaged; collagen exposedPlatelets stick; platelet plugClotting factors releasedProthrombin → thrombinFibrinogen → fibrin threadsClot (thrombin also makes more thrombin)

Heparin prevents prothrombin → thrombin and fibrinogen → fibrin. Vitamin K and Ca²⁺ are needed for clotting.

ABO groups

GroupAntigen on RBCAntibody in plasma
AAanti-B
BBanti-A
ABA + Bnone (universal recipient)
Ononeanti-A + anti-B (universal donor)

Anti-B is present in groups A and O.

Rhesus

  • Rh⁺ = has Rh antigen on RBCs
  • Rh⁻ people make anti-Rh antibodies only after exposure
  • Rh⁻ mother, Rh⁺ first baby: sensitised at delivery; second Rh⁺ fetus: antibodies cross the placenta and destroy fetal RBCs
  • B Rh⁺ can safely receive B or O, Rh⁺ or Rh⁻
Exam traps The SA node is in the right atrium and the AV node does not set rhythm. Atrial systole lasts 0.1 s, not 0.3 s. Lymph vessels have valves and drain into veins, not arteries. The first arteries off the aorta are the coronaries, not those to the brain. Blood entering the pulmonary artery is at lower pressure than blood entering the aorta. Tricuspid failure means some blood flows back into the right atrium during ventricular systole.

Gas exchange

Very frequentSeen in 7/8 new-syllabus papers1.1 MCQs per paper3 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (16)
  • 2026 P1 Q22 — Human breathing
  • 2025 P1 Q21 — Human lungs
  • 2024 P1 Q22 — Control of breathing
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q21 — CO2 transport forms
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q22 — Vital capacity calculation
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q21 — Homeostatic control of breathing
  • 2020 P1 Q23 — Lung capacities calculation
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q43 — Respiratory pigments
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q44 — Effects of smoking
  • 2019 (New) P2 Q7a — Ventilation of lungs
  • 2019 (New) P2 Q7b — Control of breathing
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q43 — Brain control of breathing
  • 2018 P1 Q11 — Regulation of breathing
  • 2018 P2 Q2A — Alimentary canals, radula, insectivorous plants, airway
  • 2017 P1 Q13 — Inspiration mechanics
  • 2016 P1 Q12 — Human respiratory system

Respiratory surfaces

  • Needed because surface area to volume ratio falls as size increases. Animals with high SA:V (e.g. 8.3 cm⁻¹) can rely on the body surface
  • Properties: moist, thin, permeable, large area, good blood supply
  • Body surface: cnidarians, flatworms, earthworms
  • External gills: marine annelids. Internal gills: fish, prawns
  • Tracheae: insects. Book lungs: spiders, scorpions
  • Lungs: reptiles, birds, mammals. Skin: amphibians

Human airway

Nostrils → nasal cavity (filter, warm, humidify)Pharynx (shared with food)Larynx (vocal cords; epiglottis closes glottis on swallowing)Trachea (cartilage rings)Bronchi → bronchiolesAlveoli

Lungs

  • Right lung 3 lobes; left lung 2 lobes and slightly smaller (heart apex)
  • Visceral pleura (inner, on lung) and parietal pleura (outer, on thoracic wall) with fluid between
  • Mucus escalator: goblet-cell mucus traps dust; cilia sweep it up to the pharynx to be swallowed
  • Alveoli: single flattened, non-ciliated cells; moisture film; macrophages; surfactant lowers surface tension and prevents collapse

Ventilation (negative-pressure breathing)

Inspiration (active)Expiration (normally passive)
External intercostals and diaphragm contract; ribs up and out, sternum forwardMuscles relax
Thoracic volume ↑ → lung pressure ↓ below atmosphereVolume ↓ → pressure ↑ → air out

Exercise recruits neck, back and chest muscles. The first pair of ribs is fixed to the sternum (manubrium) and barely moves.

Control of breathing (negative feedback)

Activity ↑ → CO₂ ↑CO₂ + H₂O → H₂CO₃ → H⁺ + HCO₃⁻ in CSF and blood; pH ↓Sensors in medulla, aorta and carotids detect itMedulla raises depth and rateCO₂ removed; pH back to 7.4

O₂ has little effect unless very low (aortic and carotid sensors). Stretch receptors in lungs stop over-inflation. The pons modulates rhythm.

Lung volumes

Tidal volume (TV)~500 mL
Residual volume (RV)~1200 mL
IC = TV + IRV
FRC = RV + ERV
VC = TV + IRV + ERV♀ ~3100, ♂ ~4800 mL
TLC = VC + RV~6000 mL
Anatomical dead space~150 mL

TV 500, RV 1200, IRV 3100, ERV 1100 → VC = 4700 mL. TLC − VC = RV.

Smoking

  • Nicotine: addictive; ↑ heart rate; vasoconstriction; temporary ↑ BP
  • ↑ goblet-cell mucus; paralyses cilia (hydrogen cyanide) → bronchitis
  • Phagocyte enzymes destroy alveoli (emphysema), so less gas-exchange area
  • CO binds Hb irreversibly, so less O₂ carried
  • Carcinogens: ~90% of lung cancers

Occupational and other disorders

  • Silicosis: silica (quarrying, mining, masonry, glass, pottery) → fibrosis
  • Asbestosis: asbestos fibres → fibrosis, pulmonary hypertension
  • TB: Mycobacterium tuberculosis, airborne; weight loss, sweats, fever, cough, blood in sputum
  • Asthma: bronchiolar smooth muscle contracts (immune over-reaction to pollen, dust, mites, cold air)
Exam traps Diaphragm is skeletal muscle. Exhalation is passive (relaxation). Medulla oblongata and pons regulate breathing; the thalamus does not. Vital capacity includes ERV. Smoking does not cause TB. In exhaled air, PO₂ is higher than PCO₂. Low pH (high CO₂) increases breathing; high pH decreases it.

Immunity

Very frequentSeen in 7/8 new-syllabus papers1.0 MCQs per paper4 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (14)
  • 2026 P1 Q23 — Human immunity
  • 2025 P1 Q37 — Vaccine types (measles, cholera)
  • 2025 P1 Q45 — Leucocytes
  • 2025 P2 Q7a — Natural killer cells
  • 2025 P2 Q7b — Active immunity
  • 2024 P1 Q36 — Chickenpox vaccine
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q23 — Antibodies
  • 2022 (2023) P2 Q6b — Vaccines for microbial diseases
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q22 — B lymphocytes
  • 2021 (2022) P2 Q8 — Innate immunity
  • 2020 P1 Q44 — Antibodies
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q22 — Innate immunity cells
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q14 — White blood cells
  • 2016 P1 Q38 — GM hepatitis B vaccine

Innate (non-specific, vertebrates and invertebrates)

External barriers

  • Keratinised skin; shedding
  • Mucous membranes; mucus; cilia; coughing and sneezing
  • Tears, saliva, mucus (washing); lysozyme
  • Gastric acid; acidic skin (sweat and sebaceous secretions)

Internal defences

  • Phagocytes: neutrophils (first), macrophages (larger)
  • Natural killer cells: lymphocytes that release chemicals to kill virus-infected and cancer cells (no engulfing)
  • Antimicrobial proteins: interferons (from virus-infected cells; neighbours make antiviral proteins), complement (cascade → lysis, phagocytosis, inflammation)
  • Inflammation: mast cells release histamine → vasodilation (redness, heat) + permeability (swelling) → phagocytes and cytokines; pain; pus; fever if systemic

Acquired (specific, vertebrates only)

  • Specificity, self/non-self recognition, memory
  • B and T cells both arise in bone marrow; T cells mature in the thymus, B cells in bone marrow
  • Antigen receptors on membrane (~100,000 per cell)
  • Antigen: provokes a response. Epitope: small part bound by a receptor; one antigen has several epitopes
  • T cells recognise antigen fragments only on antigen-presenting cells (macrophages, dendritic cells, B cells); B cells bind free antigen
Cell-mediatedHumoral (antibody-mediated)
CellsT cells → cytotoxic T + memory TB cells → plasma cells (antibodies) + memory B
TargetsInfected cells (viruses, fungi, parasites inside cells), cancer, transplantsAntigens and pathogens in body fluids (mainly extracellular bacteria, toxins)
Helper T cellsActivate cytotoxic T cells and B cells

Antibodies (immunoglobulins)

  • Proteins secreted by plasma cells
  • Same Y shape as B-cell receptors, but soluble
  • Neutralise, mark for destruction, activate complement and phagocytosis; do not kill directly

Types of acquired immunity

NaturalArtificial
Active (memory, long-lasting)Infection (chickenpox)Vaccination (BCG, oral polio: live attenuated)
Passive (immediate, short, no memory)Placenta; colostrum and breast milkImmunoglobulin injections, antiserum, antivenom, anti-tetanus Ig

Disorders

  • Allergy: allergen → antibodies on mast cells → histamine release on re-exposure (sneezing, bronchoconstriction, anaphylaxis)
  • Autoimmune: attack on self. Type 1 diabetes (T cells destroy β cells), multiple sclerosis (T cells attack myelin), rheumatoid arthritis (antibodies attack joint lining)
  • Immunodeficiency: inborn or acquired (drugs, HIV/AIDS)
Exam traps Immunoglobulin injections give short-term passive immunity, not lifelong. Plasma cells come from B cells. Epitopes are on antigens, not on lymphocytes. Helper T cells activate B cells. NK cells are part of innate immunity. Monocytes are not multi-lobed (neutrophils are). Basophils release histamine (and heparin).

Osmoregulation and excretion

Every paperSeen in 8/8 new-syllabus papers1.1 MCQs per paper12 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (30)
  • 2026 P1 Q24 — Aldosterone/angiotensin/ADH
  • 2026 P2 Q3A — N-excretion, nervous systems, pons, receptors, hormones
  • 2025 P1 Q22 — Nephron segment–process
  • 2025 P1 Q25 — ADH and blood osmolarity
  • 2024 P1 Q23 — Human kidney functions
  • 2024 P2 Q3A — Lung capacity, APCs, N-excretion, nephron, CKD, nervous systems
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q45 — Nitrogenous excretory products
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q44 — Nitrogenous excretory products
  • 2022 (2023) P2 Q8a — Nephron diagram
  • 2022 (2023) P2 Q8b — Urine formation
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q23 — Excretory structures of invertebrates
  • 2021 (2022) P2 Q3A — Hydroskeleton, skull, vertebrae, salt glands, nephron, helper T
  • 2020 P1 Q24 — Malpighian tubules
  • 2020 P2 Q3A — Interferons, nephron capillaries, dialysis, coordination
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q23 — Nitrogenous excretory products
  • 2019 (New) P2 Q3A — Immunity types, nephrons, urinary disorders, brain parts
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q20 — ADH
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q21 — Ultrafiltration
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q45 — Nitrogenous wastes compared
  • 2019 (Old) P2 Q8a — Nephron structure
  • 2019 (Old) P2 Q8b — Urine formation
  • 2018 P1 Q21 — Excretion in animals
  • 2018 P1 Q47 — PCT reabsorption
  • 2018 P2 Q2B — Ultrafiltration, kidney, thermoreceptors, liver
  • 2017 P1 Q22 — Excretion
  • 2017 P1 Q44 — Normal urine composition
  • 2017 P2 Q2A — Intestine histology, HCl, kidney hormones, renal calculi
  • 2016 P1 Q20 — Excretion
  • 2016 P1 Q46 — Factors affecting urine output
  • 2016 P2 Q6 — Kidney, nephron & osmoregulation

Nitrogenous wastes

AmmoniaUreaUric acid
ToxicityHighestLowerLeast
Water neededMostModerateLeast (semi-solid)
Energy to makeLowestMoreMost
AnimalsBony fish, many aquatic invertebrates, tadpolesMammals, adult amphibians, sharks (osmoregulation)Birds, many reptiles, land snails, insects

Excretory products depend on the substrate, enzymes, O₂ availability and habitat. Defecation is not excretion.

Excretory structures

Body surfaceCnidarians
Flame cells (protonephridia)Flatworms
Nephridia (open to coelom internally)Annelids
Malpighian tubules (open into gut)Insects
Green (antennal) glandsCrustaceans
Salt glands (near eyes)Marine birds and reptiles
Sweat glandsHuman skin
KidneysAll vertebrates

Kidney and nephron

  • Posterior abdominal wall, behind peritoneum; right kidney slightly lower
  • Renal artery from aorta; renal vein to IVC
  • Cortex (granular, glomeruli), medulla (pyramids), pelvis → ureter
  • Nephrons: cortical (majority) and juxtamedullary (deep loops)
  • Afferent arteriole wider than efferent, so high glomerular pressure
  • Efferent arteriole → peritubular capillaries (around convoluted tubules) and vasa recta (around loop)

Urine formation

Ultrafiltration: glomerulus → Bowman's capsule (plasma minus cells, platelets, proteins)PCT: glucose and amino acids actively; Na⁺ actively (Cl⁻ follows); K⁺ and most HCO₃⁻ passively; most water by osmosis; secretes H⁺ (active), NH₃, drugsDescending limb: permeable to water, so water leavesAscending limb: impermeable to water; NaCl out (active), so filtrate dilutesDCT: regulates K⁺ secretion and NaCl reabsorption; H⁺ and HCO₃⁻ (pH); ADH and aldosterone actCollecting duct: ADH ↑ water reabsorption; aldosterone ↑ Na⁺; some urea diffuses out

Hormones and homeostasis

  • ADH (hypothalamus, released from posterior pituitary): blood osmolarity ↑ → ADH ↑ → DCT and collecting duct more permeable → less, concentrated urine
  • Aldosterone (adrenal cortex): ↑ Na⁺ and water reabsorption, ↑ K⁺ excretion; driven by renin → angiotensin (↑ BP)
  • Kidney roles: water and electrolyte balance, excretion, pH, blood volume and pressure, erythropoietin, renin

Disorders

  • Renal calculi (oxalates, phosphates): dehydration, alkaline urine, infection, metabolism, family history; prevent by drinking water
  • Kidney failure / CKD: diabetes, hypertension, family history, age; prevent with low-salt, low-fat diet, exercise, check-ups, no smoking
  • Dialysis: artificial removal of wastes, solutes and toxins
  • CKDu (Sri Lanka: NCP, Uva, Eastern and other provinces): suspected As, Cd, fluoride, pesticides, poor utensils, genetics, dehydration
Exam traps Most water is reabsorbed in the PCT, by osmosis. Water leaves the descending limb; NaCl leaves the ascending limb. Aldosterone increases K⁺ in urine. Plasma proteins remain in glomerular capillaries. Urea is made in the liver, not the kidney. K⁺ is secreted at the DCT; HCO₃⁻ is mostly reabsorbed in the PCT.

Coordination and the nervous system

Every paperSeen in 8/8 new-syllabus papers2.0 MCQs per paper9 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (36)
  • 2026 P1 Q25 — Neurotransmitter & schizophrenia
  • 2026 P1 Q44 — Hypothalamus functions
  • 2025 P1 Q23 — Sympathetic nervous system
  • 2025 P1 Q46 — Cerebral association areas
  • 2025 P2 Q8a — Synapse & chemical transmission
  • 2025 P2 Q8b — Parkinson disease
  • 2025 P2 Q3A — Excretion, coordination, PNS, brain, receptors, eye
  • 2024 P1 Q24 — Synaptic transmission (Ca2+)
  • 2024 P1 Q45 — Brain structure–function
  • 2024 P2 Q3B — Cerebrum, reflex arc, retina, hearing, hypothyroidism, uterine cycle
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q23 — Parasympathetic effects
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q46 — Human brain structure
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q24 — Cardiovascular centre
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q25 — Parasympathetic actions
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q24 — Human brain
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q25 — Action potential sequence
  • 2021 (2022) P2 Q2C — Dead space, nervous vs endocrine, cortex, ANS, vision
  • 2020 P1 Q25 — Brain part–function
  • 2020 P1 Q27 — Sympathetic effects
  • 2020 P2 Q3B — Brain ventricles, spinal cord, refractory period, Parkinson's
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q24 — Cerebellum function
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q45 — Resting membrane potential
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q17 — Spinal nerves
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q18 — Autonomic nervous system
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q44 — Medulla oblongata
  • 2019 (Old) P2 Q2C — Neurone, resting potential, brain, vision, ear, thyroid
  • 2018 P1 Q15 — Pons Varolii
  • 2018 P1 Q17 — Parasympathetic effects
  • 2018 P1 Q18 — Action potential
  • 2017 P1 Q18 — Human brain
  • 2017 P1 Q19 — Neurone physiology
  • 2017 P2 Q2B — Neurones, impulses, hypothalamus, trophic hormones
  • 2016 P1 Q18 — Human brain
  • 2016 P1 Q19 — Action potential
  • 2016 P1 Q45 — Sodium–potassium pump
  • 2016 P2 Q2C — Nervous system, receptors

Nervous vs hormonal coordination

NervousHormonal
TransmissionNeuronesBlood
SignalElectrical + chemicalChemical
ResponseLocalisedDiffuse
OnsetFastSlower
DurationShortLong

Shared: both use chemical signals and coordinate responses for homeostasis.

Nervous organisation in phyla

CnidariaDiffuse nerve net
PlatyhelminthesAnterior ganglia ("brain") + longitudinal nerve cords; eyespots
Annelida, ArthropodaBrain + ventral nerve cord with segmental ganglia
EchinodermataNerve ring + radial nerves
ChordataBrain + dorsal spinal cord (CNS) + PNS

CNS protection

  • Skull and vertebrae
  • Meninges: dura mater (outer), arachnoid, pia mater (inner)
  • CSF in 4 ventricles (3 in forebrain, 1 in hindbrain) and central canal: uniform pressure, shock absorber, nutrients and wastes
Brain part (embryonic origin)Functions
Cerebrum (forebrain)Grey matter cortex, white matter inside; hemispheres joined by corpus callosum; 4 lobes (frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital). Sensory areas (pain, temperature, touch, sight, hearing, taste, smell); association areas (recognition and interpretation; memory, intelligence, reasoning, judgement, emotion); motor areas (voluntary skeletal muscle)
Thalamus (forebrain)Main sensory input centre; sorts and relays to the cortex
Hypothalamus (forebrain)Body temperature, thirst and water balance, sleep–wake cycles, autonomic control, fight-or-flight, makes posterior pituitary hormones and releasing hormones, sexual behaviour; linked to posterior pituitary by nerves, to anterior by portal vessels
Pineal body (forebrain)Melatonin
MidbrainRelay; integrates visual and auditory information; visual and auditory reflexes
Pons Varolii (hindbrain)Bridge between cerebellar hemispheres; relay; large-scale movements (running, climbing); with medulla regulates respiration
Medulla oblongata (hindbrain)Cardiovascular and respiratory centres; reflexes (vomiting, swallowing, coughing, sneezing); relay
Cerebellum (hindbrain)Coordinates voluntary movement; posture and balance; motor learning

Brain stem = midbrain + pons + medulla. Spinal cord: central canal, grey matter inside (H-shaped), white outside; links CNS with body; reflex centre.

Peripheral nervous system

  • Cranial and spinal nerves + autonomic ganglia
  • Afferent (sensory) → CNS → efferent (motor)
  • Spinal nerves carry axons of both sensory and motor neurones
  • Somatic (motor) system: skeletal muscle, voluntary
  • Autonomic: smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, glands

Sympathetic vs parasympathetic

OrganSympathetic ("fight or flight")Parasympathetic ("rest and digest")
PupilDilatesConstricts
SalivaInhibitsStimulates
HeartAcceleratesSlows
BronchiRelax (dilate)Constrict
Digestion, pancreas, gall bladderInhibitsStimulates
LiverGlucose releaseGlycogen storage
Adrenal medullaStimulates–
BladderInhibits emptyingPromotes emptying
GenitaliaEjaculationErection

Sympathetic nerves leave the spinal cord only and release noradrenaline. Parasympathetic nerves leave brain and sacral cord and release acetylcholine.

Resting potential (≈ −70 mV)

  • Unequal ion distribution: K⁺ high inside, Na⁺ high outside; Cl⁻ and large anions inside
  • More K⁺ channels than Na⁺ channels open
  • Na⁺/K⁺ pump (ATP): 3 Na⁺ out for every 2 K⁺ in

Action potential

Stimulus pushes membrane above thresholdNa⁺ channels open, Na⁺ in: depolarisationNa⁺ channels close; K⁺ channels open, K⁺ out: repolarisationK⁺ still leaving: hyperpolarisationRefractory period (Na⁺ channels inactivated): one-way conduction

Duration ~2 ms. Speed ↑ with axon diameter and myelin (saltatory conduction between nodes of Ranvier).

Chemical synapse

AP reaches presynaptic terminalCa²⁺ diffuses into the terminalVesicles fuse; neurotransmitter released by exocytosisDiffuses across cleft; binds receptorsNa⁺/K⁺ move; postsynaptic depolarisationEnded by enzymatic hydrolysis or reuptake

Transmitters: acetylcholine (motor neurones), biogenic amines (noradrenaline, dopamine, serotonin), amino acids, neuropeptides.

Reflex arc

ReceptorSensory neuroneInterneurone (CNS)Motor neuroneEffector

Disorders

SchizophreniaDistorted reality, hallucinated voices; dopamine pathways
DepressionNeurotransmitter, genetic, social factors
Alzheimer'sDementia; confusion and memory loss; cortical neurone degeneration
Parkinson'sProgressive motor disorder: slowness, tremor, poor balance; loss of dopamine neurones (midbrain, basal ganglia)
Multiple sclerosisAutoimmune attack on myelin
Exam traps Breathing is regulated by the medulla and pons. Sleep–wake cycles are the hypothalamus. Visual and auditory reflexes are the midbrain. The brain stem comes from the midbrain and hindbrain. Neurotransmitter release is triggered by a rise in Ca²⁺ inside the presynaptic terminal. K⁺ flows out during repolarisation.

Sense organs and skin

Every paperSeen in 8/8 new-syllabus papers1.0 MCQs per paper2 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (12)
  • 2026 P1 Q26 — Eustachian tube
  • 2025 P1 Q24 — Endolymph in ear
  • 2024 P1 Q25 — Skin mechanoreceptors
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q24 — Human vision
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q26 — Sensory receptors
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q44 — Sensory receptors
  • 2020 P1 Q26 — Retina cell layers
  • 2020 P2 Q7a — Structure of eye
  • 2020 P2 Q7b — Eye & brain in vision
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q25 — Visual pathway
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q19 — Sensory receptors
  • 2018 P1 Q16 — Human ear

Sensory receptors

  • Specialised cell, organ or subcellular structure; always connected to the nervous system
  • Respond at or above threshold; transduce stimulus to membrane potential
  • Amplification and sensory adaptation (e.g. smell fades)
  • Detect both external and internal stimuli
Chemo-Taste buds (modified epithelial cells; 5 tastes incl. umami), olfactory cells (neurones), CO₂ sensors
Thermo-Krause end bulbs (cold), Ruffini (warmth), free nerve endings (both); hypothalamic neurones
Photo-Rods, cones
Mechano-Meissner (light pressure), Merkel discs (light touch), free endings (near surface); Pacinian (deep pressure); hair cells of ear
PainFree nerve endings

Eye structure

Fibrous layerSclera (shape, muscle attachment), cornea (avascular, refracts)
Vascular layerChoroid (pigmented, blood-rich; absorbs stray light), ciliary body (ciliary muscle; suspensory ligaments; secretes aqueous humour), iris (circular + radial muscles; pupil)
Nervous layerRetina: pigmented epithelium → photoreceptors → bipolar → ganglion cells (choroid side → vitreous side); fovea (cones only); blind spot

Rods: rhodopsin, sensitive, night vision, no colour. Cones: photopsin, three types (red, green, blue), colour, need bright light.

Vision

Conjunctiva → cornea → aqueous humour → lens → vitreous humourPhotoreceptors → bipolar → ganglion cellsOptic nerve → occipital lobe
  • Accommodation (near): ciliary muscle contracts → ligaments slacken → lens more convex (parasympathetic)
  • Distant: ciliary muscle relaxes → lens flatter
  • Pupil constricts in bright light and for near vision; convergence for near objects
  • Binocular vision: overlapping fields fused in occipital lobe → 3-D, judging speed and distance
  • Blocked aqueous drainage → glaucoma

Ear

  • Outer: pinna, auditory canal (wax), tympanic membrane
  • Middle (air, temporal bone): malleus → incus → stapes (on oval window); round window; Eustachian tube to pharynx equalises pressure
  • Inner: vestibule (utricle, saccule), 3 semicircular canals, cochlea
  • Cochlea: vestibular canal and tympanic canal (perilymph) + cochlear duct (endolymph) with basilar membrane and organ of Corti; tectorial membrane

Hearing and balance

Sound waves → tympanic membraneOssicles amplify → oval windowPressure waves in perilymph of vestibular canalBasilar membrane vibrates; hair cells bend against tectorial membraneAuditory nerve → temporal lobe; energy dissipated at round window

Utricle and saccule (otoliths of CaCO₃) sense gravity, tilt and linear movement. Semicircular canals sense angular movement. Endolymph-filled: cochlear duct, utricle, saccule (membranous labyrinth).

Skin

  • Epidermis: keratinised stratified squamous; germinative layer; melanocytes (melanin vs UV); no blood vessels
  • Dermis: areolar tissue, collagen and elastic fibres; hair, arrector pili, sweat and sebaceous glands, blood vessels, receptors
  • Subcutaneous layer: adipose + areolar
  • Functions: protection, temperature regulation, sensation, vitamin D synthesis, minor excretion (NaCl, urea)
Exam traps Cones are less sensitive than rods. Ruffini corpuscles detect warmth. The Eustachian tube links the middle ear and pharynx. Accommodation is for near vision. The vestibule detects gravity and linear movement; semicircular canals detect angular movement. Visual perception is in the occipital lobe; auditory in the temporal lobe.

Endocrine system

Very frequentSeen in 6/8 new-syllabus papers0.8 MCQs per paper3 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (13)
  • 2026 P1 Q27 — Hypothyroidism symptoms
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q25 — Hormone–function
  • 2023 (2024) P2 Q8b — Type 1 diabetes
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q27 — Non-tropic pituitary hormone
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q26 — Hormone–function
  • 2020 P1 Q28 — Tropic & non-tropic hormone (GH)
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q26 — Hormone–function
  • 2019 (New) P2 Q3B — Receptors, ear, tropic hormones, positive feedback, type 2 diabetes
  • 2018 P1 Q19 — Human hormones
  • 2018 P2 Q2C — Resting potential, hormones, nervous vs endocrine, sinuses
  • 2017 P1 Q20 — Calcitonin
  • 2017 P1 Q21 — Human hormones
  • 2016 P1 Q17 — Growth hormone

Ductless glands secrete hormones into blood; only target cells with matching receptors respond. Endocrine control is slower but more precise than nervous control.

GlandHormoneMain action
HypothalamusReleasing hormones: GHRH, TRH, CRH, GnRH, PRH; inhibiting: PIH, GHIHControl anterior pituitary (via portal vessels)
Makes ADH and oxytocin (stored and released by posterior pituitary)See posterior pituitary
Anterior pituitaryGHGrowth (bone, muscle) by protein synthesis; ↑ blood glucose; tropic and non-tropic effects
TSH (tropic)Thyroid hormone secretion; thyroid growth
ACTH (tropic)Adrenal cortex hormones (glucocorticoids)
FSH, LH (tropic, gonadotropins)Follicle growth, ovulation, corpus luteum; Sertoli cells (FSH); Leydig cells → testosterone (LH)
Prolactin (non-tropic only)Milk production
Posterior pituitaryADHWater reabsorption in DCT and collecting duct
OxytocinUterine contraction (birth); milk ejection
Thyroid (follicular cells)T3, T4↑ BMR and heat; metabolism; growth of skeleton and nervous system; BP, heart rate
CalcitoninLowers blood Ca²⁺: bone storage, less kidney reabsorption
Parathyroids (4)PTHRaises blood Ca²⁺: targets kidney tubules, small intestine, bone
ThymusThymosinT-lymphocyte maturation
PinealMelatoninBiological (circadian) rhythms; inhibits sex-organ development before puberty
Adrenal cortexCortisol (glucocorticoid); aldosterone (mineralocorticoid)Long-term stress: gluconeogenesis from protein and fat. Aldosterone: Na⁺ in, K⁺ out, ↑ blood volume and pressure
Adrenal medullaAdrenaline, noradrenalineShort-term stress (fight-or-flight); ↑ heart rate, BP, glycogen breakdown
Islets of LangerhansGlucagon (α cells), insulin (β cells)Raise / lower blood glucose
OvaryOestrogen (follicle), progesterone (corpus luteum), inhibinCycles, pregnancy, female characteristics; inhibin ↓ FSH
TestisTestosterone (Leydig), inhibin (Sertoli)Spermatogenesis; male characteristics
Gut, kidneyGastrin, secretin, CCK; erythropoietinDigestion; RBC production

Feedback

  • Negative (most): response reduces stimulus (insulin and glucose)
  • Positive: oxytocin in labour (cervix stretch → more oxytocin) and in milk ejection (suckling → oxytocin → milk → more suckling); oestradiol → LH surge

Disorders

Type 1 diabetesAutoimmune destruction of β cells; young; insulin injections, diet, monitoring
Type 2 diabetesInsulin present but cells don't take up glucose; obesity, inactivity, age, genetics
Hyperthyroidism↑ BMR, weight loss, warm sweaty skin, diarrhoea, exophthalmos, goitre
Hypothyroidism↓ BMR, weight gain, lethargy, cold dry skin, constipation; lack of TSH or iodine
Exam traps Oxytocin causes milk ejection; prolactin causes milk production. ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex, not adrenaline secretion. Calcitonin lowers Ca²⁺ and is made by thyroid follicular cells (NIE). Aldosterone increases K⁺ excretion. Cortisol mediates long-term stress; adrenaline short-term. Thymosin acts on T cells, not innate immunity.

Homeostasis and the liver

FrequentSeen in 4/8 new-syllabus papers0.1 MCQs per paper5 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (7)
  • 2026 P2 Q8a — Liver lobule histology
  • 2026 P2 Q8b — Liver in homeostasis
  • 2024 P1 Q26 — Thermoregulation response to cold
  • 2023 (2024) P2 Q8a — Blood glucose regulation
  • 2019 (New) P2 Q10b — Energy budget of animals
  • 2017 P1 Q43 — Blood glucose regulation
  • 2016 P2 Q2A — Homeostasis, liver, positive feedback
Variable departs from set point (stimulus)SensorControl centreEffector responseBack to set point (negative feedback)

Body temperature (36.5–37.5 °C)

Too hotToo cold
Skin warm receptors + hypothalamic sensors → hypothalamic "thermostat"Cold receptors + hypothalamic sensors
Skin arterioles dilate; sweatingArterioles constrict; shivering; hair erector muscles contract; ↑ thyroxine and adrenaline → ↑ metabolism

Blood glucose (70–110 mg/100 mL fasting)

High glucose → insulin (β)Low glucose → glucagon (α)
Cells take up and use glucose; glycogen made in liver and muscle; fat storedGlycogen broken down in liver; glucose released

Osmoregulation

Hypothalamic osmoreceptors detect ↑ osmolarity → thirst + ADH release (posterior pituitary) → more water reabsorbed → concentrated urine. Low volume or Na⁺ → angiotensin II → aldosterone → Na⁺ and water retained.

Liver in homeostasis

  • Carbohydrate metabolism (glycogen ↔ glucose)
  • Fat metabolism for energy
  • Deamination (amino group → urea) and transamination (non-essential amino acids)
  • Plasma proteins (albumin, globulins)
  • RBC breakdown; Kupffer-cell defence
  • Detoxification of drugs and toxins
  • Major heat producer
  • Stores glycogen, vitamins A, D, E, K, B12, iron, copper
  • Hormone inactivation
  • Bile (fat emulsification; bilirubin excretion)
Exam trap In the cold: arterioles constrict, hair erector muscles contract, adrenaline increases (2024 Q26). Positive feedback is the exception, not the rule.

Reproduction and development

Every paperSeen in 8/8 new-syllabus papers2.9 MCQs per paper17 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (54)
  • 2026 P1 Q28 — ICSI sequence
  • 2026 P1 Q29 — Testosterone feedback
  • 2026 P1 Q45 — Fetal membranes
  • 2026 P2 Q3B — Positive feedback, sperm pathway, FSH/LH, blastocyst
  • 2025 P1 Q26 — Menstrual/ovarian cycle
  • 2025 P1 Q27 — Yolk sac functions
  • 2025 P1 Q47 — Human sperm
  • 2025 P2 Q3B — Parathyroid, parthenogenesis, spermatogenesis, ovary, lactation
  • 2024 P1 Q27 — Asexual reproduction in animals
  • 2024 P1 Q28 — Male accessory glands
  • 2024 P1 Q46 — Oogenesis
  • 2024 P2 Q8a — Fetal changes in 2nd/3rd trimester
  • 2024 P2 Q8b — Reproductive technology for infertility
  • 2024 P2 Q3C — Uterine hormones, allantois, STI, Ca2+ in sarcomere, skull, gene
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q26 — Spermatogenesis
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q27 — Early human development
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q47 — Fetal membrane (amnion)
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q28 — Sperm storage
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q29 — Female reproductive cycle
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q30 — Breast milk
  • 2022 (2023) P2 Q9a — Sperm structure
  • 2022 (2023) P2 Q9b — Hormonal control of spermatogenesis
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q27 — Oocyte arrest at metaphase II
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q28 — Amnion
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q45 — Leydig cells
  • 2021 (2022) P2 Q3B — Type 1 diabetes, oxytocin feedback, spermatogenesis, ovarian hormones
  • 2020 P1 Q29 — Asexual reproduction in animals
  • 2020 P1 Q45 — Diploid cells in testis
  • 2020 P2 Q8 — Menstrual cycle & hormones
  • 2020 P2 Q3C — Sertoli cells, prenatal diagnosis, fetal circulation, skeleton
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q27 — Spermatogenesis meiosis stage
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q28 — Ovarian/pituitary hormone graph
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q46 — Parthenogenesis
  • 2019 (New) P2 Q10c — Fetal membranes
  • 2019 (New) P2 Q3C — Testes, sperm path, ovary, pregnancy tests, ART, skeleton, sarcomere
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q26 — Modes of asexual reproduction
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q27 — Sperm maturation site
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q46 — Female reproductive cycle
  • 2019 (Old) P2 Q3B — Asexual vs sexual, semen, ovary, pregnancy, STD
  • 2018 P1 Q22 — Composition of human milk
  • 2018 P1 Q25 — Inhibin secretion
  • 2018 P1 Q49 — Human uterus
  • 2018 P2 Q4A — Placenta, lactation, menopause
  • 2017 P1 Q24 — Menstrual cycle
  • 2017 P1 Q25 — Fallopian tube
  • 2017 P1 Q26 — Epididymis
  • 2017 P1 Q27 — Fetal development & infant growth
  • 2017 P2 Q7 — Human testes & spermatogenesis
  • 2017 P2 Q3C — Gametes, inhibin, acrosome, ovulation, hormones
  • 2016 P1 Q25 — Male reproduction
  • 2016 P1 Q26 — Unpaired reproductive structure
  • 2016 P1 Q47 — Human placenta
  • 2016 P1 Q48 — Human uterus
  • 2016 P2 Q2B — Lactation & breast milk

Asexual reproduction in animals

  • Mitosis only; rapid; no mate needed; identical offspring; good in stable environments; risky when conditions change
  • Budding: Hydra
  • Fragmentation and regeneration: some annelids, sponges, cnidarians, flatworms
  • Parthenogenesis: bees, ants, aphids, wasps; rarely some lizards and fish. Honey-bee drones are haploid parthenogenetic males; queens and workers come from fertilised eggs

Sexual reproduction

  • Hermaphrodite (earthworm) vs dioecious
  • External fertilisation: water needed (many invertebrates, amphibians, most bony fish)
  • Internal: insects, reptiles, birds, mammals; fewer gametes, higher zygote survival, more protection
  • Variation gives an advantage when conditions change

Male system

  • Testes in scrotum, ~2 °C below core temperature
  • Seminiferous tubules: Sertoli cells (nourish and attach developing sperm; inhibin). Leydig cells between tubules (testosterone)
  • Epididymis (~6 m, ~3 weeks): sperm mature, become motile and are stored
  • Pathway: seminiferous tubules → epididymis → vas deferens → ejaculatory duct → urethra
  • Semen 2–5 mL; 40–100 million sperm per mL; sperm <10% of volume; sperm survive 48–72 h

Accessory glands

GlandSecretion
Seminal vesicles (~60%)Thick, alkaline, mucus, fructose (energy), coagulating enzyme, vitamin C, prostaglandins
Prostate (~30%)Thin, milky; coagulants, anticoagulant enzymes, citrate
Bulbourethral (Cowper's)Clear alkaline mucus; neutralises urine acid; lubricates

Spermatogenesis (~7 weeks; from puberty)

Primordial germ cells → spermatogonial stem cells (2n)Mitosis → spermatogonia (2n) → primary spermatocytes (2n)Meiosis I → secondary spermatocytes (n)Meiosis II → spermatids (n)Differentiation → sperm; maturation in epididymis

Sperm: head (nucleus + acrosome with trypsin and hyaluronidase), midpiece (mitochondria), tail (9+2 flagellum). Diploid cells in testis: spermatogonia, primary spermatocytes, Leydig and Sertoli cells.

Male hormonal control

Hypothalamus GnRHAnterior pituitary FSH + LHFSH → Sertoli cells (nourish sperm); LH → Leydig cells (testosterone)Testosterone inhibits GnRH, FSH, LH; inhibin inhibits FSH (negative feedback)

Female system

  • Ovary: cortex (follicles at various stages; germinal epithelium) and medulla
  • Oviduct: ciliated; fertilisation in the upper part
  • Uterus: muscular; vascular endometrium; cervix
  • Vagina: muscular, elastic, stratified epithelium

Oogenesis

Fetal: primordial germ cells → oogonia (mitosis)Primary oocytes; meiosis I starts, arrested at prophase I (1–2 million at birth; ~500 ovulated)From puberty, FSH: one primary oocyte completes meiosis I → secondary oocyte + 1st polar bodyMeiosis II arrested at metaphase II; secondary oocyte ovulatedSperm entry completes meiosis II → ovum + 2nd polar body

Ruptured follicle → corpus luteum (oestradiol + progesterone) → corpus albicans if no pregnancy. Primordial germ cells come from the yolk sac.

Ovarian cycleHormonesUterine cycle
Follicular phase: FSH (+LH) grows folliclesRising oestradiol; low levels inhibit FSH and LH (negative feedback); high oestradiol → GnRH ↑ → LH surge (positive feedback)Menstrual flow (days 1–5) then proliferative phase: oestradiol thickens endometrium
Ovulation ~day 14, a day after LH peakLH (+FSH) peak–
Luteal phase: LH forms corpus luteumProgesterone + oestradiol; negative feedback keeps FSH and LH lowSecretory phase: arteries enlarge, glands secrete; ready for implantation
No pregnancy: corpus luteum degeneratesHormones fall; FSH rises againArteries constrict; lining sheds (menstruation)

Menopause: 45–55 years; oocytes run out, ovaries stop responding to FSH and LH.

Early development

Fertilisation in oviduct (12–24 h after ovulation)Cleavage from ~24 hMorula reaches uterus at 3–4 days; fed by endometrial secretionsBlastocyst ~day 5: inner cell mass (embryo + amnion) + trophoblast (fetal placenta)Implantation ~day 7; trophoblast secretes hCG, which rescues the corpus luteum

Extra-embryonic membranes

ChorionMain fetal part of placenta; protects from maternal immune responses; produces hCG
AmnionFluid-filled sac; shock absorber; prevents desiccation
Yolk sacEarly blood cells; source of primordial germ cells
AllantoisEarly blood formation; development of urinary bladder

Placenta and pregnancy

  • Fetal chorionic villi + maternal endometrium; blood does not mix
  • Exchange; immune protection; hormones (hCG, progesterone, oestrogen)
  • Umbilical cord: 2 arteries (O₂-poor, to placenta), 1 vein (O₂-rich, to fetus)
  • ~38 weeks from fertilisation (40 from last period); embryo for the first 8 weeks, then fetus
  • T1: organogenesis; heart beats by week 4 (detectable at 8–10 weeks); hCG pregnancy test; morning sickness
  • T2: hCG falls, placenta takes over progesterone; fetus ~30 cm, movements felt
  • T3: rapid growth to ~50 cm, 3–4 kg

Birth and lactation

  • Labour: prostaglandins, oestradiol, oxytocin (positive feedback); stages: cervical dilation → delivery of baby → delivery of placenta
  • Prolactin (milk synthesis) after oestradiol and progesterone fall; oxytocin ejection via suckling (positive feedback)
  • Colostrum: less lactose, no fat, rich in antibodies
  • Breast milk: lactose, fatty acids, casein, lactalbumin, antibodies, WBCs, lower Na⁺ than cow's milk; fewer allergies; bonding

Birth control

Combined pillSynthetic oestrogen + progesterone → ↓ GnRH, FSH, LH → no ovulation
Progestin-only / Depo-ProveraThickens cervical mucus; thins endometrium (no implantation)
IUDInterferes with fertilisation and implantation
CondomBarrier
Vasectomy; tubal ligationPermanent
Non-surgical abortion (<7 weeks)Drugs block progesterone receptors

Prenatal diagnosis and ART

  • Ultrasound; amniocentesis; chorionic villus sampling; fetal DNA in maternal blood
  • Infertility treatments: hormone therapy; surgery; ART
  • IVF: oocytes + 50,000–100,000 sperm per oocyte in the lab → culture to ≥8 cells → transfer to uterus
  • ICSI: a single selected sperm (or spermatid nucleus) injected into the oocyte cytoplasm → transfer; for male infertility
Exam traps Sperm gain motility in the epididymis, not the testis. The ovulated cell is a secondary oocyte arrested at metaphase II. Prolactin stimulates milk production; oxytocin causes ejection. Implantation is at the blastocyst stage, not morula. hCG is from the chorion/trophoblast, not the allantois. The corpus luteum does not secrete throughout pregnancy (placenta takes over). Sertoli cells (not Leydig) nourish developing sperm.

Skeleton, muscle and movement

Every paperSeen in 8/8 new-syllabus papers2.0 MCQs per paper5 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (31)
  • 2026 P1 Q30 — Human vertebrae
  • 2026 P1 Q31 — Hinge joint movement
  • 2026 P2 Q3C — Skeletal functions, vertebral curves, codominance, pleiotropy
  • 2025 P1 Q28 — Vertebral column
  • 2025 P1 Q29 — Appendicular skeleton & joints
  • 2025 P2 Q3C — Hydroskeleton, cranium, sternum, osteoarthritis, cross-bridges, pedigree
  • 2024 P1 Q29 — Vertebra identification
  • 2024 P1 Q30 — Temporal bone processes
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q28 — Axial skeleton
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q29 — Bones of lower limb
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q31 — Cross-bridge cycle
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q45 — Human skeleton
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q29 — Vertebral curvatures
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q30 — Human skeleton & joints
  • 2020 P1 Q30 — Human skull
  • 2020 P1 Q46 — Vertebral column
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q29 — Human skeleton & joints
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q47 — Animal skeleton types
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q22 — Human skull
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q23 — Upper limb
  • 2019 (Old) P2 Q3A — Hydroskeleton, skull, vertebral column, pelvis, muscle
  • 2018 P1 Q23 — Human ribs
  • 2018 P1 Q24 — Upper limb
  • 2018 P1 Q48 — Skeletal muscle
  • 2017 P1 Q23 — Human vertebrae
  • 2017 P1 Q46 — Animal skeletons
  • 2017 P2 Q10a — Human vertebral column
  • 2017 P2 Q3A — CO2 transport, locomotion, muscle, limbs, hydroskeleton
  • 2016 P1 Q22 — Skeletal muscle contraction
  • 2016 P1 Q23 — Scapula
  • 2016 P1 Q24 — Lower limb

Skeleton types

HydrostaticCnidarians (gastrovascular cavity); nematodes (pseudocoelom); annelids (coelom); antagonistic circular and longitudinal muscles. Disadvantage: little protection and poor support on land
ExoskeletonChitin (arthropods, moult); CaCO₃ (molluscs); bony plates (some reptiles)
EndoskeletonCaCO₃ plates (echinoderms); bone and cartilage (chordates)

Common functions: support, protection, movement. Human extras: Ca and phosphate storage and release; blood-cell production.

Moving through water and air

  • Legs as oars (insects, tetrapods); jet propulsion (squid); side-to-side body and tail (fish); up-and-down undulation (whales)
  • Fusiform shape reduces drag in water and air; wings act as aerofoils

Skull (21 bones: 8 cranial + 13 facial)

  • Cranium (8): frontal, 2 parietal, occipital, 2 temporal, ethmoid, sphenoid
  • Face: 2 zygomatic, maxilla, 2 nasal, 2 lacrimal, vomer, 2 palatine, 2 inferior conchae, mandible (only movable bone); the frontal also contributes to the face
  • Fontanelles: soft areas allowing compression at birth; ossify in 1–2 years
  • Sutures: immovable joints
  • Sinuses (sphenoid, ethmoid, maxillary, frontal): voice resonance, lighter skull
  • Mandible: condyloid process (temporomandibular joint), coronoid process (muscle attachment)
  • Temporal bone: zygomatic, mastoid and styloid processes
  • Zygomatic arch: zygomatic + temporal bones; muscle attachment for lower jaw
  • Occipital condyles + atlas: nodding

Vertebral column: 26 bones

Cervical7; small body; transverse foramina (vertebral artery); bifid spinous process. Atlas: ring, no body or spine (nodding). Axis: odontoid process (pivot, turns head)
Thoracic12; facets on body and transverse processes for ribs
Lumbar5; largest bodies; large spinous processes
Sacrum5 fused; foramina for nerves; articulates with pelvis
Coccyx4 fused

24 separate vertebrae + sacrum + coccyx. Curvatures: primary (thoracic, sacral; concave anteriorly) and secondary (cervical ~3 months, lumbar ~7–8 months; convex anteriorly) maintain upright posture.

Thorax

  • Sternum: manubrium (clavicles + first 2 rib pairs), body, xiphoid (diaphragm); red marrow
  • 12 rib pairs: 7 true, 3 false (indirect), 2 floating
  • First rib fixed, so it does not move in inspiration

Upright posture

  • Secondary curvatures
  • Vertebrae enlarge downwards
  • Large fused sacrum
  • Occipital condyles and foramen magnum centred under the skull
  • Foot arches

Upper limb (30 bones per limb)

  • Pectoral girdle: scapula + clavicle
  • Humerus, radius, ulna, 8 carpals, 5 metacarpals, 14 phalanges
  • Shoulder: shallow ball-and-socket (head of humerus in glenoid cavity of scapula): widest range
  • Elbow: hinge (humerus with radius and ulna; two articular surfaces); flexion and extension only
  • Wrist: radius + 3 proximal carpals; pronation and supination
  • Metacarpal–phalangeal joints: power grip. Joint between carpal and first metacarpal: opposable thumb, precision grip

Lower limb (30 bones per limb)

  • Pelvic girdle: 2 hip bones
  • Femur (longest, strongest), tibia, fibula, patella, 7 tarsals, 5 metatarsals, 14 phalanges (excluding patella = 29)
  • Hip: ball-and-socket in acetabulum; sturdy, bears weight when standing
  • Knee: femur + tibia + patella; flexion, extension and a locking rotation for long standing
  • Ankle: tibia and fibula with a tarsal
  • Arches (2 longitudinal, 1 transverse) spread weight whether stationary or moving

Joints and disorders

Ball and socketShoulder, hip
HingeElbow, knee, ankle, phalanges
PivotAtlas around odontoid process of axis
  • Osteoporosis: ↓ bone density (menopause, low Ca)
  • Osteoarthritis: degenerative, non-inflammatory; cartilage thins
  • Slipped disc: disc core protrudes; may press on a nerve

Skeletal muscle structure

  • Muscle → bundles → fibres (multinucleate cells) → myofibrils → sarcomeres (Z line to Z line)
  • Thin (actin) and thick (myosin) filaments; A band (myosin length) stays constant; I band and H zone shorten
  • Properties of all muscle: contractility, excitability, extensibility, elasticity
  • Accepted model: sliding filament theory

Contraction

Acetylcholine at neuromuscular junction → action potentialCa²⁺ released from sarcoplasmic reticulumCa²⁺ exposes myosin-binding sites on actinMyosin head (energised by ATP hydrolysis) binds actin: cross-bridgePower stroke slides thin filaments; ADP + Pi releasedNew ATP binds, detaching myosin; cycle repeats

Cross-bridge order: ATP hydrolysed (high-energy head) → binds actin → power stroke (ADP, Pi released) → new ATP detaches.

Exam traps The vertebral column has 26 bones, not 24 (24 are separate vertebrae). Only cervical vertebrae have transverse foramina and bifid spines. Thoracic and sacral curvatures are primary. The elbow is a hinge joint. The lower limb has 29 bones excluding the patella. Arches distribute weight both standing and moving. The atlas has no body or spinous process. Osteoarthritis (not osteoporosis) is the degenerative joint disease.

Unit 5 — Model MCQs

Pick an answer to check it. Questions follow the past-paper style (five options, one correct).

5.1 Which enzyme is secreted in an inactive form and activated by enterokinase? Digestion & nutrition

Answer: (2) Enterokinase (enteropeptidase) from the duodenum converts trypsinogen to trypsin.

5.2 The pacemaker of the human heart is the Circulation & blood

Answer: (3) The SA node in the right atrium wall initiates each heartbeat.

5.3 Vital capacity is equal to Gas exchange

Answer: (2) VC = tidal volume + inspiratory reserve + expiratory reserve. Residual volume cannot be exhaled.

5.4 Antibodies are produced by Immunity

Answer: (2) Activated B cells differentiate into plasma cells which secrete antibodies.

5.5 Which hormone increases water reabsorption by the collecting duct? Excretion & osmoregulation

Answer: (2) ADH inserts aquaporins into the collecting duct; aldosterone acts on Na⁺ reabsorption.

5.6 During the depolarisation phase of an action potential Nervous system

Answer: (2) Voltage-gated Na⁺ channels open; the inside becomes positive (~+40 mV).

5.7 How many bones are there in the human skull according to the NIE text? Skeleton, muscle & movement

Answer: (2) Use the NIE figure: 21 skull bones (8 cranial + 13 facial). Many other textbooks give 22 — in the exam, follow NIE.

5.8 Ovulation is triggered by a surge of Reproduction & development

Answer: (2) High oestrogen causes positive feedback → LH surge → ovulation around day 14.

5.9 Which part of the eye contains only cones and gives the sharpest vision? Sense organs

Answer: (2) The fovea of the yellow spot has densely packed cones and no rods.

5.10 Which hormone is NOT secreted by the anterior pituitary? Endocrine system

Answer: (4) Oxytocin and ADH are made in the hypothalamus and released from the posterior pituitary.

Unit 5 — Structured & essay practice

Essay (Q7/8 style) Describe the transmission of a nerve impulse along a myelinated neurone and across a cholinergic synapse.

Show marking points
  1. Resting potential ~ −70 mV: Na⁺/K⁺ pump, more K⁺ leak channels
  2. Stimulus → threshold → voltage-gated Na⁺ channels open → depolarisation (+40 mV)
  3. K⁺ channels open → repolarisation; hyperpolarisation; refractory period ensures one direction
  4. Saltatory conduction: impulse jumps node of Ranvier to node → faster
  5. Arrival at terminal: Ca²⁺ channels open, Ca²⁺ enters
  6. Vesicles fuse, release acetylcholine by exocytosis into cleft
  7. ACh binds receptors on post-synaptic membrane → Na⁺ channels open → EPSP
  8. Acetylcholinesterase hydrolyses ACh; choline recycled
  9. Synapses: one-way transmission, summation, integration

Structured Outline the formation of urine in a nephron.

Show marking points
  1. Ultrafiltration in Bowman's capsule: high pressure (afferent wider than efferent); podocytes, basement membrane
  2. Filtrate: water, glucose, amino acids, urea, salts; no cells/large proteins
  3. PCT: reabsorption of all glucose, amino acids, most Na⁺ and water (microvilli, mitochondria)
  4. Loop of Henle: counter-current multiplier, medullary hypertonicity
  5. DCT: secretion of H⁺, K⁺; aldosterone-controlled Na⁺ reabsorption
  6. Collecting duct: ADH-controlled water reabsorption → concentrated urine
Unit 06

Genetics

Calculation-driven. Practise ratios, pedigrees and Hardy–Weinberg until they are automatic. These are quick marks in Paper I.

2.6MCQs / paper
5%of Paper I
8Paper II parts since 2019
51textbook pages

Mendelian genetics: the foundations

Very frequentSeen in 7/8 new-syllabus papers0.8 MCQs per paper2 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (12)
  • 2026 P1 Q32 — Dihybrid test cross
  • 2025 P2 Q10a — Mendelian human traits
  • 2024 P1 Q32 — Trihybrid probability
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q30 — Genotypes from AaBb cross
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q31 — Monohybrid vs dihybrid cross
  • 2020 P1 Q47 — Mendel's results
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q31 — Monohybrid cross probabilities
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q31 — Test cross
  • 2017 P1 Q32 — Homozygous genotype
  • 2017 P2 Q4A — Test cross, back cross, pedigree charts
  • 2016 P1 Q30 — Dihybrid F2 numbers
  • 2016 P1 Q50 — Genetic terminology

Key terms

TermMeaning
GeneUnit of heredity; a segment of DNA at a fixed locus
AlleleAlternative form of a gene at the same locus
Genotype / phenotypeAllele combination / observable trait (genotype + environment)
Homozygous / heterozygousIdentical alleles (true-breeding) / different alleles
Dominant / recessiveExpressed in heterozygote / masked in heterozygote
P, F1, F2Parental, first filial, second filial generations

Why Mendel succeeded (garden pea, Pisum sativum)

  • Short generation time, many seeds per cross
  • Naturally self-pollinating, yet easy to cross artificially (emasculation)
  • Seven clear-cut contrasting characters
  • Started with true-breeding lines; studied one character at a time
  • Large samples, counted offspring, applied statistics; kept careful records

Mendel's two laws

  • Law of segregation: the two alleles of a gene separate during gamete formation, so each gamete carries one allele (basis: separation of homologues in anaphase I)
  • Law of independent assortment: alleles of different genes segregate independently (basis: random orientation of bivalents in metaphase I) — true only for genes on different chromosomes or far apart

Cross ratios you must recognise instantly

CrossPhenotype ratioGenotype ratio
Monohybrid Aa × Aa3 : 11 AA : 2 Aa : 1 aa
Test cross Aa × aa1 : 11 Aa : 1 aa
Dihybrid AaBb × AaBb9 : 3 : 3 : 19 genotypes (1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1)
Dihybrid test cross AaBb × aabb1 : 1 : 1 : 14 genotypes
Incomplete dominance Rr × Rr1 : 2 : 1same as phenotype
Dominant epistasis12 : 3 : 1 or 13 : 3—
Recessive epistasis / complementary genes9 : 3 : 4 or 9 : 7—

Test cross vs back cross

  • Test cross: unknown dominant phenotype × homozygous recessive → reveals genotype (all dominant ⇒ AA; 1:1 ⇒ Aa)
  • Back cross: F1 × either parent (a test cross is a special back cross to the recessive parent)

Probability rules

  • Product rule (AND, independent events): P(A and B) = P(A) × P(B)
  • Sum rule (OR, mutually exclusive): P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B)
  • e.g. P(aabbcc) from AaBbCc × AaBbCc = (¼)³ = 1/64
Number of gamete types = 2n  ·  F2 genotypes = 3n  ·  F2 phenotypes (complete dominance) = 2n  (n = heterozygous gene pairs)

Human Mendelian traits & pedigrees

Single-gene human traits

DominantRecessive
Widow's peakStraight hairline
Free earlobeAttached earlobe
DimplesNo dimples
Straight thumbHitchhiker's thumb
Tongue rollingNon-roller

Reading a pedigree

  • □ male, ○ female; shaded = affected; horizontal line = mating; vertical = offspring
  • Autosomal recessive: skips generations; two unaffected parents can have an affected child
  • Autosomal dominant: every affected child has an affected parent; no skipping
  • X-linked recessive: mostly males; passed from carrier mothers; never father → son
Exam traps A 3:1 ratio needs both parents heterozygous. "True-breeding" = homozygous. Independent assortment fails for linked genes — watch for ratios that deviate from 9:3:3:1 with excess parental types.

Extensions of Mendelian inheritance

FrequentSeen in 5/8 new-syllabus papers0.6 MCQs per paper3 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (10)
  • 2026 P1 Q33 — Polyallelism (ABO)
  • 2026 P2 Q10a — Dominant epistasis
  • 2024 P1 Q31 — Recessive epistasis 9:7
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q31 — ABO blood group cross
  • 2023 (2024) P2 Q10a — Polygenic inheritance
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q33 — Incomplete dominance vs codominance
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q30 — Sickle cell (pleiotropy)
  • 2019 (Old) P2 Q4A — Test/back cross, inheritance types, allele frequency, GM traits
  • 2018 P1 Q28 — Incomplete dominance
  • 2016 P1 Q28 — Incomplete dominance

Incomplete dominance

Heterozygote is intermediate. Mirabilis jalapa (four o'clock): red × white → all pink F1; F2 1 red : 2 pink : 1 white. Phenotype ratio = genotype ratio.

Codominance

Both alleles fully expressed in the heterozygote. ABO blood group: IAIB → group AB (both A and B antigens).

Multiple alleles (polyallelism)

More than two alleles in the population (each person still has two). ABO: IA, IB, i. IA = IB (codominant) > i.

GroupGenotypes
AIAIA, IAi
BIBIB, IBi
ABIAIB
Oii

Epistasis

One gene masks/modifies the expression of another (non-allelic) gene.

  • Dominant epistasis — fowl plumage: dominant inhibitor allele suppresses colour → 13 : 3 (white : coloured)
  • Recessive (complementary) epistasis — sweet pea flower colour: purple needs at least one dominant allele of both genes → 9 : 7 (purple : white)

Polygenic inheritance

Many genes with additive small effects → continuous variation, normal (bell-shaped) distribution. Examples: human skin colour, height. Environment adds further spread.

Pleiotropy

One gene → multiple phenotypic effects.

  • Sickle-cell: one Hb mutation → anaemia, pain, organ damage, malaria resistance in carriers
  • Cystic fibrosis: autosomal recessive, defective CFTR chloride channel → thick mucus in lungs, pancreas, sterility

Epigenetics & environment

  • Heritable change in gene expression without change in DNA sequence — DNA methylation (silences), histone modification
  • Identical twins can differ (e.g. only one develops schizophrenia)
  • Environment shapes phenotype: Hydrangea colour with soil pH; Himalayan rabbit fur with temperature
Exam traps Codominance ≠ incomplete dominance (AB shows both, pink is a blend). Multiple alleles describe a population; an individual still carries only two. Polygenic = many genes → one trait; pleiotropy = one gene → many traits.

Population genetics: Hardy–Weinberg

FrequentSeen in 3/8 new-syllabus papers0.1 MCQs per paper2 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2025
Past-paper questions (3)
  • 2025 P1 Q30 — Hardy–Weinberg heterozygote frequency
  • 2021 (2022) P2 Q10b — Hardy–Weinberg & evolution
  • 2019 (New) P2 Q4A — Pedigree charts, Hardy–Weinberg calculation
p + q = 1     p² + 2pq + q² = 1
p = dominant allele frequency, q = recessive allele frequency, q² = homozygous recessive phenotype frequency

Five conditions for equilibrium

  1. No mutation
  2. Random mating
  3. No natural selection
  4. Very large population (no genetic drift)
  5. No migration (gene flow)

Any violation → allele frequencies change = microevolution.

Worked example

If p = 0.8, q = 0.2:
AA = p² = 0.64 · Aa = 2pq = 0.32 · aa = q² = 0.04

Typical question: 1 in 100 people is affected by a recessive trait → q² = 0.01, q = 0.1, p = 0.9, carriers = 2pq = 0.18 (18%).

Agents of change

  • Natural selection — peppered moth (Biston betularia): dark form rose during industrial soot pollution
  • Genetic drift — bottleneck, founder effect (small populations)
  • Gene flow — migration
  • Mutation — the ultimate source of new alleles
  • Non-random mating — changes genotype, not allele, frequencies
Exam traps Always start from q² (the only class you can see directly). 2pq is carriers, not affected people. Equilibrium describes a population that is not evolving.

Plant and animal breeding

OccasionalSeen in 2/8 new-syllabus papers0.1 MCQs per paper2 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2022 (2023)
Past-paper questions (4)
  • 2022 (2023) P2 Q10a — Disadvantages of artificial plant breeding
  • 2020 P1 Q31 — Hybrid vigour
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q32 — Inbreeding
  • 2017 P2 Q8 — Traditional selective breeding
Select desired traitsChoose breeding methodCross / induce variationSelect superior progenyTest & multiplyRelease variety / breed
MethodHowKey outcome / examples
Artificial selectionHumans choose parents with desired traits over generationsBrassica crops (cabbage, cauliflower, broccoli, kale) from wild mustard; dog breeds
InbreedingMating close relatives / selfingPure (homozygous) lines; risk of inbreeding depression (harmful recessives expressed)
Outbreeding / hybridizationCrossing unrelated linesHeterosis (hybrid vigour) — hybrid maize, F1 hybrid vegetables
Interspecific hybridizationCrossing two speciesMule (♂ donkey × ♀ horse), hinny, liger — usually sterile; bread wheat (hexaploid) arose this way
PolyploidyColchicine blocks spindle formation → chromosome doublingGigas effect (larger organs); triploid seedless watermelon, banana
Mutation breedingPhysical (gamma rays, X-rays) or chemical (sodium azide, EMS) mutagensNew variation, e.g. disease-resistant or early-maturing varieties
Genetic modificationTransfer of specific genes (Unit 7)Bt crops, Golden rice

Disadvantages of artificial breeding

  • Loss of genetic diversity → vulnerability to new diseases
  • Inbreeding depression
  • Negative correlated responses: bulldog skull (breathing problems), Texel sheep and Belgian Blue cattle (double muscling → calving difficulty)
Exam traps Colchicine doubles chromosomes; it does not cause gene mutations. Hybrid vigour appears in the F1 and declines in later generations.

Unit 6 — Model MCQs

Pick an answer to check it. Questions follow the past-paper style (five options, one correct).

6.1 In a dihybrid cross AaBb × aabb (genes unlinked), the proportion of offspring with the aabb genotype is Mendelian inheritance

Answer: (3) Test cross gives four classes in 1:1:1:1, so aabb = 1/4.

6.2 Red-flowered Mirabilis jalapa crossed with white gives pink F₁. The F₂ phenotype ratio is Extensions of Mendelian genetics

Answer: (2) Incomplete dominance: phenotype ratio equals genotype ratio, 1 red : 2 pink : 1 white.

6.3 A man of blood group A and a woman of group B have a child of group O. The parents' genotypes are Extensions of Mendelian genetics

Answer: (2) A group O child (ii) needs an i allele from each parent.

6.4 An F₂ ratio of 9 purple : 7 white in sweet pea is an example of Extensions of Mendelian genetics

Answer: (2) Purple needs a dominant allele of both genes; any homozygous recessive pair gives white.

6.5 A carrier woman for haemophilia marries a normal man. The probability that their SON will be haemophiliac is Linkage & sex-linkage

Answer: (3) Sons receive X from the mother: XᴴXʰ gives each son a 1/2 chance of Xʰ.

6.6 In a population in Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium, 16% show the recessive phenotype. The frequency of heterozygotes is Population genetics

Answer: (4) q² = 0.16 → q = 0.4, p = 0.6; 2pq = 2 × 0.6 × 0.4 = 0.48.

6.7 Colchicine is used in plant breeding to Agriculture, soils & pest management

Answer: (2) Colchicine blocks microtubule assembly → polyploidy (gigas effect).

6.8 Which condition is NOT required for Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium? Population genetics

Answer: (3) A very LARGE population is required; small populations suffer genetic drift.

Unit 6 — Structured & essay practice

Structured In a population of 10,000, 900 people cannot roll their tongue (recessive). Calculate the allele frequencies and the number of heterozygotes, and state two assumptions.

Show marking points
  1. q² = 900/10 000 = 0.09 → q = 0.3
  2. p = 1 − 0.3 = 0.7
  3. 2pq = 2 × 0.7 × 0.3 = 0.42 → 4,200 heterozygotes
  4. Assumptions: large population, random mating, no mutation, no migration, no selection (any two)

Essay (Q10 short note) Write a short note on the methods and disadvantages of artificial plant and animal breeding.

Show marking points
  1. Artificial selection over generations
  2. Inbreeding → pure lines; inbreeding depression
  3. Outbreeding/hybridisation → heterosis
  4. Interspecific hybridisation (mule; hexaploid wheat)
  5. Polyploidy with colchicine (triploid watermelon)
  6. Mutation breeding (gamma rays, EMS, sodium azide); genetic modification
  7. Disadvantages: loss of genetic diversity, inbreeding depression, negative correlated responses (bulldog, Belgian Blue)
Unit 07

Molecular Biology & rDNA Technology

Process-heavy (replication, transcription, translation, cloning, PCR). The textbook is long relative to the marks it carries, so learn the sequences and enzymes, not every detail.

2.6MCQs / paper
5%of Paper I
16Paper II parts since 2019
53textbook pages

Chromosome architecture and DNA replication

Very frequentSeen in 7/8 new-syllabus papers0.5 MCQs per paper6 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (11)
  • 2026 P2 Q4A — DNA replication, PCR polymerase, restriction maps, rDNA steps
  • 2025 P1 Q33 — DNA repair
  • 2024 P1 Q34 — Nucleases in DNA repair
  • 2023 (2024) P2 Q9a — Chromatin packing
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q46 — Prokaryotic chromosome supercoiling
  • 2022 (2023) P2 Q10b — Okazaki fragments
  • 2021 (2022) P2 Q5a — Nucleotides & DNA backbone
  • 2021 (2022) P2 Q5b — Watson–Crick DNA model
  • 2020 P1 Q32 — Topoisomerase
  • 2018 P2 Q4B — Oxidative phosphorylation, replication enzymes, GM traits
  • 2016 P1 Q3 — DNA base composition (Chargaff)

Prokaryote vs eukaryote genome

ProkaryoteEukaryote
Single circular DNA in the nucleoid (folded chromosome, RNA–protein core)Several linear chromosomes inside a nucleus
No histones (histone-like proteins)DNA wrapped on histones → chromatin
Plasmids commonPlasmids rare (yeast 2µ plasmid)
Genes mostly continuous, operonsGenes interrupted by introns

Levels of packing

DNA double helix (2 nm)Nucleosome = 8 histones + ~146 bp DNA; linker DNA + H1 ("beads on a string", 10 nm)30 nm fibre (solenoid)Radial loop domains on a protein scaffold (300 nm)Further compaction → metaphase chromosome (sister chromatids joined at centromere)

Chromatin

  • Euchromatin — loosely packed, transcriptionally active
  • Heterochromatin — tightly packed, mostly inactive (e.g. centromeres, Barr body)

DNA replication (semi-conservative — Meselson & Stahl)

Topoisomerase relieves supercoilingHelicase unzips at origin → replication forkSSB proteins stabilise single strandsPrimase lays RNA primerDNA pol III adds nucleotides 5′→3′DNA pol I replaces primers with DNADNA ligase seals nicks

Leading vs lagging strand

  • Leading: continuous, towards the fork, one primer
  • Lagging: discontinuous Okazaki fragments, away from the fork, many primers, joined by ligase
  • Bacteria: one origin, bidirectional; eukaryotes: many origins (replication bubbles)

Enzyme ↔ job (high-yield MCQ)

EnzymeJob
HelicaseBreaks H-bonds, unwinds
TopoisomeraseRelaxes twisting ahead of fork
PrimaseSynthesises RNA primer
DNA pol IIIMain elongation + proofreading
DNA pol IRemoves primer, fills gap
LigaseForms phosphodiester bond between fragments
Exam traps DNA polymerase can only extend an existing 3′-OH — it cannot start a chain (hence primers). New strands always grow 5′→3′. Chromosome theory of inheritance (Sutton & Boveri) links Mendel's laws to meiosis.

Gene expression: transcription and translation

Very frequentSeen in 6/8 new-syllabus papers0.9 MCQs per paper6 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (15)
  • 2026 P1 Q34 — Translation initiation sequence
  • 2025 P1 Q32 — Polysomes & translation rate
  • 2025 P1 Q4 — RNA types & features
  • 2025 P2 Q4A — Translation complex, SSB, DNA analysis, community/ecosystem
  • 2024 P2 Q5a — Eukaryotic transcription
  • 2024 P2 Q4A — Point mutations, mRNA, vectors, nutrient cycling, biomes, Kyoto
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q48 — Transcription
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q32 — Introns & intergenic DNA
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q33 — Genetic code & translation
  • 2021 (2022) P2 Q4A — Epigenetics, signal peptides, nucleotide, genetic code, plant transformation
  • 2020 P1 Q33 — Eukaryotic vs prokaryotic translation
  • 2020 P2 Q10b — Epigenetics
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q47 — Requirements for transcription
  • 2016 P1 Q29 — DNA–mRNA–tRNA triplets
  • 2016 P2 Q5b — DNA & RNA in protein synthesis
DNATranscription (nucleus)pre-mRNA → processingmRNATranslation (ribosome)PolypeptideFolding, modification, targeting

Transcription

  • RNA polymerase binds the promoter (TATA box in eukaryotes), unwinds DNA
  • Reads the template (antisense) strand 3′→5′; makes RNA 5′→3′; no primer needed
  • mRNA sequence = coding (sense) strand with U for T
  • Ends at terminator; DNA rewinds

Eukaryotic RNA processing

  • 5′ cap (modified G) and 3′ poly-A tail — protect and aid export/translation
  • Splicing: introns removed, exons joined (spliceosome)
  • Alternative splicing → several proteins from one gene

Genetic code

  • Triplet codons; 64 codons, 61 sense, 3 stop (UAA, UAG, UGA)
  • Start codon AUG = methionine
  • Degenerate (redundant), unambiguous, non-overlapping, comma-less, nearly universal

Ribosome sites

  • A site — aminoacyl-tRNA enters
  • P site — peptidyl-tRNA holds growing chain
  • E site — empty tRNA exits
  • Small subunit binds mRNA; large subunit catalyses peptide bonds (rRNA = ribozyme)

Translation stages

Initiation: small subunit + mRNA + initiator tRNA (Met) at AUG; large subunit joinsElongation: codon recognition → peptide bond → translocation (A→P→E)Termination: stop codon → release factor → polypeptide freed

tRNA

Clover-leaf; anticodon loop pairs with codon; 3′ CCA end carries the amino acid (attached by aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase using ATP).

Polyribosomes & fate of proteins

  • Many ribosomes translate one mRNA at once
  • Free ribosomes → cytosolic proteins; ER-bound → secreted / membrane proteins
  • Faulty or unneeded proteins tagged with ubiquitin → destroyed in proteasomes
Exam traps Anticodon is complementary to the codon, so codon AUG ↔ anticodon UAC. Prokaryotes can translate while still transcribing (no nucleus). The genetic code is degenerate, not ambiguous.

Mutations and human genetic disorders

Very frequentSeen in 7/8 new-syllabus papers1.0 MCQs per paper3 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (15)
  • 2026 P1 Q46 — Aneuploidy & syndromes
  • 2025 P1 Q31 — Polyploidy in plants
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q32 — Gene-mutation disorders
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q34 — Point mutations
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q46 — Cystic fibrosis inheritance
  • 2020 P1 Q48 — Point substitution effects
  • 2020 P2 Q4A — Pea features, pleiotropy, introns, disorders, DNA isolation, vectors
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q32 — Aneuploidy & Down syndrome
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q33 — Silent substitution
  • 2019 (New) P2 Q8a — Polyploids in agriculture
  • 2018 P1 Q29 — Alleles & mutations
  • 2018 P1 Q30 — Turner syndrome
  • 2018 P1 Q32 — Genetic counselling
  • 2017 P1 Q47 — Chromosome number disorders
  • 2016 P2 Q1B — Mutations & genetic disorders

Gene (point) mutations

TypeEffect
Substitution — silentSame amino acid (degenerate code)
Substitution — missenseDifferent amino acid (sickle-cell: Glu → Val at position 6 of β-globin)
Substitution — nonsensePremature stop codon
Insertion / deletionFrameshift — every codon downstream changes (unless multiples of 3)

Chromosome aberrations (structure)

  • Deletion — segment lost
  • Duplication — segment repeated
  • Inversion — segment reversed
  • Translocation — segment moved to a non-homologous chromosome

Changes in number

  • Aneuploidy (non-disjunction): Down syndrome (trisomy 21, 47), Turner (45, XO), Klinefelter (47, XXY)
  • Euploidy / polyploidy: whole sets (3n, 4n) — common in plants

Causes

  • Spontaneous replication errors
  • Mutagens: UV (thymine dimers), X/gamma rays, chemicals (EMS, sodium azide, benzene), some viruses
  • Mutations are the ultimate source of new alleles

Genetic counselling

Advises families on risk of inherited disorders using pedigrees, carrier tests, karyotyping and prenatal diagnosis (amniocentesis, chorionic villus sampling).

Exam traps Deleting one base is far more damaging than deleting three adjacent bases. Silent mutations change DNA but not the protein. Down syndrome is numerical, not structural (except rare translocation form).

Gene technology: tools and recombinant DNA

Very frequentSeen in 6/8 new-syllabus papers1.0 MCQs per paper4 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2025
Past-paper questions (13)
  • 2025 P1 Q50 — DNA probes
  • 2025 P2 Q9a — DNA isolation in gene technology
  • 2024 P1 Q33 — Reverse transcriptase / cDNA
  • 2024 P1 Q47 — DNA sequencing applications
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q33 — DNA isolation steps
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q40 — Genome projects
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q34 — Restriction maps
  • 2021 (2022) P2 Q9a — Cloning vector features
  • 2020 P2 Q9b — Applications of PCR
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q34 — Taq polymerase in PCR
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q35 — Plasmid insertion
  • 2019 (New) P2 Q4B — RNA polymerase, gene products, restriction maps, fingerprinting
  • 2017 P1 Q31 — Restriction endonucleases

Toolkit

ToolRole
Restriction endonucleases (EcoRI, HindIII)Cut at specific palindromic sites → sticky or blunt ends
DNA ligaseJoins insert to vector
Reverse transcriptasemRNA → cDNA (no introns; needed for expression in bacteria)
Taq polymeraseHeat-stable polymerase for PCR (Thermus aquaticus)
VectorsPlasmids, bacteriophages, Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium

A good plasmid vector has

  • Origin of replication (ori)
  • Selectable marker (antibiotic resistance)
  • Multiple cloning site (MCS) with unique restriction sites
  • Small size; high copy number

Gene cloning workflow

Isolate DNA (lyse cells, remove protein, precipitate DNA with cold ethanol)Cut gene and plasmid with the same restriction enzymeMix → sticky ends pair; ligase seals → recombinant plasmidTransform bacteria (heat shock / CaCl₂ or electroporation)Select on antibiotic mediumClone multiplies; express the product

DNA libraries

  • Genomic library — all DNA of an organism, cut and cloned
  • cDNA library — only expressed genes (from mRNA)

Delivery into plants & animals

  • Agrobacterium tumefaciens Ti plasmid — gene inserted between T-DNA borders
  • Gene gun (biolistics), electroporation, microinjection, viral vectors, liposomes

Gel electrophoresis

DNA (negatively charged) moves to the anode (+) through agarose; small fragments travel farthest. Stained (e.g. ethidium bromide) and seen under UV.

PCR

Denature ~94–95 °CAnneal primers ~50–65 °CExtend ~72 °C (Taq)

Copies double each cycle: 2n. Needs template, two primers, dNTPs, Taq, buffer with Mg²⁺. Uses: forensics, diagnosis, paternity, cloning, ancient DNA.

DNA sequencing & restriction maps

  • Sanger (dideoxy chain termination) → order of bases
  • Restriction map: positions of cut sites from fragment sizes
  • Uses: diagnosis, evolution, Human Genome Project

DNA fingerprinting

Based on highly variable repeat regions (VNTR/STR). Uses: crime scenes, paternity, identifying disaster victims, wildlife forensics, pedigree of breeds.

PCR copies after n cycles = 2n × starting molecules (e.g. 1 molecule, 10 cycles → 1024)
Exam traps The same restriction enzyme must cut both gene and vector. Human genes for bacterial expression are usually used as cDNA because bacteria cannot remove introns. DNA runs towards the positive electrode.

GMOs: applications, concerns and biosafety

FrequentSeen in 3/8 new-syllabus papers0.2 MCQs per paper2 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (6)
  • 2026 P1 Q35 — Cartagena Protocol
  • 2026 P2 Q10b — Environmental issues of GMOs
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q35 — rDNA technology products
  • 2019 (New) P2 Q8b — Environmental issues of GMOs
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q49 — Genetically modified organisms
  • 2018 P1 Q31 — GMO definition

Agriculture

  • Bt crops (cotton, maize, brinjal) — Bacillus thuringiensis Cry toxin kills insect larvae
  • Herbicide-tolerant soybean
  • Virus-resistant papaya
  • Golden rice (β-carotene, vitamin A)
  • Flavr Savr tomato (delayed softening), drought/salt tolerance

Medicine

  • Human insulin, growth hormone, interferons from bacteria/yeast
  • Recombinant vaccines (hepatitis B surface antigen)
  • Clotting factors; gene therapy
  • Transgenic animals producing drugs in milk

Industry & environment

  • Engineered enzymes (detergents, food processing)
  • Biofuels; bioremediation (oil-degrading bacteria)

Concerns

AreaIssue
HealthAllergens, toxins, antibiotic-marker transfer
EnvironmentGene flow to wild relatives ("superweeds"), harm to non-target insects, resistance in pests, loss of biodiversity
Socio-economicPatents, seed dependence on companies, ethics, labelling

Regulation

  • Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety (under the CBD; adopted 2000, in force 2003) — safe transfer, handling and use of living modified organisms (LMOs); advance informed agreement
  • National Biosafety Framework of Sri Lanka — national policy and guidelines for GMO safety
Exam traps Cartagena regulates living modified organisms, not all biotechnology products. Bt toxin is a protein produced by the plant after the bacterial gene is inserted.

Unit 7 — Model MCQs

Pick an answer to check it. Questions follow the past-paper style (five options, one correct).

7.1 Which enzyme joins Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand? DNA structure & replication

Answer: (4) After DNA pol I replaces primers, ligase forms the final phosphodiester bond.

7.2 A nucleosome consists of DNA wrapped around DNA structure & replication

Answer: (3) An octamer of histones (2 each of H2A, H2B, H3, H4); H1 binds linker DNA.

7.3 If a DNA template strand reads 3′-TAC GGA-5′, the mRNA produced is Gene expression & regulation

Answer: (2) mRNA is complementary to the template and contains U instead of T: AUG CCU.

7.4 The site on the ribosome where a new aminoacyl-tRNA enters is the Gene expression & regulation

Answer: (3) A = aminoacyl entry, P = peptidyl, E = exit.

7.5 Which mutation is most likely to change every amino acid after it? Mutations

Answer: (3) A single-base deletion shifts the reading frame.

7.6 In gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments move towards the rDNA tools & techniques

Answer: (2) DNA is negatively charged (phosphate) and moves to the positive anode; small fragments travel farthest.

7.7 Starting with one DNA molecule, how many copies are produced after 5 PCR cycles? rDNA tools & techniques

Answer: (4) 2⁵ = 32.

7.8 The Cartagena Protocol mainly deals with GMOs, biosafety & applications

Answer: (3) Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety, under the CBD, regulates LMOs.

Unit 7 — Structured & essay practice

Essay (Q9 style) Describe how a human gene can be cloned in a bacterium to produce a protein such as insulin.

Show marking points
  1. Isolate mRNA; reverse transcriptase → cDNA (no introns)
  2. Plasmid vector with ori, antibiotic-resistance marker, MCS
  3. Cut plasmid and gene with the same restriction enzyme → sticky ends
  4. Anneal and seal with DNA ligase → recombinant plasmid
  5. Transform bacteria (CaCl₂ + heat shock / electroporation)
  6. Select transformed cells on antibiotic medium
  7. Screen for recombinants; culture in fermenters
  8. Extract and purify the protein
  9. Benefits: pure, human-type, cheap, large quantity

Structured Describe the three steps of one PCR cycle with their temperatures, and give three applications.

Show marking points
  1. Denaturation ~94–95 °C: H-bonds break, strands separate
  2. Annealing ~50–65 °C: primers bind complementary sequences
  3. Extension ~72 °C: Taq polymerase adds nucleotides 5′→3′
  4. Copies = 2ⁿ
  5. Applications: forensics/DNA fingerprinting, diagnosis of infection, paternity, cloning, ancient DNA (any three)
Unit 08

Environmental Biology

Ecology, Sri Lankan ecosystems and global issues. The conventions table and the climatic-zone table are frequent quick MCQs.

3.9MCQs / paper
8%of Paper I
14Paper II parts since 2019
43textbook pages

Ecosystem structure, energy flow and nutrient cycles

FrequentSeen in 5/8 new-syllabus papers0.5 MCQs per paper2 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (9)
  • 2026 P2 Q4B — Primary production, biomes, mangroves
  • 2025 P1 Q34 — Most efficient food chain
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q36 — Food web consumers
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q47 — Inverted ecological pyramids
  • 2020 P1 Q49 — Food web trophic levels
  • 2018 P1 Q33 — Energy flow calculation
  • 2017 P1 Q34 — Home-garden food web
  • 2016 P1 Q34 — Phosphorus cycle
  • 2016 P2 Q4A — Ecosystem, niche, productivity
OrganismPopulation (one species, one area)Community (all populations)Ecosystem (community + abiotic)Biosphere

Key terms

  • Habitat — the place where an organism lives, described by abiotic factors (temperature, rainfall, soil, light)
  • Niche — the role/way of life of a species (habitat + resources + interactions)
  • Biotic — producers, consumers, decomposers; abiotic — climate, soil, water, light

Energy flow

  • One-way: sun → producers → consumers → heat
  • Only ~10% passes to the next trophic level (respiration, heat, excretion, uneaten parts lost)
  • This limits food chains to 4–5 links
  • Food web = interlinked food chains; more stable than a single chain

Ecological pyramids

PyramidShape
EnergyAlways upright
NumbersUpright; inverted with a single large producer (tree → insects) or parasites
BiomassUpright on land; inverted in some aquatic systems (phytoplankton turnover fast)

Cycling of materials

Carbon cycle

CO₂ fixed by photosynthesisPassed on in foodReleased by respiration, decomposition, combustionStored in fossil fuels, carbonate rocks, oceans

Nitrogen cycle

StepOrganisms
Fixation N₂ → NH₃Rhizobium (legume nodules), Azotobacter, cyanobacteria (Nostoc, Anabaena); lightning
AmmonificationDecomposers
Nitrification NH₄⁺ → NO₂⁻ → NO₃⁻Nitrosomonas → Nitrobacter
Denitrification NO₃⁻ → N₂Pseudomonas, anaerobic soil

Water & phosphorus

  • Water: evaporation, transpiration, condensation, precipitation, run-off
  • Phosphorus: sedimentary cycle (no gaseous phase) — rocks → soil → organisms → sediments
Exam traps Energy flows, matter cycles. A pyramid of energy can never be inverted. Nitrification is aerobic; denitrification is favoured by waterlogged (anaerobic) soil.

World biomes and ecosystems of Sri Lanka

Every paperSeen in 8/8 new-syllabus papers1.5 MCQs per paper8 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (24)
  • 2026 P1 Q36 — Biome with least rainfall range
  • 2026 P1 Q47 — SL ecosystems & climate zones
  • 2025 P1 Q35 — Biomes & animals
  • 2025 P2 Q10b — Tropical thorn scrub in SL
  • 2024 P1 Q35 — SL vegetation types
  • 2024 P1 Q50 — SL ecosystems by rainfall (plants)
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q34 — Biome sequence northward
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q49 — Highest-altitude plants in SL
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q47 — SL ecosystems by altitude
  • 2022 (2023) P2 Q10c — Desert plants
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q35 — Tundra animals
  • 2021 (2022) P2 Q4B — Biomes, villus, population/trophic terms, invasives, coral reefs
  • 2020 P1 Q34 — Biomes by rainfall
  • 2020 P2 Q10a — Salt marshes of SL
  • 2020 P2 Q4B — Primary production, SL ecosystems, endemic & threatened plants
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q36 — Dry patana distribution
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q48 — Biome sequence pole to equator
  • 2019 (New) P2 Q9a — Inland wetlands of SL
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q48 — Tropical biomes
  • 2018 P1 Q50 — SL forest features
  • 2017 P1 Q50 — Biome temperature/latitude diagram
  • 2016 P1 Q33 — Biome with least temperature variation
  • 2016 P2 Q9 — Forest ecosystems of SL
  • 2016 P2 Q4B — Biomes, keystone & flagship species
BiomeClimateVegetation & animal features
Tropical rain forest2000–4000 mm, warm all yearStratified canopy, epiphytes, lianas; highest biodiversity; year-round animal activity, camouflage
Tropical dry forest1500–2000 mm, 6–7 month dry seasonDeciduous trees shed leaves in dry season; thorny shrubs, succulents
Savanna300–500 mm, long dry seasonGrass with scattered trees; deep-rooted shrubs, spines, fire tolerance; large grazers, termites
DesertVery low rainfall, ~30° N/SSucculents (CAM), reduced leaves; nocturnal, burrowing animals
Chaparral300–500 mm, rainy winter, dry summerDense spiny evergreen shrubs; fire-adapted; browsers (deer, goats)
Temperate grassland300–1000 mm, cold wintersGrasses, no trees; large grazers, burrowers (prairie dogs)
Temperate broadleaf forest700–2000 mm, rain and snowDeciduous trees; mammals hibernate, birds migrate
Northern coniferous (taiga)300–700 mm, very cold wintersFir, pine, spruce; brown bears, moose
TundraArctic 200–600 mm, below −30 °C winter; permafrostMosses, lichens, dwarf shrubs; caribou/reindeer, musk oxen

Sri Lanka's climatic zones (NIE scheme)

ZoneRainfall (mm)ForestsGrasslands / other
Arid< 1000Tropical thorn scrubSalt marsh, mangroves
Dry1000–1500Tropical dry mixed evergreen (dry monsoon) forestDamana, talawa, savanna
Intermediate1250–2000Tropical moist evergreen, sub-montaneSavanna, dry patana
Wet> 2000Lowland wet evergreen (Sinharaja, Kanneliya, Nakiyadeniya), sub-montane, montaneTalawa, wet patana

Inland wetlands

  • Rivers and streams, reservoirs (tanks/wewa), marshes, swamp forests, villus
  • Ramsar definition: marsh, fen, peat or water, natural or artificial, with marine water not exceeding 6 m at low tide

Coastal ecosystems

  • Mangroves — pneumatophores, prop roots, vivipary, salt excretion; nursery grounds, coastal protection
  • Coral reefs — coral polyps + zooxanthellae; Hikkaduwa, Bar Reef; threatened by bleaching
  • Lagoons, estuaries, sea grass beds, salt marshes, sand dunes (stunted vegetation, e.g. Spinifex), sea shore
Exam traps Match vegetation to the zone: patana grasslands are in the montane/intermediate uplands; thorn scrub is arid (e.g. Mannar, Hambantota). Mangroves show vivipary — seeds germinate on the parent tree.

Population ecology and species interactions

FrequentSeen in 3/8 new-syllabus papers0.4 MCQs per paper0 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (5)
  • 2026 P1 Q17 — Parasitism/commensalism/mutualism
  • 2025 P1 Q15 — Commensalism (epiphytic orchids)
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q18 — Symbiosis types
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q42 — Nutrition & symbiosis
  • 2016 P1 Q44 — Nutrition types & examples

Population growth

  • Exponential (J-curve) — unlimited resources
  • Logistic (S-curve) — levels off at carrying capacity (K)
  • Density-dependent limits: competition, disease, predation; density-independent: floods, fire, drought
Growth = (births + immigration) − (deaths + emigration)

Interactions

InteractionEffect (A / B)Example
Mutualism+ / +Lichen; mycorrhiza; Rhizobium–legume
Commensalism+ / 0Epiphytic orchids on trees; remora on shark
Parasitism+ / −Tapeworm, Cuscuta, mosquito
Predation / herbivory+ / −Leopard–deer; grazing
Competition− / −Weeds and crops for light, water
Amensalism0 / −Penicillium inhibiting bacteria

Succession

  • Primary — bare rock/lava; pioneers (lichens, mosses) build soil
  • Secondary — after disturbance where soil remains (abandoned chena)
  • Ends in a relatively stable climax community
Exam traps Commensalism leaves one partner unaffected; mutualism helps both. Carrying capacity is set by limiting resources, not by birth rate.

Biodiversity, threats and conservation

Very frequentSeen in 7/8 new-syllabus papers0.9 MCQs per paper7 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (16)
  • 2026 P1 Q48 — Exotic vs endemic species
  • 2026 P2 Q9a — Value of biodiversity
  • 2024 P1 Q49 — Invasive alien plants
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q35 — Invasive alien species in SL
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q37 — Endemic/exotic/invasive species
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q36 — Relict & endemic species
  • 2021 (2022) P2 Q4C — Biodiversity services, desertification, legislation, tissue culture, sugar preservation
  • 2020 P1 Q35 — Threatened species
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q37 — Environmental service values
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q35 — Endemic/exotic/migratory groups
  • 2019 (Old) P2 Q4B — Origin of life energy, extinction, keystone species, conventions
  • 2018 P2 Q4C — In-situ conservation, Ramsar sites
  • 2017 P2 Q10b — Invasive species
  • 2017 P2 Q4B — Environment levels, extinction, CBD, desertification
  • 2016 P1 Q35 — SL species status (endemic/invasive)
  • 2016 P2 Q10b — Biodiversity hotspots

Three levels

  1. Genetic — variation within a species
  2. Species — richness and evenness
  3. Ecosystem — variety of habitats and communities

Sri Lanka + Western Ghats form a global biodiversity hotspot, with high endemism.

Values

  • Direct: food, medicine, timber, fibre
  • Indirect / ecosystem services: pollination, soil formation, water purification, climate regulation
  • Aesthetic, cultural, ecotourism, scientific

Threats (HIPPO)

  • Habitat loss and fragmentation
  • Invasive alien species (e.g. Lantana, water hyacinth, Salvinia)
  • Pollution
  • Human Population growth
  • Over-exploitation (over-fishing, poaching)
  • + Climate change

IUCN Red List categories

Extinct (EX)Extinct in the Wild (EW)Critically Endangered (CR)Endangered (EN)Vulnerable (VU)Near Threatened, Least Concern

CR + EN + VU = "threatened".

Conservation

In-situ (natural habitat)Ex-situ (outside habitat)
National parks (Yala, Wilpattu, Minneriya, Wasgamuwa), strict nature reserves (Ritigala), forest reserves (Kanneliya), sanctuaries, jungle corridorsZoological and botanical gardens, seed and gene banks, tissue culture, captive breeding
Exam traps A seed bank is ex-situ, a sanctuary is in-situ. "Threatened" includes Vulnerable, not Near Threatened.

Global environmental issues and conventions

Very frequentSeen in 6/8 new-syllabus papers0.6 MCQs per paper10 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2025
Past-paper questions (19)
  • 2025 P1 Q36 — Ozone depletion / pollution effects
  • 2025 P2 Q4B — Desertification, Basel/Montreal, sterilants, smear, Salmonella toxin
  • 2024 P1 Q38 — Solid waste management
  • 2024 P2 Q9b — Global warming factors
  • 2023 (2024) P2 Q10b — Desertification
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q37 — Acid rain / greenhouse / ozone gases
  • 2020 P1 Q36 — Agreements on global warming
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q38 — Global warming contributors
  • 2019 (New) P2 Q9b — Wastewater discharge effects
  • 2019 (New) P2 Q4C — Habitat, interactions, flagship species, solid waste, landfill
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q34 — Earth's atmosphere layers
  • 2019 (Old) P2 Q10b — Global warming
  • 2018 P1 Q34 — Effects of deforestation
  • 2018 P1 Q39 — Sanitary landfill
  • 2017 P1 Q35 — Air pollutants & agriculture
  • 2017 P2 Q9a — Types of natural resources
  • 2017 P2 Q9b — Sustainable use of resources
  • 2016 P2 Q1C — BOD, wastewater, solid waste
  • 2016 P2 Q4C — Global warming, invasive species, agriculture & biodiversity

Global warming & climate change

  • Greenhouse gases: CO₂ (combustion, deforestation), CH₄ (paddy fields, cattle, landfills — higher warming potential), N₂O (fertilisers), PFCs/HFCs/SF₆, black carbon
  • Effects: sea-level rise, extreme weather, coral bleaching, shifting species ranges, crop losses, spread of vector-borne disease

Ozone depletion

  • CFCs, halons, carbon tetrachloride → free Cl/Br atoms destroy O₃ in the stratosphere
  • More UV-B → skin cancer, cataracts, immune suppression, harm to phytoplankton and early stages of fish, amphibians

Acid rain

  • SO₂ and NOₓ (fossil fuels, power plants, vehicles) → H₂SO₄ and HNO₃
  • Normal rain pH ≈ 5.6 (dissolved CO₂); acid rain is lower
  • Damages marble buildings, forests, soil organisms; leaches Al, Pb, Hg into water

Desertification & others

  • Land degradation in arid/semi-arid/dry sub-humid areas from climate and human activity (UNCCD)
  • Eutrophication: fertiliser N/P run-off → algal bloom → O₂ depletion → fish kills
  • Biomagnification of persistent toxins (DDT, Hg) up food chains

Conventions and laws

AgreementFocus
Ramsar Convention (1971)Wetlands of international importance — Sri Lankan sites: Bundala, Anawilundawa, Maduganga, Vankalai, Kumana, Wilpattu
CITES (1975)International trade in endangered wild fauna and flora (export permits)
MARPOL (1973)Pollution of the sea by ships
Montreal Protocol (1987)Phasing out ozone-depleting substances
Basel Convention (1989)Trans-boundary movement and disposal of hazardous wastes
Convention on Biological Diversity (1992)Conservation, sustainable use, fair benefit sharing (Cartagena Protocol sits under it)
UNFCCC → Kyoto Protocol (1997) → Paris Agreement (2015)Greenhouse-gas reduction targets; limit warming well below 2 °C
UNCCD (1994)Combating desertification
Fauna and Flora Protection Ordinance (No. 2 of 1937)Sri Lanka — wildlife protection; enforced by the Department of Wildlife Conservation; national parks, strict nature reserves, sanctuaries
National Environmental Act (1980)Sri Lanka — Central Environmental Authority, EIA, pollution control
Exam traps Ozone depletion ≠ global warming (different gases, different layers, though CFCs do both). Legislation carries penalties; policy does not.

Unit 8 — Model MCQs

Pick an answer to check it. Questions follow the past-paper style (five options, one correct).

8.1 Which ecological pyramid can never be inverted? Ecosystems & energy flow

Answer: (3) Energy is always lost between levels, so the energy pyramid is always upright.

8.2 Conversion of ammonium ions to nitrite in soil is carried out by Ecosystems & energy flow

Answer: (3) Nitrosomonas: NH₄⁺ → NO₂⁻; Nitrobacter: NO₂⁻ → NO₃⁻.

8.3 Tropical thorn scrub in Sri Lanka occurs in the Biomes & Sri Lankan ecosystems

Answer: (3) Arid zone (rainfall < 1000 mm), e.g. Mannar and Hambantota coasts.

8.4 Vivipary and pneumatophores are characteristic of Biomes & Sri Lankan ecosystems

Answer: (2) Mangroves are adapted to saline, waterlogged, anaerobic mud.

8.5 Orchids growing on tree branches without harming the tree show Populations & ecological interactions

Answer: (3) Epiphytic orchids gain light and support; the tree is unaffected.

8.6 Which is an ex-situ conservation method? Biodiversity & conservation

Answer: (4) Seed and gene banks, zoos and botanical gardens conserve species outside their habitat.

8.7 The international agreement to phase out ozone-depleting substances is the Environmental issues & pollution

Answer: (2) Montreal Protocol (1987). Kyoto deals with greenhouse gases.

8.8 Which of the following is a Ramsar site in Sri Lanka? Environmental issues & pollution

Answer: (2) Ramsar sites: Bundala, Anawilundawa, Maduganga, Vankalai, Kumana, Wilpattu.

Unit 8 — Structured & essay practice

Structured Explain the causes and effects of acid rain and name one international agreement relevant to air pollution.

Show marking points
  1. SO₂ and NOₓ from fossil fuel combustion (power plants, vehicles)
  2. Converted to H₂SO₄ and HNO₃; pH below 5.6
  3. Damage to marble/limestone buildings
  4. Acidification of lakes, death of aquatic life
  5. Leaching of soil nutrients and toxic metals (Al, Pb, Hg); forest damage
  6. Agreement: e.g. Montreal Protocol (ozone) / UNFCCC–Kyoto (GHG) — credit relevant answer

Essay Discuss the threats to biodiversity in Sri Lanka and the measures taken to conserve it.

Show marking points
  1. Habitat loss/fragmentation (agriculture, development)
  2. Invasive species (Lantana, water hyacinth)
  3. Pollution; over-exploitation (poaching, over-fishing); climate change
  4. In-situ: national parks (Yala, Wilpattu), strict nature reserves, sanctuaries, forest reserves
  5. Ex-situ: botanical/zoological gardens, seed banks, tissue culture
  6. Legislation: Fauna and Flora Protection Ordinance (DWLC), National Environmental Act
  7. Conventions: CBD, CITES, Ramsar
  8. Awareness, sustainable use, ecotourism
Unit 09

Microbiology

Applied microbiology. Organism–product and pathogen–disease matching dominate, so tables are your best friend here.

3.9MCQs / paper
8%of Paper I
12Paper II parts since 2019
37textbook pages

Nature and diversity of microorganisms

Very frequentSeen in 7/8 new-syllabus papers1.0 MCQs per paper5 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (18)
  • 2026 P1 Q37 — Mycoplasma vs protists
  • 2026 P2 Q5b — Characteristic features of bacteria
  • 2025 P1 Q49 — Bacterial O2 needs & nutrition
  • 2024 P1 Q48 — Microbial nutrition & reproduction
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q36 — Viroids & prions
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q38 — Fission in microorganisms
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q39 — Escherichia coli
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q48 — Microbial features & examples
  • 2020 P1 Q37 — Microbial nutrition & features
  • 2020 P2 Q4C — Anaerobes, akinetes, viruses, vaccines, industrial microbes, coliforms
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q37 — Cyanobacteria
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q38 — Viruses
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q50 — Microbial nutrition types
  • 2018 P2 Q3C — Bacterial smears & arrangements, prions, opportunists
  • 2017 P1 Q39 — Prions
  • 2017 P2 Q10c — Cyanobacteria
  • 2017 P2 Q4C — Microbial nutrition, sterilisation, tetanus toxin, enzymes
  • 2016 P1 Q37 — Prions

Why microbes are everywhere

  • Microscopic, huge surface area : volume, rapid reproduction, metabolic diversity
  • Extremophiles: thermophiles (high temperature), psychrophiles (cold), acidophiles (low pH), halophiles (need NaCl), barophiles (high pressure)

Bacterial shapes & arrangements

ShapeArrangements
Coccus (sphere)Diplococci, streptococci (chains), staphylococci (grape-like, division in many planes), tetrads, sarcinae (cubes)
Bacillus (rod)Single, diplobacillus, streptobacillus
SpiralVibrio (comma), spirillum (rigid helix), spirochaete (flexible)

Nutritional types

TypeEnergyCarbonExample
PhotoautotrophLightCO₂Cyanobacteria, purple & green sulphur bacteria
PhotoheterotrophLightOrganicPurple non-sulphur bacteria
ChemoautotrophInorganic chemicalsCO₂Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter
ChemoheterotrophOrganicOrganicMost bacteria, fungi

Oxygen requirement

  • Obligate aerobes — need O₂ (Mycobacterium)
  • Obligate anaerobes — killed by O₂ (Clostridium)
  • Facultative anaerobes — both (E. coli, yeast)
  • Microaerophiles — low O₂

Other microbes

  • Cyanobacteria — heterocysts fix N₂ (Nostoc, Anabaena)
  • Mollicutes — no cell wall: Mycoplasma, phytoplasma (plant diseases)
  • Fungi (yeasts, moulds), unicellular protists, microalgae

Viruses & viroids

  • Acellular; nucleic acid (DNA or RNA) in a protein capsid, some with an envelope
  • Obligate intracellular parasites
  • Lytic cycle: attach → inject → replicate → assemble → lyse
  • Lysogenic: viral DNA integrates as prophage, replicated with host
  • Viroids: naked circular RNA, no capsid (plant disease)
  • Prions: infectious proteins
AttachmentPenetrationBiosynthesis (host machinery)Assembly (maturation)Release (lysis / budding)
Exam traps A virus never contains both DNA and RNA. Mycoplasma is resistant to penicillin because it lacks a cell wall. Bacteria reproduce by binary fission (no mitosis).

Basic laboratory techniques

FrequentSeen in 4/8 new-syllabus papers0.2 MCQs per paper3 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2025
Past-paper questions (7)
  • 2025 P1 Q39 — Coliform bacteria
  • 2024 P2 Q4B — Sterilisation methods, nitrifiers, stains, phenol experiment
  • 2021 (2022) P2 Q3C — Microaerophiles, heterocysts, sterilisation, food intoxication, vaccines, vinegar
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q39 — Culture media
  • 2019 (Old) P2 Q4C — Viruses, sterilisation, soil microbes, biopesticides
  • 2018 P1 Q37 — Preparing heat-labile media
  • 2017 P1 Q37 — Microbes as research tools

Sterilisation & control methods

MethodConditions / use
Autoclave (moist heat)121 °C, 15 psi (≈1 atm above), 15–20 min — media, glassware, kills endospores
Hot-air oven (dry heat)160–180 °C, 1–2 h — glassware, powders, oils
Flaming / incinerationInoculating loops, needles; waste
Boiling100 °C — kills most pathogens, not spores
PasteurisationLTLT 63 °C 30 min; HTST 72 °C 15 s; UHT ~140 °C < 5 s (sterile, months unrefrigerated)
FiltrationMembrane filters — heat-sensitive liquids (enzymes, antibiotics)
RadiationUV (surfaces, air); gamma (plastic syringes)
ChemicalsEthylene oxide, chlorine dioxide (gases)

Culture media

  • Need: C and energy source, N source, minerals, growth factors, water, right pH
  • Liquid (broth) or solid (with agar — not digested by most microbes, melts ~100 °C, sets ~40 °C)
  • Nutrient agar (bacteria); potato dextrose agar (fungi)
  • Selective and differential media

Aseptic technique & isolation

  • Work near a flame / laminar flow; flame loop and bottle necks
  • Streak plate → isolated colonies (pure culture)
  • Pour plate, spread plate, serial dilution for counts
  • Incubate plates inverted

Gram staining

Crystal violetIodine (mordant)Alcohol decolouriserSafranin counterstain

Gram-positive: thick peptidoglycan → purple. Gram-negative: thin wall + outer membrane → pink/red.

Exam traps Pasteurisation is not sterilisation (except UHT). Dry heat needs higher temperature and longer time than moist heat.

Microorganisms and disease

Very frequentSeen in 7/8 new-syllabus papers1.1 MCQs per paper4 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (17)
  • 2026 P1 Q38 — Streptococcus diseases
  • 2026 P2 Q9b — Toxigenicity of pathogens
  • 2024 P1 Q40 — Filariasis transmission
  • 2024 P2 Q10b — Prions
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q37 — Endotoxins & exotoxins
  • 2023 (2024) P2 Q10c — Control of filariasis
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q49 — Water- & food-borne bacteria
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q38 — Antibiotic modes of action
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q50 — Dengue & filaria vector control
  • 2020 P1 Q38 — Bacterial pathogenicity factors
  • 2020 P1 Q40 — Disease–pathogen pairs
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q40 — Waterborne diseases
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q40 — Food intoxication
  • 2019 (Old) P2 Q9a — Normal human microbiota
  • 2017 P1 Q38 — Antibiotic actions
  • 2017 P1 Q40 — Pathogenicity factors
  • 2016 P1 Q36 — Endotoxin-producing pathogens

Key terms

  • Pathogen; opportunistic pathogen (e.g. E. coli outside the gut)
  • Virulence — degree of pathogenicity
  • Incubation period, carrier, reservoir, vector, endemic/epidemic/pandemic
  • Normal microflora protect by competition

Virulence factors

  • Adhesion (pili, capsules), invasion enzymes (hyaluronidase, coagulase)
  • Capsules resist phagocytosis
  • Endotoxins: lipopolysaccharide of Gram-negative walls, heat-stable, released on lysis, same general symptoms (fever, shock)
  • Exotoxins: secreted proteins, mostly Gram-positive, heat-labile, highly specific (neurotoxins, enterotoxins, cytotoxins)

Important human diseases (by system)

SystemDisease — pathogen
SkinChickenpox — varicella-zoster virus; measles — measles virus; rubella — rubella virus
EyeConjunctivitis — bacteria or viruses
NervousBacterial meningitis — Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae; tetanus — Clostridium tetani; rabies — rabies virus
CardiovascularRheumatic fever — Streptococcus pyogenes
RespiratoryTuberculosis — Mycobacterium tuberculosis; influenza — influenza virus; pneumonia — S. pneumoniae
DigestiveHepatitis A — HAV; food poisoning — Staphylococcus aureus; cholera — Vibrio cholerae; typhoid — Salmonella typhi; dysentery — Shigella
ReproductiveGonorrhoea — Neisseria gonorrhoeae; syphilis — Treponema pallidum; genital herpes — herpes simplex virus; AIDS — HIV

Prevention & control

  • Antiseptics (on living tissue — ethanol, isopropanol, chloroxylenol) vs disinfectants (on objects — bleach, phenolics)
  • Immunisation (vaccines), hygiene, safe water, vector control, quarantine

Antibiotic targets

  • Cell-wall synthesis — penicillin
  • Protein synthesis (70S ribosome) — streptomycin, tetracycline
  • Nucleic acid synthesis, cell membrane, metabolic pathways (sulphonamides)
  • Antibiotics do not act on viruses; misuse → resistance
Exam traps Endotoxin = Gram-negative, heat-stable. Antiseptics are safe on skin; disinfectants are not. Rabies and tetanus both affect the nervous system but one is viral, one bacterial.

Microorganisms in industry

Very frequentSeen in 6/8 new-syllabus papers0.6 MCQs per paper2 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (10)
  • 2026 P1 Q39 — Microbes and their uses
  • 2025 P2 Q4C — P-solubilising bacteria, B12, food spoilage, seed germination
  • 2024 P1 Q37 — Fermentation processes & microbes
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q38 — Microbial metabolic products
  • 2023 (2024) P2 Q9b — Microbes in vinegar & dairy
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q48 — Industrial microbiology
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q49 — Industrial microbes
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q39 — Microbial enzyme production
  • 2017 P1 Q36 — Microbes as food
  • 2016 P1 Q40 — Bioleaching (Thiobacillus)
ProductMicroorganism / process
Bread, wine, beer, toddy, sake, ethanolSaccharomyces cerevisiae — alcoholic fermentation (CO₂ raises dough)
VinegarTwo steps: yeast ferments sugar → ethanol; Acetobacter oxidises ethanol → acetic acid (aerobic, incomplete oxidation)
Curd, yoghurtLactic acid bacteria (Lactobacillus bulgaricus, Streptococcus thermophilus) ferment lactose
CheeseStreptococcus spp., Penicillium moulds (ripening)
Citric acidAspergillus niger on sucrose/molasses
Vitamin C (step), riboflavinAcetobacter; fungal fermentation
AmylaseAspergillus niger, A. oryzae, Bacillus subtilis
PenicillinPenicillium chrysogenum
Insulin, hepatitis B vaccineGenetically engineered E. coli / yeast
ProbioticsLive lactic acid bacteria — prevent pathogen colonisation, relieve diarrhoea
Biogas, biofuelsAnaerobic digestion (methanogens) → CH₄ + CO₂; ethanol from sugarcane
Exam traps Vinegar production needs both anaerobic (yeast) and aerobic (Acetobacter) stages. Penicillin is a secondary metabolite, produced after the growth phase.

Microbes in agriculture, environment, water and food

Very frequentSeen in 6/8 new-syllabus papers0.9 MCQs per paper4 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (13)
  • 2026 P1 Q49 — Industrial wastewater treatment
  • 2025 P1 Q38 — Composting
  • 2025 P2 Q9b — Industrial wastewater purification
  • 2024 P2 Q4C — Methanotrophs, mycorrhizae, GM insulin, water treatment, spoilage, nano
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q50 — Secondary wastewater treatment
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q39 — Soil microbes & rhizosphere
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q40 — Primary wastewater treatment
  • 2020 P1 Q39 — Microbes in nutrient cycles
  • 2020 P1 Q50 — Drinking water treatment
  • 2020 P2 Q9a — Microbes in agriculture
  • 2018 P1 Q36 — Nitrosomonas
  • 2016 P1 Q39 — Nitrosomonas & nitrification
  • 2016 P2 Q7 — Soil microbes & C/N cycles

Soil microbes & agriculture

  • Decomposition, humus formation, nutrient cycling (nitrification by Nitrosomonas → Nitrobacter)
  • Rhizosphere — zone around roots rich in microbes
  • Mycorrhizae — fungus–root mutualism; better P and water uptake
  • Biofertilisers — Rhizobium, Azotobacter, cyanobacteria (Anabaena with Azolla in paddy)
  • Biopesticides — Bacillus thuringiensis (most formulations Bt-based)
  • Composting — aerobic conversion of plant remains to humus-like material

Environmental management

  • Bioremediation — microbes degrade or detoxify pollutants (oil spills, heavy metals, pesticides)
  • Solid waste: composting (aerobic), anaerobic digestion → biogas, sanitary landfill

Drinking water

  • Coliforms = indicator organisms (Gram-negative rods, always present in faeces in large numbers) → faecal contamination
  • Water-borne diseases: cholera, typhoid, dysentery, hepatitis A
Sedimentation + coagulation (alum)Sand filtration (removes ~99% bacteria, protozoan cysts)Disinfection — chlorination or ozone

Sewage treatment

StageWhat happens
PrimaryPhysical: screening, grit and grease removal, sedimentation; no biology; removes 25–35% organic matter
SecondaryAerobic microbes oxidise organic matter — activated sludge (aeration) or trickling filter; removes 75–95%
SludgeAnaerobic digester → methane (biogas)
TertiaryRemoves N, P; disinfection

Food spoilage

  • Microbes use food nutrients → off-flavours, slime, gas, colour change, softening
  • Internal factors: water activity, pH, nutrients, natural antimicrobials
  • External factors: temperature, humidity, O₂, handling
  • Food-borne pathogens: S. aureus, Salmonella, Shigella, Vibrio cholerae, Clostridium botulinum
Exam traps Coliforms are tested because they are abundant and easy to detect — most are not themselves pathogens. Primary treatment involves no microbial activity.

Unit 9 — Model MCQs

Pick an answer to check it. Questions follow the past-paper style (five options, one correct).

9.1 Bacteria that obtain energy from oxidation of inorganic chemicals and carbon from CO₂ are Microbial diversity & structure

Answer: (3) e.g. Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter.

9.2 Which organism lacks a cell wall and is therefore resistant to penicillin? Microbial diversity & structure

Answer: (2) Mollicutes (Mycoplasma, phytoplasma) have no cell wall for penicillin to act on.

9.3 Standard autoclave conditions are Microbial growth & lab techniques

Answer: (2) Moist heat under pressure kills endospores; 160 °C/2 h is dry-heat oven, 72 °C/15 s is HTST pasteurisation.

9.4 Endotoxins are Microbes & disease

Answer: (2) Endotoxins (LPS) are heat-stable and released when Gram-negative cells lyse.

9.5 Which pair is correctly matched? Microbes & disease

Answer: (2) TB – Mycobacterium; tetanus – Clostridium tetani; typhoid – Salmonella typhi; rabies – virus.

9.6 In vinegar production, Acetobacter carries out Industrial & food microbiology

Answer: (2) Step 1 yeast (anaerobic) → ethanol; step 2 Acetobacter (aerobic) → acetic acid.

9.7 Coliform bacteria are used to test drinking water because they Environmental microbiology & waste treatment

Answer: (2) Their presence indicates faecal contamination and possible pathogens.

9.8 Which stage of sewage treatment uses aerobic microorganisms in activated sludge or trickling filters? Environmental microbiology & waste treatment

Answer: (3) Secondary treatment oxidises 75–95% of organic matter; primary treatment is purely physical.

Unit 9 — Structured & essay practice

Structured Describe the steps in drinking water treatment and explain why coliforms are used as indicators.

Show marking points
  1. Sedimentation and coagulation with alum
  2. Sand filtration (removes ~99% bacteria and protozoan cysts); activated carbon
  3. Disinfection by chlorination or ozone
  4. Coliforms: always present in large numbers in human faeces
  5. Easy to culture/detect; presence indicates faecal contamination and possible pathogens

Essay (Q9 style) Describe the uses of microorganisms in industry and agriculture.

Show marking points
  1. Yeast: bread, alcohol, ethanol fuel
  2. Acetobacter: vinegar (two-stage)
  3. Lactic acid bacteria: curd, yoghurt, cheese, probiotics
  4. Aspergillus niger: citric acid, amylase
  5. Penicillium chrysogenum: penicillin; engineered E. coli: insulin
  6. Biogas by anaerobic digestion; bioremediation
  7. Biofertilisers: Rhizobium, Azotobacter, Anabaena–Azolla
  8. Biopesticides: Bacillus thuringiensis; mycorrhizae; composting
Unit 10

Applied Biology

Applied biology. Short-note material for essay Q10. Learn lists of characteristics, methods and examples.

1.2MCQs / paper
2%of Paper I
7Paper II parts since 2019
28textbook pages

Aquaculture and ornamental fish culture

FrequentSeen in 5/8 new-syllabus papers0.4 MCQs per paper2 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (5)
  • 2026 P1 Q50 — Fish species for culture
  • 2025 P2 Q10c — Environmental impact of ornamental fish culture
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q39 — Ornamental fish immunity
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q50 — Aquarium maintenance
  • 2021 (2022) P2 Q10c — Culturable fish characteristics

FAO: aquaculture is the farming of aquatic organisms — fish, molluscs, crustaceans and aquatic plants. It supplies protein for a growing population and eases pressure on wild stocks.

Characteristics of a culturable species

  • Tolerates local climate and water conditions; fast growth
  • Easy to breed; hatchery and rearing techniques known
  • Hardy at all stages; disease resistant
  • Known feeding habits; accepts formulated feed; efficient feed converter
  • Does not breed in grow-out ponds; late sexual maturity is an advantage
  • Tolerates high stocking density
  • No adverse impact if it escapes; acceptable to consumers (taste, colour)

Common ornamental fish

Live-bearersEgg-layers
Guppy (Poecilia reticulata), black molly (P. mexicana), swordtail (Xiphophorus helleri), platy (X. maculatus)Angelfish (Pterophyllum scalare), discus (Symphysodon), Siamese fighting fish (Betta splendens, bubble nest), kissing gourami, goldfish (Carassius auratus), koi carp (Cyprinus carpio)

Home aquarium maintenance

  • Filtration and aeration; partial water change, dechlorinated water
  • Correct stocking density, compatible species
  • Do not overfeed (uneaten food → ammonia, poor water quality)
  • Monitor temperature, pH; quarantine new fish

Fish diseases

CauseDisease
BacteriaFin rot and gill rot, haemorrhagic septicaemia, columnaris
FungiExternal mycosis (cotton-wool growth on injuries)
Unicellular parasitesIch / white spot (Ichthyophthirius), trichodinosis
Multicellular parasitesGill and skin flukes

Most outbreaks start with stress: poor water quality, overstocking, handling.

Environmental impact

  • Escape of exotic species → invasive populations, competition with natives
  • Spread of pathogens to wild fish
  • Over-collection of wild fish; effluent pollution
  • Use best management practices (BMPs)
Exam traps Guppies are live-bearers and larvivorous (used in dengue/filaria control). A culturable species should not breed in grow-out ponds — it wastes energy and causes overcrowding.

Nursery management and plant propagation

OccasionalSeen in 2/8 new-syllabus papers0.1 MCQs per paper2 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (4)
  • 2026 P2 Q4C — Adventitious roots, nano smart drugs (partial page)
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q40 — Floriculture propagation methods
  • 2019 (Old) P2 Q10a — Micropropagation
  • 2017 P1 Q29 — Plant tissue culture

Nursery management issues

  • Light — quality (wavelength) and duration (photoperiod)
  • Soil / potting media — texture, structure, organic matter, fertiliser
  • Water — quality, quantity, humidity (critical for rooting cuttings)
  • Pests & diseases — integrated pest management
  • Structures — greenhouses, polytunnels, shade nets vs open air

Sexual (seed) propagation

  • Cheap, many plants, genetic variation
  • Seed quality, dormancy-breaking, sowing depth, pricking out, hardening off
  • Offspring may not be true-to-type

Vegetative (asexual) propagation

MethodKey pointsExamples
Separation & divisionNatural structures separated or cutRhizomes, bulbs, corms, suckers
Stem cuttingsNeed only new adventitious roots; auxin (IBA/NAA) promotes rootingRose, hibiscus, croton
Leaf cuttingsNeed both new shoot and root systemsBegonia, African violet, snake plant (Sansevieria)
LayeringStem rooted while still attached to the parent (simple, air layering / marcotting); self-layeringStrawberry, Cynodon, guava, lime
Grafting / buddingScion (top) joined to rootstock; cambium-to-cambium contact; callus bridge forms from bothMango, rambutan, rose, citrus
Cut scion and stockAlign cambiaBind and sealCallus bridge formsNew vascular tissue connectsUnion functions as one plant

Tissue culture (micropropagation)

  • Principle: totipotency — one cell carries the full programme for a whole plant (Haberlandt)
  • Medium (e.g. Murashige & Skoog, MS): inorganic salts, sucrose, vitamins, growth regulators, agar, water; aseptic
  • High auxin : cytokinin → roots; high cytokinin : auxin → shoots; balanced → callus
Select explant, surface-steriliseInitiate culture / callusMultiply shootsRootHarden off (acclimatise)

Why tissue culture matters

  • Rapid mass production of identical clones year-round
  • Disease-free (virus-free from meristem culture) planting material
  • Propagates plants with poor seed set (orchids, banana)
  • Germplasm conservation; supports genetic engineering
Exam traps In grafting the scion carries the desired fruit/flower traits; the rootstock supplies roots and vigour/disease resistance. Leaf cuttings need both roots and shoots to regenerate.

Food preservation and postharvest losses

FrequentSeen in 5/8 new-syllabus papers0.4 MCQs per paper2 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (6)
  • 2026 P2 Q10c — Postharvest losses in storage
  • 2025 P1 Q48 — Domestic food processing in SL
  • 2024 P1 Q39 — Food preservation methods
  • 2021 (2022) P2 Q9b — Chemical changes in microbial food spoilage
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q50 — Food spoilage
  • 2018 P1 Q40 — Canning principles

Three principles

  1. Prevent or delay microbial decomposition (keep out, remove, inhibit or kill microbes)
  2. Prevent or delay self-decomposition (inactivate enzymes, slow chemical reactions)
  3. Prevent damage by insects, rodents and mechanical causes

Methods

MethodHow it works
Heat — pasteurisation, sterilisation, canningKills microbes, inactivates enzymes; canning = heat + hermetic seal
Freezing (−18 to −30 °C)Stops microbial growth; long storage
Chilling (4–7 °C)Slows growth; ~10–14 days
Drying / dehydrationLowers water activity
Salting, salting + dryingOsmotic water loss (dried fish, lime pickle)
SugaringOsmotic stress (jam, ash-pumpkin sweets)
SmokingAntimicrobial and antioxidant compounds + drying
ChemicalsSodium benzoate, EDTA, acetic acid, brine (fruit juice, pickles)
IrradiationGamma rays, X-rays, electron beams — spices, ground meat; kills pathogens, insects

Postharvest losses

  • Types: weight loss (spoilage), quality loss, nutritional loss
  • Harvesting — untimely harvest, mechanical injury
  • Handling — bruising, contamination
  • Transport — crushing in stacked crates, heat, shaking (use rigid stackable crates, padding, night transport)
  • Storage — most critical in developing countries: moisture, insects, rodents, microbes (dry paddy, cold rooms)
  • Domestic processing — improper methods, poor hygiene
Exam traps Chilling only slows microbes; it does not kill them. Salt and sugar both act by lowering water availability (osmosis).

Dengue and filaria

Very frequentSeen in 7/8 new-syllabus papers1.1 MCQs per paper4 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2026
Past-paper questions (17)
  • 2026 P1 Q38 — Streptococcus diseases
  • 2026 P2 Q9b — Toxigenicity of pathogens
  • 2024 P1 Q40 — Filariasis transmission
  • 2024 P2 Q10b — Prions
  • 2023 (2024) P1 Q37 — Endotoxins & exotoxins
  • 2023 (2024) P2 Q10c — Control of filariasis
  • 2022 (2023) P1 Q49 — Water- & food-borne bacteria
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q38 — Antibiotic modes of action
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q50 — Dengue & filaria vector control
  • 2020 P1 Q38 — Bacterial pathogenicity factors
  • 2020 P1 Q40 — Disease–pathogen pairs
  • 2019 (New) P1 Q40 — Waterborne diseases
  • 2019 (Old) P1 Q40 — Food intoxication
  • 2019 (Old) P2 Q9a — Normal human microbiota
  • 2017 P1 Q38 — Antibiotic actions
  • 2017 P1 Q40 — Pathogenicity factors
  • 2016 P1 Q36 — Endotoxin-producing pathogens
DengueLymphatic filariasis
AgentDengue virus — RNA arbovirus (4 serotypes)Nematode; ~90% of global cases Wuchereria bancrofti
VectorFemale Aedes aegypti, Ae. albopictus (day-biters, black with white bands, 4–7 mm)In Sri Lanka only Culex quinquefasciatus (night-biter, grey-black, 3–4 mm)
Breeding sitesClean water in artificial containers — tyres, coconut shells, gutters, tanks, refrigerator trays, flower vases, leaf axilsPolluted water — blocked drains, broken septic/toilet pits, husk pits; eggs laid as floating rafts
DiseaseIncubation 4–10 days; sudden high fever (40 °C), headache, retro-orbital pain, muscle/joint pain, rash, 2–7 days. Severe dengue (DHF): plasma leakage, bleeding, low platelets, shock — warning signs as fever fallsL3 larvae enter through the bite wound → adults in lymphatics (live 5–6 years) → microfilariae in blood at night (lungs by day). Lymphoedema, elephantiasis, hydrocele; occult filariasis (eosinophilia, night cough)
ControlIntegrated vector management — environmental (remove breeding sites, cover tanks, clean drains, proper waste and tyre disposal), biological (larvivorous fish: guppy, dandi Rasbora daniconius, juvenile tilapia; Bacillus thuringiensis israelensis toxin kills larvae), chemical (thermal fogging, larvicides), personal (nets, repellents, long clothing); mass drug administration for filaria
Exam traps Aedes prefers clean water, Culex polluted water. Filarial larvae are deposited on the skin and enter through the wound — they are not injected like dengue virus. Only female mosquitoes bite.

Nanotechnology, stem cells and the Human Genome Project

FrequentSeen in 3/8 new-syllabus papers0.2 MCQs per paper1 Paper II parts (2016–2026)Last asked 2025
Past-paper questions (3)
  • 2025 P1 Q40 — Embryonic vs adult stem cells
  • 2024 P2 Q10c — Applications of stem cells
  • 2021 (2022) P1 Q49 — Stem cells

Nanotechnology & nanomedicine

  • Structures at 1–100 nm (1 nm = 10⁻⁹ m); idea popularised by Richard Feynman (1959)
  • TiO₂ and silver nanoparticles — sterilising theatres and instruments, antimicrobial coatings, nano-filters (block viruses)
  • Nano-sensors for blood pressure, O₂, hormones
  • "Smart drugs" — gold nanoparticles target cancer cells; gold nanoshells for cancer therapy and imaging
  • Insulin-releasing nano-devices for diabetes; nano-liposomes for pain drugs; airway delivery
  • VivaGel (microbicide against HIV/HSV); nanocomposites for bone and dental fillings

Stem cells

  • Undifferentiated, self-renewing, can differentiate
  • Embryonic (ES): inner cell mass (~30 cells) of a 5–7-day blastocyst (~100 cells) → pluripotent (all 200+ cell types); ethical concerns
  • Adult: tissue-specific, multipotent — epidermal, intestinal, haemopoietic (blood), neural; stay "faithful to origin"
  • iPSCs (2006): adult cells reprogrammed to pluripotency — no embryos, patient-matched
  • Uses: bone-marrow transplant for leukaemia, tissue engineering (heart muscle, spinal neurons), research on Parkinson's, Alzheimer's, diabetes, stroke; gene therapy

Human Genome Project (1990–2003)

  • Led by US DOE and NIH, with UK, Japan, France, Germany, Australia, China
  • Aims: identify all genes (~20,000 protein-coding), sequence ~3 billion base pairs, store data, improve analysis tools, transfer technology, address ethical, legal and social issues
  • Benefits: diagnosis, cancer mutations, drug design, gene therapy, human evolution
  • Revealed large amounts of intergenic DNA, probably with regulatory roles
  • Other completed genomes: E. coli, yeast, mouse, Arabidopsis, rice
Exam traps ES cells are pluripotent (not totipotent — they can't form the placenta); the zygote is totipotent. Adult stem cells are generally multipotent.

Unit 10 — Model MCQs

Pick an answer to check it. Questions follow the past-paper style (five options, one correct).

10.1 Which is a desirable characteristic of a species selected for aquaculture? Aquaculture & animal production

Answer: (3) Good culture species accept cheap formulated feed, tolerate density and do not breed in grow-out ponds.

10.2 For a successful graft union, it is essential that Plant propagation & tissue culture

Answer: (2) A callus bridge forms from both cambia, then new vascular tissue connects them.

10.3 The principle underlying plant tissue culture is Plant propagation & tissue culture

Answer: (2) A single plant cell carries the genetic programme to form a whole plant.

10.4 Salting and sugaring preserve food mainly by Food science & postharvest

Answer: (2) High solute concentrations draw water out of microbes and food.

10.5 Which is correct about filariasis vector in Sri Lanka? Microbes & disease

Answer: (2) NIE: transmitted solely by Culex quinquefasciatus, which breeds in polluted water.

10.6 Embryonic stem cells are obtained from the Biotech in medicine & nanotechnology

Answer: (2) The ~30-cell inner cell mass of a 5–7-day blastocyst gives pluripotent ES cells.

10.7 Silver and titanium dioxide nanoparticles are used in hospitals mainly for Biotech in medicine & nanotechnology

Answer: (2) Ag and TiO₂ nanoparticles are antimicrobial — coatings, lotions and nano-filters.

Unit 10 — Structured & essay practice

Short notes (Q10) Write short notes on (a) control of dengue vectors (b) stem cells.

Show marking points
  1. (a) Aedes breeds in clean water containers
  2. Environmental: remove breeding sites, cover tanks, clean gutters, dispose tyres
  3. Biological: guppy, dandi, juvenile tilapia; Bti toxin
  4. Chemical: fogging, larvicides; personal protection
  5. (b) Undifferentiated, self-renewing, can differentiate
  6. Embryonic (inner cell mass, pluripotent) vs adult (multipotent) vs iPSCs
  7. Applications: bone-marrow transplant for leukaemia, tissue engineering; ethical issues

Structured State the principles of food preservation and explain how three methods work.

Show marking points
  1. Prevent microbial decomposition; prevent self-decomposition (enzymes); prevent insect/rodent/mechanical damage
  2. Heat (pasteurisation/canning) kills microbes, inactivates enzymes
  3. Freezing/chilling slows or stops growth
  4. Salting/sugaring: osmotic dehydration of microbes
  5. Drying lowers water activity; smoking; chemicals (sodium benzoate); irradiation
A+

A+ strategy & fast-track planner

Week 1 Foundation

  • Units 1–2: biomolecules, cells, membranes, division
  • Enzymes, photosynthesis, respiration flows
  • Unit 2 MCQs + one Q5-style essay

Week 2 Diversity

  • Unit 3 classification tables (highest yield per page)
  • Evolution and taxonomy
  • Make a one-page phylum chart

Week 3 Plants

  • Unit 4: tissues, transport, nutrition
  • Reproduction and hormones (hormone-pair table)
  • One Q6-style essay

Weeks 4–5 Animals

  • Unit 5 — two systems per day
  • Draw and label: heart, nephron, eye, ear, neurone, sarcomere
  • Two Q7/Q8 essays per week

Week 6 Genetics & molecular

  • Unit 6 problems daily (ratios, pedigrees, Hardy–Weinberg)
  • Unit 7 sequences and enzymes; PCR, cloning

Week 7 Applied

  • Units 8–10: tables of conventions, zones, organisms, products, diseases
  • Write 6 short notes (Q10 practice)

Week 8 Exam mode

  • Two full past papers under timed conditions
  • Mark with marking schemes; log every mistake
  • Re-read all red trap boxes

Daily habit 30 min

  • 10 MCQs from mixed units
  • Redraw one flowchart from memory
  • Review yesterday's mistakes

Paper I technique

  • Read the last line of the stem first: “correct”, “incorrect”, “NOT”.
  • For multi-statement items (A, B, C), judge each statement separately, then match the combination.
  • Eliminate options with absolute words (“always”, “only”) unless you are sure.
  • Mark doubtful items and move on; return with the time saved.
  • Use the NIE figures and wording — the marking scheme follows the resource books.

Paper II technique

  • Structured: answer in the space given; one fact per mark; use exact terms.
  • Essays score by points: plan 15–20 numbered points before writing.
  • Follow the flow of the process (as in the flowcharts here); name the location, enzyme and product at each step.
  • Add a labelled diagram where it saves words — it earns marks too.
  • Short notes (Q10): definition → features/steps → examples → significance.

Final-week checklist

  • All “every-paper” subtopics revised
  • Hormone tables (plant and animal) memorised
  • Genetics ratios and Hardy–Weinberg practised
  • Classification chart memorised
  • Conventions, Ramsar sites and climatic zones learned
  • Pathogen–disease and microbe–product tables learned
  • Two full timed papers completed
GCE A/L Biology back cover
✦

Knowledge • Practice • Higher Futures

This Fast Track Work Package was prepared by MEDVision Global Academy under the academic guidance of Dr. Muthunu Akurugodagama.

“Knowledge today for healthier tomorrows.”

Notes are original study material aligned to the NIE G.C.E. (A/L) Biology syllabus. Past-paper references list the Department of Examinations papers by year and question number for practice.

© MEDVision Global Academy · GCE A/L Biology (English Medium) Fast Track Work Package
2016

G.C.E. (Advanced Level) — Biology

Old syllabus (pre-2019) · Re-set practice paper

Paper I50 MCQs · 2 hoursAnswer all. Choose the one correct or most suitable option.
Paper II21 parts in this booklet · 3 hoursPart A: answer all structured questions. Part B: answer four essays.

Every question tests the same concept as question of the same number in the 2016 paper, re-written by MEDVision. Source coverage: Paper I + full Paper II.

2016 · Paper IMultiple choice
1.

In germinating castor seeds, stored triacylglycerols are converted into sucrose that supports the growing seedling. In which organelle are the glyoxylate-cycle enzymes for this conversion located?

  1. 1Mitochondrion
  2. 2Glyoxysome
  3. 3Leucoplast
  4. 4Lysosome
  5. 5Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
U2 · Cell organelles & structure
2.

Which one of the following generalisations about prokaryotic organisms is valid?

  1. 1Every prokaryote obtains its carbon from organic compounds made by other organisms.
  2. 2Peptidoglycan is found in the cell walls of some prokaryotes but is absent from others.
  3. 3Every prokaryote can reduce atmospheric N₂ to ammonia.
  4. 4Prokaryotic cells carry out protein synthesis without ribosomes.
  5. 5All prokaryotes possess a nucleus bounded by a double membrane.
U3 · Prokaryotes, protists & fungi
3.

Analysis of a double-stranded DNA sample shows that 18% of its bases are cytosine. What percentage of its bases would be adenine?

  1. 132%
  2. 218%
  3. 336%
  4. 464%
  5. 582%
U7 · DNA structure & replication
4.

Which pairing of a cell component with its function is incorrect?

  1. 1Smooth endoplasmic reticulum – synthesis of lipids
  2. 2Centrosome – organisation of microtubules in animal cells
  3. 3Glyoxysome – oxidation of glycolate during photorespiration in leaves
  4. 4Lysosome – intracellular digestion
  5. 5Ribosome – synthesis of polypeptides
U2 · Cell organelles & structure
5.

A yeast cell growing without oxygen, a human skeletal muscle fibre in oxygen debt and a well-oxygenated liver cell all break down glucose. Which stage is common to all three?

  1. 1Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA
  2. 2Splitting of glucose into two molecules of pyruvate in the cytosol
  3. 3Oxidation of acetyl groups in the Krebs cycle
  4. 4ATP synthesis driven by an electron transport chain
  5. 5Reduction of oxygen to water
U2 · Cellular respiration & fermentation
6.

Which statement comparing C₄ plants (for example maize) with C₃ plants (for example rice) is incorrect?

  1. 1C₄ plants fix CO₂ twice, in two different cell types.
  2. 2In C₄ plants the first CO₂ acceptor in mesophyll cells is phosphoenolpyruvate.
  3. 3The first stable product in C₄ plants is the four-carbon oxaloacetate.
  4. 4In bright light and high temperatures, C₄ plants usually have a lower photosynthetic yield than C₃ plants.
  5. 5Photorespiration is negligible in C₄ plants.
U2 · Photosynthesis
7.

Four plants, P, Q, R and S, each show one of these features. P: produces two kinds of spores. Q: has a photosynthetic gametophyte. R: does not produce seeds. S: has a thalloid gametophyte. Which option gives P, Q, R and S in the correct order?

  1. 1Selaginella, Pinus, Cycas, Pogonatum
  2. 2Cycas, Pogonatum, Selaginella, Marchantia
  3. 3Nephrolepis, Marchantia, Cycas, Pogonatum
  4. 4Lycopodium, Pinus, Nephrolepis, Marchantia
  5. 5Pogonatum, Nephrolepis, Mango, Marchantia
U3 · Plant diversity
8.

The rank 'phylum' was added to the hierarchy of classification by

  1. 1Ernst Haeckel.
  2. 2Carolus Linnaeus.
  3. 3Robert Whittaker.
  4. 4Carl Woese.
  5. 5Charles Darwin.
U3 · Classification & taxonomy
9.

Which pair of phyla consists of organisms whose main carbohydrate reserve is glycogen?

  1. 1Bryophyta and Phaeophyta
  2. 2Chlorophyta and Ascomycota
  3. 3Ascomycota and Mollusca
  4. 4Chordata and Cycadophyta
  5. 5Chrysophyta and Basidiomycota
U3 · Prokaryotes, protists & fungi
10.

A fast-moving, flattened terrestrial arthropod has one pair of antennae, a pair of poison claws behind the head, and a single pair of walking legs on each trunk segment. To which class does it belong?

  1. 1Insecta
  2. 2Diplopoda
  3. 3Chilopoda
  4. 4Arachnida
  5. 5Crustacea
U3 · Animal diversity
11.

A deficiency of each vitamin in which of the following groups can lead to anaemia?

  1. 1Thiamin, niacin and vitamin D
  2. 2Vitamin A, vitamin D and vitamin K
  3. 3Riboflavin, pantothenic acid and biotin
  4. 4Cobalamin (B₁₂), pyridoxine (B₆) and folic acid
  5. 5Thiamin, biotin and vitamin K
U5 · Digestion & nutrition
12.

Which statement about human breathing and gas exchange is correct?

  1. 1The left lung is divided into three lobes.
  2. 2Oxygen crosses the alveolar wall by active transport.
  3. 3Contraction of the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles lowers intrapulmonary pressure below atmospheric pressure.
  4. 4The trachea is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.
  5. 5Quiet expiration requires contraction of the internal intercostal muscles.
U5 · Gas exchange
13.

Which statement about human blood is incorrect?

  1. 1Most of the carbon dioxide in blood is carried bound to haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin.
  2. 2Blood is a fluid connective tissue.
  3. 3A mature red blood cell has no nucleus and no mitochondria.
  4. 4Monocytes leave the blood and develop into phagocytic macrophages.
  5. 5Blood distributes heat around the body.
U5 · Circulation & blood
14.

The heartbeat is started and spread by specialised cardiac tissue. Which structure is not part of this conducting system?

  1. 1Sino-atrial node
  2. 2Atrioventricular node
  3. 3Chordae tendineae
  4. 4Atrioventricular bundle (bundle of His)
  5. 5Purkinje fibres
U5 · Circulation & blood
15.

A well-watered potted plant is kept overnight in a dark, humid room. Which process is most likely to increase compared with daytime?

  1. 1Transpiration through stomata
  2. 2Uptake of mineral ions carried by the transpiration stream
  3. 3Guttation through hydathodes
  4. 4Xylem flow driven by cohesion–tension
  5. 5Stomatal opening
U4 · Water relations & transport
16.

Which statement about translocation in the phloem is incorrect?

  1. 1In many plants, sucrose is loaded into sieve tubes by active transport.
  2. 2A sprouting potato tuber can act as a sugar source.
  3. 3Sap moves by pressure flow from a source to a sink.
  4. 4Developing fruits generally act as sinks.
  5. 5Sucrose passes from one sieve tube element to the next mainly through the cell walls (apoplast).
U4 · Water relations & transport
17.

Which statement about human growth hormone (somatotrophin) is incorrect?

  1. 1It is secreted by cells of the adenohypophysis.
  2. 2Its release is stimulated by GHRH and inhibited by somatostatin.
  3. 3It promotes the deposition of fat in adipose tissue.
  4. 4Many of its growth effects are mediated by IGF-1 from the liver.
  5. 5It tends to raise the blood glucose level.
U5 · Endocrine system
18.

Which statement about the human brain is incorrect?

  1. 1Broca's area, which controls speech production, lies in the frontal lobe.
  2. 2The cerebellum coordinates posture and balance.
  3. 3The hypothalamus contains centres that regulate body temperature.
  4. 4The reflex centres for sneezing and swallowing lie in the pons.
  5. 5The corpus callosum is a band of white matter that links the two cerebral hemispheres.
U5 · Nervous system
19.

Which statement about an action potential in a myelinated human motor axon is incorrect?

  1. 1Once threshold is reached, it is all-or-none.
  2. 2No second action potential can be fired during the absolute refractory period.
  3. 3Along a myelinated axon, it is regenerated only at the nodes of Ranvier.
  4. 4The depolarisation phase passes directly into hyperpolarisation, without a repolarisation phase.
  5. 5It lasts only a few milliseconds.
U5 · Nervous system
20.

Which statement about excretion is incorrect?

  1. 1Removal of CO₂ through the lungs is excretion.
  2. 2Elimination of undigested cellulose in faeces is excretion.
  3. 3Bilirubin from the breakdown of haem is an excretory product.
  4. 4Excreting ammonia needs less energy than making urea or uric acid.
  5. 5Failure of excretion can alter blood pH.
U5 · Excretion & osmoregulation
21.

Which property is not typical of human visceral smooth muscle?

  1. 1It is supplied by autonomic nerves.
  2. 2It can maintain tone for long periods using little energy.
  3. 3It contracts rapidly and fatigues quickly.
  4. 4Some of it shows spontaneous rhythmic contractions, as in peristalsis.
  5. 5It can be stretched and still maintain tension.
U5 · Animal tissues
22.

Which statement about the contraction of a skeletal muscle sarcomere is incorrect?

  1. 1The A band shortens because the thick filaments themselves shorten.
  2. 2Both the I band and the H zone become narrower.
  3. 3The length of the A band does not change.
  4. 4Ca²⁺ released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum binds to troponin.
  5. 5Every cross-bridge cycle uses ATP.
U5 · Skeleton, muscle & movement
23.

Which statement about the human scapula is incorrect?

  1. 1It is a flat, triangular bone on the posterolateral wall of the thorax.
  2. 2Its glenoid cavity lies on the medial (vertebral) border and receives the head of the humerus.
  3. 3Its acromion articulates with the clavicle.
  4. 4A prominent spine runs across its posterior surface.
  5. 5The coracoid process projects forward from its upper border.
U5 · Skeleton, muscle & movement
24.

Which statement about the human lower limb is incorrect?

  1. 1The patella is a sesamoid bone in the quadriceps tendon.
  2. 2Each lower limb contains 30 bones.
  3. 3Each femur runs parallel to the median plane of the body from hip to knee.
  4. 4The fibula does not take part in the knee joint.
  5. 5The foot has both longitudinal and transverse arches.
U5 · Skeleton, muscle & movement
25.

Which statement about the human male reproductive system is incorrect?

  1. 1Sertoli cells secrete the hormone inhibin.
  2. 2Leydig cells secrete testosterone in response to LH.
  3. 3Sperm complete capacitation inside the female reproductive tract.
  4. 4Fluid from the seminal vesicles supplies glucose as the main energy source for sperm.
  5. 5One cycle of spermatogenesis takes roughly two and a half months.
U5 · Reproduction & development
26.

Which of these structures of the human male reproductive system occurs singly rather than as a pair?

  1. 1Bulbourethral gland
  2. 2Epididymis
  3. 3Prostate gland
  4. 4Seminal vesicle
  5. 5Vas deferens
U5 · Reproduction & development
27.

A healthy leaf blade releases a growth substance that keeps the abscission zone at the base of its petiole from developing, so the leaf is not shed. Which substance is this?

  1. 1Ethylene
  2. 2Abscisic acid
  3. 3Indole-3-acetic acid (auxin)
  4. 4Gibberellic acid
  5. 5Cytokinin
U4 · Plant hormones & responses
28.

In a four-o'clock plant, crossing pure-breeding red-flowered and pure-breeding ivory-flowered plants gives all pink F₁ plants. Selfing the F₁ gives red, pink and ivory plants in a 1 : 2 : 1 ratio. This is an example of

  1. 1co-dominance.
  2. 2incomplete dominance.
  3. 3epistasis.
  4. 4multiple alleles.
  5. 5gene linkage.
U6 · Extensions of Mendelian genetics
29.

The template strand of a gene contains the base triplet GTA. Which option correctly gives the corresponding mRNA codon and tRNA anticodon?

  1. 1mRNA CAU; tRNA GUA
  2. 2mRNA GUA; tRNA CAU
  3. 3mRNA GTA; tRNA CAT
  4. 4mRNA CAU; tRNA GTA
  5. 5mRNA CAT; tRNA GUA
U7 · Gene expression & regulation
30.

A pure-breeding tall pea plant with round seeds is crossed with a pure-breeding dwarf plant with wrinkled seeds. All F₁ plants are tall with round seeds. If 160 F₂ plants are raised, how many are expected to be tall with round seeds?

  1. 110
  2. 230
  3. 360
  4. 490
  5. 5120
U6 · Mendelian inheritance
31.

A woman of normal phenotype whose father had haemophilia marries a man with haemophilia. Her mother was not a carrier. Which statement about their children is correct?

  1. 1All of their daughters will have haemophilia.
  2. 2All of their sons will have haemophilia.
  3. 3None of their daughters can have haemophilia.
  4. 4Only 25% of their children are expected to have haemophilia.
  5. 5Half of all their children are expected to be unaffected.
U6 · Linkage & sex-linkage
32.

Which statement about when major groups of organisms first appeared in the fossil record is incorrect?

  1. 1Mammals and dinosaurs both first appeared in the Triassic period.
  2. 2Flowering plants diversified rapidly in the Cretaceous period.
  3. 3The earliest insects arose in the Palaeozoic era.
  4. 4Conifers first appeared in the Cenozoic era.
  5. 5Placental mammals originated in the Cretaceous period.
U3 · Origin of life & evolution
33.

Which terrestrial biome has the smallest annual range of temperature?

  1. 1Tundra
  2. 2Tropical rain forest
  3. 3Taiga
  4. 4Hot desert
  5. 5Temperate grassland
U8 · Biomes & Sri Lankan ecosystems
34.

Which statement about the phosphorus cycle is correct?

  1. 1The largest reservoir of phosphorus is living biomass.
  2. 2The cycle has a major gaseous phase.
  3. 3Human activities have negligible effects on the cycle.
  4. 4Plant roots absorb phosphorus mainly as dihydrogen phosphate ions (H₂PO₄⁻).
  5. 5Phosphorus is returned to rock mainly by nitrifying bacteria.
U8 · Ecosystems & energy flow
35.

Consider these species found in Sri Lanka: A – Annona glabra; B – Macaca sinica; C – Chelonia mydas; D – Elephas maximus; E – Loris tardigradus. Which statement about them is correct?

  1. 1Two of them are invasive alien species.
  2. 2Two of them are endemic to Sri Lanka.
  3. 3One of them is extinct in the wild.
  4. 4None of them is listed as threatened.
  5. 5All of them are native to Sri Lanka.
U8 · Biodiversity & conservation
36.

Which food-borne pathogen produces its illness largely through a lipopolysaccharide endotoxin in its outer membrane?

  1. 1Salmonella Typhi
  2. 2Staphylococcus aureus
  3. 3Clostridium botulinum
  4. 4Bacillus cereus
  5. 5Clostridium perfringens
U9 · Microbes & disease
37.

Which statement about prions is incorrect?

  1. 1They are infectious particles made of protein.
  2. 2They convert normal host prion protein into the abnormal folded form.
  3. 3They cause transmissible spongiform encephalopathies.
  4. 4They can pass from cattle to humans through infected tissue.
  5. 5They replicate by using their own RNA as a template.
U9 · Microbial diversity & structure
38.

Which vaccine used for active immunisation is produced by recombinant DNA technology?

  1. 1Tetanus toxoid
  2. 2BCG vaccine
  3. 3Live attenuated measles vaccine
  4. 4Hepatitis B vaccine
  5. 5Inactivated cell-culture rabies vaccine
U5 · Immunity
39.

Which conversion in the nitrogen cycle is carried out by Nitrosomonas?

  1. 1NH₄⁺ → NO₂⁻
  2. 2N₂ → NH₃
  3. 3NO₂⁻ → NO₃⁻
  4. 4NO₃⁻ → N₂
  5. 5Organic nitrogen → NH₄⁺
U9 · Environmental microbiology & waste treatment
40.

Copper can be recovered from low-grade sulphide ores by microbial leaching. Which organism is used for this?

  1. 1Bacillus thuringiensis
  2. 2Penicillium chrysogenum
  3. 3Thiobacillus (Acidithiobacillus) ferrooxidans
  4. 4Lactobacillus acidophilus
  5. 5Saccharomyces cerevisiae
U9 · Industrial & food microbiology
41.

Which of the following are formed during oxidative phosphorylation on the inner mitochondrial membrane?
A – ATP
B – Water
C – NAD⁺
D – CO₂
E – Pyruvate

  1. 1A and D only
  2. 2A, B and C only
  3. 3A, B, C and D only
  4. 4B and E only
  5. 5C, D and E only
U2 · Cellular respiration & fermentation
42.

Which of the following polysaccharides are not made of glucose units?
A – Inulin
B – Amylopectin
C – Chitin
D – Pectin
E – Cellulose

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2B and E only
  3. 3A, C and D only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5A, C, D and E only
U2 · Biomolecules & water
43.

Which of the following features occur in at least some members of both Chordata and Mollusca?
A – Gills used for gas exchange
B – Radula
C – Well-developed camera-type eyes
D – Notochord
E – Internal fertilisation

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2B and D only
  3. 3A, C and E only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5A, B, C and E only
U3 · Animal diversity
44.

Which of the following pairings of nutrition type and example are correct?
A – Symbiotic – Cuscuta
B – Photoautotrophic – purple sulphur bacteria
C – Saprotrophic – Rhizopus
D – Chemoautotrophic – Nitrosomonas
E – Holozoic – Nepenthes

  1. 1B, C and D only
  2. 2A, B and C only
  3. 3C and D only
  4. 4A and E only
  5. 5B, D and E only
U8 · Populations & ecological interactions
45.

Which of the following statements about the Na⁺/K⁺ pump in a neurone are correct?
A – Each cycle moves three Na⁺ ions out and two K⁺ ions in.
B – It is located in the myelin sheath formed by Schwann cells.
C – Poisons that stop ATP production eventually stop the pump.
D – It helps to maintain the resting membrane potential.
E – It pumps K⁺ out of the neurone.

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5C, D and E only
U5 · Nervous system
46.

Which of the following affect the daily urine output of a healthy adult?
A – Plasma ADH concentration
B – Environmental temperature
C – Fluid intake
D – Glomerular filtration rate
E – Activity of hypothalamic osmoreceptors

  1. 1A, C and E only
  2. 2A, B and C only
  3. 3A, D and E only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5All of A, B, C, D and E
U5 · Excretion & osmoregulation
47.

Which of the following statements about the human placenta are correct?
A – It is a chorio-allantoic placenta.
B – It secretes human chorionic gonadotrophin.
C – Maternal and fetal blood normally do not mix in it.
D – It allows maternal IgG antibodies to pass to the fetus.
E – Water can cross it in both directions.

  1. 1A, B and C only
  2. 2B, C and D only
  3. 3A, C and E only
  4. 4B and D only
  5. 5All of A, B, C, D and E
U5 · Reproduction & development
48.

Which of the following statements about the human uterus are incorrect?
A – Fertilisation normally takes place in the uterine cavity.
B – Its middle layer, the myometrium, is smooth muscle.
C – The endometrium is lined by stratified squamous epithelium.
D – Progesterone reduces the excitability of the myometrium during pregnancy.
E – Near term, oestrogen increases the uterine response to oxytocin.

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2A and C only
  3. 3C and D only
  4. 4B, D and E only
  5. 5A, C and E only
U5 · Reproduction & development
49.

Which of the following features are not shared by all phyla of vascular plants?
A – Production of seeds
B – Presence of xylem and phloem
C – A free-living photosynthetic gametophyte
D – Heterospory
E – A dominant sporophyte generation

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2B and E only
  3. 3A, C and D only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5A, B, C and D only
U3 · Plant diversity
50.

Which of the following statements on genetic terminology are correct?
A – Alleles are alternative forms of a gene at the same locus.
B – A test cross is a cross with a homozygous dominant individual.
C – In blood group AB, the alleles Iᴬ and Iᴮ are co-dominant.
D – A gene is the basic unit of inheritance of a particular character.
E – An organism that is homozygous at a locus carries two different alleles there.

  1. 1A, C and D only
  2. 2A, B and D only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5A, C, D and E only
U6 · Mendelian inheritance
2016 · Paper IIStructured & essay
1A
Part A · Structured

(i) Explain what is meant by a biological macromolecule.
(ii) List the three classes of macromolecule found in living cells.
(iii) Name the main disaccharide in (a) the stem of the sugarcane plant and (b) a germinating cereal grain, and give the monosaccharides that make up each one.
(iv) Which monosaccharide is a component of both ATP and NAD?
(v) Give two properties that set lipids apart from the other major classes of biological molecules.
(vi) List five different kinds of lipid found in living organisms.

1B
Part A · Structured

(i) Define the term mutation.
(ii) Explain why mutations are important in evolution.
(iii) Give three human genetic disorders caused by mutations, and state the kind of mutation involved in each.

1C
Part A · Structured

(i) Define Biological (Biochemical) Oxygen Demand (BOD).
(ii) Describe the effects on an aquatic ecosystem when large volumes of effluent with a high BOD are released into it.
(iii) Name two oxidation processes used in modern wastewater treatment plants to reduce BOD.
(iv) Open dumping of municipal solid waste is a serious problem in Sri Lanka. State the harmful effects of dumping solid waste on open land.
(v) Suggest ways to reduce the problems of solid waste disposal.

2A
Part A · Structured

(i) Define homeostasis.
(ii) Give three conditions of the internal environment that are kept under homeostatic control in humans.
(iii) Give two benefits of homeostasis to humans.
(iv) Give one cost (disadvantage) of homeostasis.
(v) State four ways in which the liver helps to maintain homeostasis.
(vi) Give two examples of positive feedback in the human body.

2B
Part A · Structured

(i) Define lactation.
(ii) Name the component present in the largest amount in human breast milk.
(iii) Name two hormones from the placenta that prepare the mammary glands.
(iv) Give two constituents of colostrum.
(v) Describe the role of oxytocin in breastfeeding.
(vi) Name two hormones that suppress milk production.
(vii) Give three benefits of breastfeeding.

2C
Part A · Structured

(i) List the three basic functions of the human nervous system.
(ii) Name two animal phyla whose members have a double ventral nerve cord.
(iii) Name one phylum whose members have radial nerves.
(iv) Give two advantages of control by the nervous system over control by hormones.
(v) Define a sensory receptor.
(vi) Give three general properties of sensory receptors.
(vii) Name three types of receptor in human skin that respond to touch or pressure.

3A
Part A · Structured

Five invertebrates, A–E, have the following external features.
A – dorsoventrally flattened, bilateral body with eye spots
B – cylindrical, radially symmetrical body with tentacles surrounding the mouth
C – cylindrical, bilateral, segmented body bearing many setae and no clitellum
D – cylindrical, bilateral, segmented body with a clitellum
E – bell- or umbrella-shaped, radially symmetrical body with tentacles fringing its margin
(i) Build a four-couplet dichotomous key that separates A–E, using body symmetry, body shape, the position of the tentacles and the presence of a clitellum.
(ii) Name the class to which each of A–E belongs.

3B
Part A · Structured

(i) Name the parts seen in a longitudinal section of a mature, unfertilised angiosperm ovule, including the contents of the embryo sac.
(ii) Describe what each main part of the ovary becomes after fertilisation.

3C
Part A · Structured

A student drew the elements of the two vascular tissues of an angiosperm, P and Q, and labelled them A–J. The labels were: A – perforated end wall between two vessel members; B – pits on the side wall of a vessel member; C – the vessel member itself; D – pits on an elongated, tapering water-conducting cell; E – a thick-walled supporting fibre in P; F – a perforated cross wall between conducting cells in Q; G – a small nucleated cell lying beside a conducting cell in Q; H – the enucleate conducting cell in Q; I – pore-bearing areas on the side walls of the conducting cell in Q; J – a thick-walled supporting fibre in Q.
(i) Name the tissues P and Q.
(ii) Give the correct biological name of each of the elements A–J.

4A
Part A · Structured

(i) Define an ecosystem.
(ii) Name the main biotic components of an ecosystem.
(iii) Describe how these biotic components are linked to each other.
(iv) Define the term ecological niche.
(v) (a) Explain what is meant by gross primary productivity (GPP).
(b) Name the main primary producers in (1) the open ocean and (2) a montane patana grassland.

4B
Part A · Structured

(i) Define a biome.
(ii) Name three major terrestrial biomes of the tropical regions.
(iii) Which terrestrial biome covers the largest area of the Earth?
(iv) Define a keystone species.
(v) Explain the idea of a flagship species in conservation.

4C
Part A · Structured

(i) Define global warming.
(ii) (a) List five atmospheric gases that contribute to global warming.
(b) Explain how these gases cause the Earth's surface to warm.
(iii) Explain what an invasive species is, giving an example.
(iv) Describe the ways in which agricultural practices lead to loss of biodiversity.

5a
Part B · Essay15 marks

Describe the chemical composition of proteins and explain how their structure is organised at its different levels.

5b
Part B · Essay15 marks

Explain how DNA and each type of RNA contribute to the synthesis of a protein.

6
Part B · Essay15 marks

(a) Describe the position of the kidneys in the human body.
(b) Describe the microscopic structure of a human nephron.
(c) Explain how the kidney helps to keep the osmotic pressure of the blood constant.

7
Part B · Essay15 marks

(a) Describe the kinds of microorganism found in soil and how they are distributed.
(b) Discuss how soil microorganisms take part in the carbon cycle and the nitrogen cycle.
(c) Explain how interactions between soil microorganisms and plants affect plant growth.

8
Part B · Essay15 marks

(a) State the general characteristics of plant growth substances.
(b) Name the main groups of plant growth substances and the sites where each is produced.
(c) Discuss how naturally occurring growth substances control the growth and development of plants.

9
Part B · Essay15 marks

(a) Name the four main types of natural forest ecosystem in Sri Lanka.
(b) For each type, describe its distribution, its rainfall pattern and the main features of its vegetation.

10a
Part B · Essay15 marks

Write a short note on the structure and functions of the human pancreas.

10b
Part B · Essay15 marks

Write a short note on biodiversity hotspots, with reference to Sri Lanka.

10c
Part B · Essay15 marks

Write a short note on how stomata open and close.

2016 · Answers & reviewsMEDVision answers

Answer key — this booklet

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Answer key — original 2016 paper (MEDVision model answers)

For students working from the original paper. Shaded cells: check against the official marking scheme (amber = likely, red = disputed).

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Paper I — reviews

1
Answer 2 Glyoxysomes are specialised microbodies in fat-storing seeds that hold the glyoxylate-cycle enzymes turning fatty acids into sugar precursors. Trap: leaf peroxisomes are related microbodies but function in photorespiration, not fat-to-sugar conversion.
2
Answer 2 Bacteria have peptidoglycan walls, but archaea (and wall-less mycoplasmas) lack it, so peptidoglycan is not universal. Trap: prokaryotes include many autotrophs, only some fix N₂, and all have 70S ribosomes.
3
Answer 1 By Chargaff's rule C = G = 18%, so G + C = 36% and A + T = 64%, giving A = T = 32%. Trap: 36% is G + C, and 64% is A + T combined, not adenine alone.
4
Answer 3 Glycolate oxidation in photorespiration takes place in leaf peroxisomes (with chloroplasts and mitochondria); glyoxysomes convert fats to sugars in seeds. Trap: both are microbodies, so the names are easily swapped.
5
Answer 2 Glycolysis is shared by alcoholic fermentation, lactic acid fermentation and aerobic respiration. Trap: the link reaction, Krebs cycle and electron transport chain need oxygen and take place only in aerobic respiration.
6
Answer 4 C₄ plants concentrate CO₂ around Rubisco in the bundle-sheath cells, which suppresses photorespiration, so their yield is usually higher than that of C₃ plants under these conditions. Trap: the statement reverses the real advantage.
7
Answer 2 Cycas is heterosporous, the leafy Pogonatum gametophyte photosynthesises, Selaginella has no seeds and Marchantia has a thalloid gametophyte. Traps: Pinus gametophytes are not photosynthetic, Lycopodium and Nephrolepis are homosporous, and Pogonatum's gametophyte is leafy, not thalloid.
8
Answer 1 Haeckel introduced the term phylum in 1866. Trap: Linnaeus set up binomial nomenclature and the original ranks but not phylum; Whittaker proposed five kingdoms and Woese proposed three domains.
9
Answer 3 Fungi and animals store glycogen, so Ascomycota and Mollusca both qualify. Trap: green algae, bryophytes and cycads store starch, brown algae store laminarin and Chrysophyta store chrysolaminarin, so each distractor contains one non-glycogen group.
10
Answer 3 Centipedes (Chilopoda) have one pair of antennae and one pair of legs per segment. Trap: millipedes (Diplopoda) have two pairs per diplosegment, arachnids lack antennae, crustaceans have two pairs of antennae, and insects carry legs only on the thorax.
11
Answer 4 B₁₂ and folate are needed for DNA synthesis in developing red cells (megaloblastic anaemia), and B₆ is needed for haem synthesis. Trap: thiamin, niacin, riboflavin and pantothenate deficiencies cause beriberi, pellagra and other syndromes, not anaemia.
12
Answer 3 Inspiration is active: the diaphragm and external intercostals enlarge the thorax, lung pressure falls and air flows in. Traps: the right lung has three lobes, gas exchange is by passive diffusion, the trachea has ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium, and quiet expiration is passive.
13
Answer 1 About 70% of CO₂ travels as hydrogencarbonate ions in the plasma, and only about 20–23% as carbaminohaemoglobin. Trap: haemoglobin does carry some CO₂, but not most of it.
14
Answer 3 Chordae tendineae are fibrous cords that tie the AV valve cusps to the papillary muscles, which stops the valves turning inside out. Trap: they sit inside the ventricles near the conducting fibres but carry no impulses.
15
Answer 3 In the dark the stomata close and transpiration falls, so root pressure pushes xylem sap out of the hydathodes as droplets (guttation). Trap: water and mineral uptake and the transpiration pull all decrease when transpiration falls.
16
Answer 5 Sap passes from one sieve tube element to the next through the pores of the sieve plates, which is a living symplastic route. Trap: the apoplast can be used during loading, but it is not the route along the sieve tube.
17
Answer 3 GH is lipolytic: it mobilises stored fat so that fatty acids are used as fuel. Trap: it is anabolic for protein and bone, so students wrongly assume it builds fat as well.
18
Answer 4 The reflex centres for coughing, sneezing, swallowing and vomiting are in the medulla oblongata. Trap: the pons does hold a respiratory (pneumotaxic) centre, which makes the error look plausible.
19
Answer 4 After depolarisation, K⁺ efflux repolarises the membrane, and only then is there a brief hyperpolarisation (undershoot). Trap: the undershoot is real, but it follows repolarisation and does not replace it.
20
Answer 2 Undigested cellulose never entered body cells or metabolism, so removing it is egestion, not excretion. Trap: faeces do contain bile pigments, which are true excretory products.
21
Answer 3 Smooth muscle contracts slowly and resists fatigue, which suits sustained tone in the gut and blood vessels. Trap: rapid contraction and fatigue are features of skeletal muscle.
22
Answer 1 In the sliding filament model the filaments do not change length: the A band (the length of the thick filaments) stays constant while the I band and H zone narrow. Trap: students assume every band shortens.
23
Answer 2 The glenoid cavity is at the lateral angle of the scapula, facing the humerus. Trap: the medial border faces the vertebral column, so a joint for the arm cannot sit there.
24
Answer 3 The femur runs obliquely, sloping medially from the hip to the knee so that the knees lie under the body's centre of gravity. Trap: the remaining statements are easily remembered facts, which makes the incorrect one easy to miss.
25
Answer 4 Seminal vesicle fluid supplies fructose (with prostaglandins and vitamin C) as the energy source for sperm. Trap: glucose is wrongly substituted for fructose.
26
Answer 3 The prostate is a single gland surrounding the urethra below the bladder. Trap: Cowper's glands, epididymides, seminal vesicles, vasa deferentia and ejaculatory ducts are all paired.
27
Answer 3 Auxin from the young leaf blade keeps the abscission zone insensitive to ethylene. When the auxin supply falls, the leaf is shed. Trap: ethylene and ABA promote abscission rather than preventing it.
28
Answer 2 The heterozygote has a blended intermediate phenotype, and the 1 : 2 : 1 phenotypic ratio matches the genotypic ratio, which shows incomplete dominance. Trap: in co-dominance both parental phenotypes appear together (as in the AB blood group); there is no blending.
29
Answer 1 The mRNA codon is complementary to the template (GTA → CAU), and the anticodon is complementary to the codon (CAU → GUA). Trap: thymine never occurs in RNA, so any option containing T is wrong.
30
Answer 4 A dihybrid F₂ gives a 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio, so the double-dominant class is 9/16 × 160 = 90. Trap: 30 is the number of a single-recessive class (3/16), and 10 is the number of the double-recessive class.
31
Answer 5 The woman must be a carrier (XᴴXʰ). Crossing with XʰY gives XᴴXʰ, XʰXʰ, XᴴY and XʰY in equal proportions, so carrier daughters and normal sons make up half the children. Trap: half of the sons and half of the daughters are affected, not all of them.
32
Answer 4 Conifers arose in the late Palaeozoic (Carboniferous to Permian) and dominated Mesozoic forests. Trap: students link conifers with the Mesozoic 'age of gymnosperms' and forget that the group originated earlier.
33
Answer 2 Near the equator the input of solar radiation is almost constant all year, so temperature stays close to 25–28 °C. Trap: deserts are tropical too, but they have a very large daily temperature range.
34
Answer 4 Plants take up phosphorus as H₂PO₄⁻ (and HPO₄²⁻) from the soil solution. Traps: the main reservoir is sedimentary rock, the cycle has no significant atmospheric phase, and mining and fertilisers alter it strongly.
35
Answer 2 The toque macaque (Macaca sinica) and the red slender loris (Loris tardigradus) are endemic. Annona glabra is the only invasive species, and the green turtle and the elephant are threatened but not extinct in the wild. Trap: both the turtle and the elephant occur in Sri Lanka, but neither is endemic.
36
Answer 1 Endotoxins are the LPS of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria such as Salmonella Typhi. Trap: the Gram-positive organisms listed cause food poisoning through secreted exotoxins.
37
Answer 5 Prions contain no nucleic acid. They propagate by making normal proteins misfold. Trap: students assume that every infectious agent must carry genetic material.
38
Answer 4 Hepatitis B vaccine is the surface antigen (HBsAg) expressed in genetically modified yeast. Trap: a toxoid, an attenuated strain or an inactivated virus is not genetically engineered.
39
Answer 1 Nitrosomonas carries out the first step of nitrification, oxidising ammonium to nitrite. Trap: the second step, nitrite → nitrate, is carried out by Nitrobacter.
40
Answer 3 T. ferrooxidans oxidises Fe²⁺ and sulphides, which produces acid ferric conditions that dissolve metals out of the ore. Trap: the other organisms are used as a biopesticide, for antibiotic production, in dairy fermentation and in brewing.
41
Answer 2 As electrons pass from NADH to O₂, NAD⁺ is regenerated, O₂ is reduced to water and chemiosmosis makes ATP. Trap: CO₂ is released in the link reaction and the Krebs cycle, and pyruvate comes from glycolysis.
42
Answer 3 Inulin is a fructose polymer, chitin is made of N-acetylglucosamine and pectin is mainly galacturonic acid. Trap: chitin's monomer is a glucose derivative, not glucose itself, while amylopectin and cellulose are true glucose polymers.
43
Answer 3 Fish and many molluscs have gills, vertebrates and cephalopods have camera eyes, and mammals and cephalopods (and many snails) fertilise internally. Trap: the radula is found only in molluscs and the notochord only in chordates.
44
Answer 1 Purple sulphur bacteria photosynthesise using H₂S, Rhizopus feeds on dead matter and Nitrosomonas oxidises ammonium for energy. Trap: Cuscuta is a parasite, and Nepenthes is a photosynthetic insectivorous plant, not a holozoic one.
45
Answer 2 The pump is an ATPase in the axon's own plasma membrane that exchanges 3 Na⁺ out for 2 K⁺ in, keeping the gradients that set the resting potential. Trap: the pump is not in the Schwann-cell sheath, and it moves K⁺ inward.
46
Answer 5 ADH and the osmoreceptors that control it set water reabsorption, sweating in hot conditions reduces urine, and fluid intake and GFR change the filtered load. Trap: students often leave out B and D, but both alter urine volume.
47
Answer 5 All five statements are correct: the human placenta is chorio-allantoic and endocrine, keeps the two circulations separate, transfers IgG (passive immunity) and exchanges water both ways. Trap: 'prevents mixing of blood' is wrongly taken to mean that nothing crosses.
48
Answer 2 Fertilisation normally takes place in the ampulla of the oviduct, and the endometrium has a simple columnar epithelium. Trap: B, D and E are correct statements about the myometrium and its hormonal control.
49
Answer 3 Ferns and lycophytes lack seeds, seed plants lack free-living photosynthetic gametophytes, and many lycophytes and ferns are homosporous. Trap: vascular tissue and a dominant sporophyte define every tracheophyte phylum.
50
Answer 1 A, C and D are standard definitions. Traps: a test cross uses a homozygous recessive individual, and homozygous means two identical alleles.

Paper II — marking points

1A
  1. Macromolecules: large polymers (MW >~1000) built from many monomer units linked covalently by condensation
  2. Three types: carbohydrates (polysaccharides), proteins, nucleic acids
  3. Sugarcane: sucrose = glucose + fructose
  4. Germinating seeds: maltose = glucose + glucose
  5. Monosaccharide in NAD and ATP: ribose (a pentose)
  6. Lipids are insoluble in water but soluble in organic solvents (non-polar/hydrophobic)
  7. Lipids are not true polymers; they have relatively high H:O ratio (less oxygen), giving high energy yield
  8. Types: triglycerides (fats/oils), phospholipids, steroids, waxes, glycolipids (also carotenoids/terpenes)
1B
  1. Mutation: sudden, random, heritable change in genetic material (gene/DNA sequence or chromosome structure/number)
  2. Source of new alleles/genetic variation - raw material of evolution
  3. Natural selection acts on that variation; favourable mutations increase in frequency, leading to adaptation and speciation
  4. Sickle-cell anaemia - gene (point) mutation: base substitution (Glu→Val in β-globin)
  5. Thalassaemia - gene mutation
  6. Haemophilia / colour blindness - X-linked gene mutation
  7. Down syndrome - chromosomal mutation: aneuploidy, trisomy 21
  8. Klinefelter (XXY) / Turner (XO) syndromes - chromosomal aneuploidy (sex chromosomes)
1C
  1. BOD: amount of dissolved O₂ consumed by microorganisms to oxidise organic matter in a water sample over 5 days at 20 °C (mg/L)
  2. High-BOD waste: microbial decomposition depletes dissolved O₂ → hypoxia/anoxia, death of fish and aerobic organisms
  3. Anaerobic decomposition produces foul gases (H₂S, CH₄, NH₃), loss of biodiversity, eutrophication
  4. Oxidation methods: activated sludge process; trickling (percolating) filters; oxidation ponds/aerated lagoons
  5. Open dumping: leachate contaminates ground and surface water; foul odour; breeding of vectors (mosquitoes, flies, rats) → dengue, leptospirosis
  6. Greenhouse gas (methane) emission, fire hazards, landslides of garbage (e.g. Meethotamulla), aesthetic loss and land degradation
  7. Minimisation: reduce, reuse, recycle (3R); source separation
  8. Composting of biodegradable waste; biogas production; sanitary landfilling; incineration/energy recovery
2A
  1. Homeostasis: maintenance of a relatively constant internal environment (tissue fluid) within narrow limits despite external changes
  2. Regulated factors: body temperature, blood glucose, blood osmotic pressure/water content, blood pH, blood pressure, O₂/CO₂ levels
  3. Advantages: optimum conditions for enzyme activity; organisms become independent of external fluctuations and can occupy varied habitats
  4. Disadvantage: high energy expenditure (e.g. endothermy requires much food/ATP)
  5. Liver roles: blood glucose regulation (glycogenesis/glycogenolysis/gluconeogenesis); deamination and urea formation; detoxification of drugs/alcohol/hormones
  6. Liver roles: heat production; plasma protein synthesis (osmotic balance); cholesterol and lipid regulation; storage of vitamins and iron
  7. Positive feedback: oxytocin-driven uterine contractions during childbirth; milk ejection reflex during suckling; blood clotting cascade; LH surge before ovulation
2B
  1. Lactation: secretion and ejection of milk by the mammary glands after childbirth
  2. Most abundant component of human milk: water
  3. Placental hormones acting on breast: oestrogen, progesterone (also human placental lactogen)
  4. Colostrum components: antibodies (IgA), proteins, leucocytes, lactoferrin, vitamin A, minerals (low fat)
  5. Oxytocin: contracts myoepithelial cells around alveoli → milk ejection (let-down) reflex on suckling
  6. Hormones inhibiting milk production: oestrogen and progesterone (high levels); also dopamine (PIH)
  7. Advantages: ideal nutrition, easily digested; passive immunity reduces infections
  8. Advantages: mother–child bonding; hygienic, free, right temperature; uterine involution; lactational contraception; lower breast/ovarian cancer risk
2C
  1. Functions: sensory input (detect stimuli), integration (process/interpret), motor output (response by effectors)
  2. Double ventral nerve cords: Platyhelminthes, Annelida, Arthropoda (any two)
  3. Radial nerves: Echinodermata
  4. Nervous regulation is faster and more precise/localised; effects are short-lived and quickly stopped
  5. Receptor: cell or structure that detects a stimulus and transduces it into nerve impulses (generator potential)
  6. Features: specificity to one type of stimulus; transduction of stimulus energy; amplification; adaptation; threshold sensitivity
  7. Touch receptors: Meissner's corpuscles, Merkel's discs, Pacinian corpuscles, free nerve endings / hair root plexus
3A
  1. (1) Bilaterally symmetrical → go to 2; radially symmetrical → go to 3
  2. (2) Flattened → A; cylindrical → go to 4
  3. (3) Tentacles around edge → E; tentacles around mouth → B
  4. (4) Clitellum present → D; clitellum absent → C
  5. A: Turbellaria (planarian, Platyhelminthes)
  6. B: Hydrozoa (Hydra) (or Anthozoa if sea anemone)
  7. C: Polychaeta (numerous setae, no clitellum - Nereis)
  8. D: Oligochaeta (earthworm) / Clitellata
  9. E: Scyphozoa (jellyfish, Aurelia)
3B
  1. Ovule parts: funicle, hilum, chalaza, outer integument, inner integument, micropyle, nucellus, embryo sac
  2. Embryo sac contents: egg cell, two synergids, three antipodal cells, central cell with two polar nuclei (or secondary nucleus)
  3. Ovary wall → pericarp (fruit wall)
  4. Ovule → seed; integuments → testa and tegmen
  5. Zygote → embryo; primary endosperm nucleus → endosperm
  6. Micropyle → micropyle of seed; funicle → stalk/hilum scar
  7. Nucellus usually absorbed (may persist as perisperm); synergids and antipodals degenerate
  8. Style, stigma (and other floral parts) wither
3C
  1. P: xylem; Q: phloem
  2. A: perforation plate (end wall perforation of vessel element)
  3. B: pits (bordered pits) on the vessel wall
  4. C: vessel element (vessel member)
  5. D: pits of a tracheid
  6. E: xylem fibre
  7. F: sieve plate
  8. G: companion cell
  9. H: sieve tube element (sieve tube member)
  10. I: sieve areas / sieve pores (lateral plasmodesmata connections)
  11. J: phloem fibre
4A
  1. Ecosystem: a community of organisms interacting with each other and with their abiotic environment, with energy flow and nutrient cycling
  2. Biotic components: producers, consumers (primary, secondary, tertiary), decomposers/detritivores
  3. Connected through feeding relationships - food chains and food webs - transferring energy and nutrients; also symbiosis, competition, predation
  4. Ecological niche: the total role of a species in its ecosystem - its use of biotic and abiotic resources, habitat, and interactions
  5. GPP: total rate at which producers convert light energy into chemical energy (organic matter) by photosynthesis per unit area per unit time
  6. Ocean: phytoplankton
  7. Patana: grasses (e.g. Cymbopogon, Themeda)
4B
  1. Biome: major regional ecosystem type characterised by climate (temperature, rainfall) and dominant vegetation, with associated animals
  2. Tropical terrestrial biomes: tropical (rain) forest, savanna, desert
  3. Largest terrestrial biome: taiga (northern coniferous forest)
  4. Keystone species: a species whose impact on community structure is disproportionately large relative to its abundance; its removal greatly alters the community (e.g. elephant, sea otter)
  5. Flagship species: a charismatic, popular species chosen as a symbol to attract public support and funding for conservation
  6. Protecting the flagship species indirectly conserves its habitat and many other species (e.g. Asian elephant, leopard, tiger, panda)
4C
  1. Global warming: gradual increase in mean global surface temperature due to enhanced greenhouse effect
  2. Gases: CO₂, CH₄, N₂O, CFCs, water vapour (also tropospheric O₃)
  3. Short-wave solar radiation passes through; Earth re-emits long-wave infrared radiation
  4. Greenhouse gases absorb and re-radiate IR back to Earth, trapping heat; rising concentrations enhance this effect
  5. Invasive species: non-native (alien) species introduced to a new area that establishes, spreads rapidly and harms native biodiversity, economy or health (e.g. Lantana, water hyacinth)
  6. Agriculture: habitat destruction/clearing of forests and fragmentation
  7. Monoculture and loss of traditional crop varieties (genetic erosion)
  8. Agrochemicals (pesticides, fertilisers) kill non-target species and cause eutrophication; introduction of invasive/exotic species; soil erosion
5a
  1. Proteins contain C, H, O, N, often S (and sometimes P)
  2. Polymers of amino acids (20 kinds); macromolecules with high molecular weight
  3. Amino acid: central α-carbon with amino group, carboxyl group, H atom and variable R group
  4. Amino acids join by peptide bonds through condensation to form polypeptides
  5. Primary structure: specific linear sequence of amino acids, determined by genes
  6. Secondary structure: α-helix and β-pleated sheet stabilised by hydrogen bonds between backbone groups
  7. Tertiary structure: 3D folding due to R-group interactions - hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, disulfide bridges, hydrophobic interactions
  8. Quaternary structure: association of two or more polypeptides (e.g. haemoglobin)
  9. Globular (soluble, functional, e.g. enzymes) and fibrous (structural, e.g. keratin, collagen) proteins
  10. Denatured by heat, pH, heavy metals - loss of 3D shape and function
5b
  1. DNA carries genetic information as a sequence of base triplets (genetic code) determining amino acid sequence
  2. Transcription: RNA polymerase uses the DNA template strand to synthesise complementary mRNA
  3. In eukaryotes pre-mRNA is processed (capping, poly-A tail, splicing of introns) and leaves the nucleus
  4. mRNA carries codons from nucleus to ribosomes in cytoplasm; start codon AUG, stop codons UAA/UAG/UGA
  5. rRNA with proteins forms ribosomes (large and small subunits); provides sites (A, P, E) and peptidyl transferase activity forming peptide bonds
  6. tRNA carries specific amino acids (activated by aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase and ATP) to ribosome
  7. tRNA anticodon pairs with complementary mRNA codon, ensuring correct order of amino acids
  8. Translation: initiation, elongation, termination; polypeptide released and folds
6
  1. Kidneys: paired, bean-shaped, on posterior abdominal wall either side of vertebral column, retroperitoneal, between T12 and L3
  2. Right kidney slightly lower than left (due to liver); embedded in fat; adrenal glands on top
  3. Nephron: Bowman's capsule (double-walled cup; inner podocytes) enclosing glomerulus = renal (Malpighian) corpuscle in cortex
  4. Afferent arteriole wider than efferent arteriole - high glomerular pressure for ultrafiltration
  5. Proximal convoluted tubule: cuboidal cells with microvilli (brush border) and many mitochondria
  6. Loop of Henle: thin descending limb (squamous) and thick ascending limb, in medulla
  7. Distal convoluted tubule in cortex, cuboidal cells with fewer microvilli, opens to collecting duct
  8. Peritubular capillaries and vasa recta surround tubules
  9. Osmoreceptors in hypothalamus detect rise in blood osmotic pressure (dehydration)
  10. Posterior pituitary releases more ADH; ADH increases permeability of DCT and collecting duct (aquaporins)
  11. More water reabsorbed into hypertonic medulla (maintained by countercurrent multiplier of loop of Henle) → small volume of concentrated urine
  12. Low osmotic pressure → less ADH → dilute, copious urine
  13. Aldosterone (renin–angiotensin) increases Na⁺ reabsorption in DCT, with water following; ANP reduces it
7
  1. Soil microbes: bacteria (most numerous), actinomycetes, fungi, algae/cyanobacteria, protozoa, viruses
  2. Most abundant in top soil (A horizon), decreasing with depth; concentrated in rhizosphere around roots
  3. Distribution depends on organic matter, moisture, aeration, pH, temperature; aerobes near surface, anaerobes in waterlogged/deeper soil
  4. Carbon cycle: photosynthetic microbes (algae, cyanobacteria) fix CO₂; decomposers (bacteria, fungi) break down dead organic matter releasing CO₂ by respiration
  5. Methanogens produce CH₄ anaerobically; methanotrophs oxidise CH₄
  6. Nitrogen fixation: free-living (Azotobacter, Clostridium, cyanobacteria e.g. Nostoc/Anabaena) and symbiotic (Rhizobium, Frankia) reduce N₂ to NH₃
  7. Ammonification: decomposers convert proteins/urea to NH₄⁺
  8. Nitrification: Nitrosomonas (NH₄⁺→NO₂⁻), Nitrobacter (NO₂⁻→NO₃⁻)
  9. Denitrification: Pseudomonas, Thiobacillus denitrificans convert NO₃⁻ to N₂ under anaerobic conditions
  10. Interactions: Rhizobium–legume nodules supply fixed N
  11. Mycorrhizae increase phosphate and water absorption
  12. Decomposition releases mineral nutrients and forms humus, improving soil structure
  13. Some produce growth substances; antagonists/antibiotic producers suppress pathogens; some microbes are plant pathogens
8
  1. Organic substances produced in very small amounts; act at low concentrations
  2. Produced in one part and often transported to act elsewhere (or act locally)
  3. Effects depend on concentration, tissue and interactions (synergism/antagonism); one substance can have multiple effects
  4. Auxins (IAA): shoot apical meristems, young leaves, developing seeds
  5. Gibberellins: young leaves, apical buds, root tips, developing seeds/embryo
  6. Cytokinins: root tips (apices), developing fruits/seeds
  7. Abscisic acid: mature leaves, root cap, fruits, seeds (esp. under stress)
  8. Ethylene: ripening fruits, senescent tissues, nodes
  9. Auxin: cell elongation, phototropism/gravitropism, apical dominance, root initiation, parthenocarpy, prevents abscission, xylem differentiation
  10. Gibberellins: stem elongation, seed germination (α-amylase induction), bolting/flowering, fruit growth
  11. Cytokinins: cell division, delay of senescence, lateral bud growth (with auxin ratio controls shoot/root formation)
  12. ABA: stomatal closure under water stress, seed and bud dormancy, growth inhibition
  13. Ethylene: fruit ripening, leaf/fruit abscission, triple response, senescence
9
  1. Four types: tropical wet evergreen (lowland rain) forest, tropical montane forest, tropical moist evergreen (moist monsoon) forest, tropical dry mixed evergreen (dry monsoon) forest
  2. Lowland rain forest: wet zone below ~1000 m (e.g. Sinharaja, Kanneliya); rainfall >2500 mm, evenly distributed
  3. Lowland rain forest vegetation: tall evergreen trees, 4–5 layered canopy, emergents, high endemism (Dipterocarpus, Shorea), lianas and epiphytes
  4. Montane forest: central highlands >1500 m (Horton Plains, Knuckles, Peak Wilderness); rainfall ~2000–5000 mm, low temperature, mist
  5. Montane vegetation: stunted trees with flat umbrella-like crowns, small leathery leaves, one/two layers, abundant mosses, lichens, ferns; Calophyllum, Syzygium, Rhododendron
  6. Moist monsoon forest: intermediate zone; rainfall ~1900–2500 mm with a short dry season
  7. Moist monsoon vegetation: semi-evergreen, some deciduous species, canopy lower than rain forest
  8. Dry monsoon forest: dry zone lowlands; rainfall ~1250–1900 mm, mainly NE monsoon, long dry season
  9. Dry monsoon vegetation: semi-deciduous trees, lower canopy (~20 m), thorny shrubs; Manilkara (palu), Chloroxylon (burutha), Diospyros (ebony)
10a
  1. Elongated gland behind the stomach in the curve of the duodenum; head, body and tail
  2. Mixed gland: exocrine (acini) and endocrine (islets of Langerhans)
  3. Exocrine pancreatic juice enters duodenum via pancreatic duct (with common bile duct, ampulla of Vater)
  4. Juice alkaline (HCO₃⁻) neutralises acid chyme; enzymes: trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, carboxypeptidase, pancreatic amylase, lipase, nucleases
  5. Secretion controlled by secretin (bicarbonate) and CCK (enzymes) and vagus
  6. Islets: α cells – glucagon (raises blood glucose); β cells – insulin (lowers blood glucose); δ cells – somatostatin
  7. Disorders: diabetes mellitus (insulin deficiency/resistance), pancreatitis
10b
  1. Regions with exceptionally high species richness and endemism that are under severe threat
  2. Criteria (Myers/Conservation International): ≥1500 endemic vascular plant species and ≥70% of original habitat lost
  3. 36 recognised globally (34–36); cover ~2.4% of land surface but hold ~50% of plant species and ~43% of terrestrial vertebrates as endemics
  4. Sri Lanka with Western Ghats forms one hotspot
  5. In Sri Lanka high endemism in wet zone forests (e.g. Sinharaja), many endemic amphibians, reptiles, fish, plants
  6. Prioritise conservation funding and action where most species can be saved
10c
  1. Stoma bounded by two guard cells with thick inner and thin outer walls and radially arranged cellulose microfibrils
  2. Opening: light activates blue-light receptors; H⁺-ATPase pumps H⁺ out of guard cells
  3. K⁺ (and Cl⁻) enter guard cells; malate formed from starch → water potential falls
  4. Water enters by osmosis, guard cells become turgid and bow outward → pore opens
  5. Low internal CO₂ (photosynthesis) promotes opening; circadian rhythm also involved
  6. Closure: in darkness or water stress, ABA from roots/leaves triggers K⁺ efflux
  7. Guard cells lose water, become flaccid and pore closes; high CO₂ and high temperature also cause closure
  8. (Older starch–sugar hypothesis: light raises pH, starch→glucose phosphate, lowering water potential)

Scan notes: All 50 MCQs and all Paper II questions present and readable. Q3C diagram read from page image. Debatable keys: Q19 (two arguably incorrect statements; 3 chosen), Q23 (coronoid/coracoid wording), Q45 (neurilemma meaning), Q50 (locus/allele wording - 2 vs 5).

2017

G.C.E. (Advanced Level) — Biology

Old syllabus (pre-2019) · Re-set practice paper

Paper I50 MCQs · 2 hoursAnswer all. Choose the one correct or most suitable option.
Paper II23 parts in this booklet · 3 hoursPart A: answer all structured questions. Part B: answer four essays.

Every question tests the same concept as question of the same number in the 2017 paper, re-written by MEDVision. Source coverage: Paper I + full Paper II.

2017 · Paper IMultiple choice
1.

Zinc, copper, manganese and molybdenum are needed by organisms only in minute amounts. Their most important general function is to serve as

  1. 1structural units of cell membranes and walls.
  2. 2activators or cofactors that enable enzymes to work.
  3. 3building blocks of steroid hormones.
  4. 4the central atom of photosynthetic pigments.
  5. 5substrates consumed in respiratory pathways.
U2 · Biomolecules & water
2.

Apart from the nucleus, which pair of eukaryotic organelles carries its own DNA?

  1. 1Golgi apparatus and lysosomes
  2. 2Ribosomes and centrosomes
  3. 3Chloroplasts and mitochondria
  4. 4Peroxisomes and nucleolus
  5. 5Rough ER and vacuoles
U2 · Cell organelles & structure
3.

A student lists roles of epithelia lining body surfaces and cavities. Which role below should NOT be on the list?

  1. 1Absorbing digested food
  2. 2Forming glandular secretions
  3. 3Giving mechanical support to body organs
  4. 4Guarding underlying tissues from injury
  5. 5Moving substances across a surface
U5 · Animal tissues
4.

Complete aerobic oxidation of one molecule of which of the following would release the most ATP for a cell?

  1. 1Pyruvate
  2. 2Malate
  3. 3One NADH molecule
  4. 4Lactose
  5. 5Isocitrate
U2 · Cellular respiration & fermentation
5.

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum performs many roles in liver and muscle cells. Which process is NOT carried out by it?

  1. 1Forming phospholipids and steroids
  2. 2Assembling amino acids into polypeptides
  3. 3Sequestering calcium ions
  4. 4Detoxifying drugs
  5. 5Metabolising glycogen-related carbohydrates
U2 · Cell organelles & structure
6.

Which of the following events in a green leaf is NOT part of the light-dependent stage of photosynthesis?

  1. 1Splitting of water at photosystem II
  2. 2Excitation and loss of electrons from P680 and P700
  3. 3ATP generation by cyclic electron flow
  4. 4Uptake of O₂ by RuBisCO and release of CO₂ via glycolate metabolism
  5. 5ATP and NADPH generation by non-cyclic electron flow
U2 · Photosynthesis
7.

Which match of junction type, a tissue where it is typical, and its role is correct?

  1. 1Gap junction – intestinal lining – sealing gaps between cells
  2. 2Desmosome – epidermis – sealing the intercellular space
  3. 3Tight junction – intestinal lining – stopping fluid leaking between cells
  4. 4Tight junction – cardiac muscle – passing ions between cells
  5. 5Desmosome – epidermis – allowing cytoplasmic exchange
U2 · Cell organelles & structure
8.

Membrane lipids with branched hydrocarbon chains joined by ether links are a hallmark of one domain. Which list includes a genus from that domain?

  1. 1Nostoc, Methanobacterium, Pinus and Pleurotus
  2. 2Bacillus, Taenia, Mangifera and Streptococcus
  3. 3Escherichia, Penicillium, Cocos and Ascaris
  4. 4Rhizobium, Rattus, Mucor and Gracilaria
  5. 5Vibrio, Aspergillus, Nitrobacter and Areca
U3 · Prokaryotes, protists & fungi
9.

An animal shows internal fertilisation, a ring of nervous tissue around the gut, and direct development with no larva. It is most likely

  1. 1Nereis.
  2. 2a honeybee.
  3. 3Pheretima.
  4. 4Planaria.
  5. 5a tick (Arachnida).
U3 · Animal diversity
10.

For a key separating a crab, a centipede, a millipede, a housefly and a scorpion, which character would be the LEAST useful?

  1. 1Presence of a jointed chitinous exoskeleton
  2. 2Number of pairs of antennae
  3. 3Type of eyes
  4. 4Presence or absence of wings
  5. 5Number of walking legs per segment or body
U3 · Animal diversity
11.

Which genus obtains its carbon from CO₂ and its energy from oxidising inorganic compounds, so is NOT heterotrophic?

  1. 1Trypanosoma
  2. 2Nitrobacter
  3. 3Lentinus
  4. 4Macaca
  5. 5Labeo
U3 · Prokaryotes, protists & fungi
12.

Which digestive enzyme is listed as a component of BOTH pancreatic juice and intestinal juice (succus entericus)?

  1. 1Chymotrypsinogen
  2. 2Maltase
  3. 3Lipase
  4. 4Deoxyribonuclease
  5. 5Enterokinase
U5 · Digestion & nutrition
13.

While a person breathes in quietly, which event takes place?

  1. 1The diaphragm relaxes and domes upward
  2. 2The external intercostal muscles relax
  3. 3The sternum moves upward and forward
  4. 4Intrapleural pressure rises
  5. 5Tissue fluid floods into the alveoli
U5 · Gas exchange
14.

A biology class is studying factors that alter transpiration. Which factor would have the LEAST direct influence on the rate?

  1. 1Relative humidity of air
  2. 2Light intensity
  3. 3Air movement
  4. 4Particle size (texture) of the soil
  5. 5Amount of water available in the soil
U4 · Water relations & transport
15.

According to Münch's pressure-flow hypothesis, which statement about phloem translocation is correct?

  1. 1Sucrose loading at the source raises the water potential of sieve tubes
  2. 2Hydrostatic pressure is highest in sieve tubes at the sink
  3. 3Sap moves in bulk from source to sink down a gradient of pressure potential
  4. 4Loading of sucrose needs no metabolic energy
  5. 5Companion cells move sucrose into sieve tubes only by simple diffusion
U4 · Water relations & transport
16.

Which statement about cells in normal human blood is correct?

  1. 1Basophils are the largest leucocytes
  2. 2Only neutrophils are phagocytic
  3. 3Eosinophils help defend against parasitic worms
  4. 4Red cells make up about 80% of blood cells
  5. 5There are about 1.5–3.5 × 10⁶ lymphocytes per litre
U5 · Circulation & blood
17.

Which statement on circulatory systems of animals is correct?

  1. 1Starfish lack any circulatory system
  2. 2Cockroaches and flukes have open circulation
  3. 3Earthworms and bony fishes have closed circulation
  4. 4Crabs carry O₂ using chlorocruorin
  5. 5The AV node initiates each human heartbeat
U5 · Circulation & blood
18.

Which statement about the human brain is correct?

  1. 1The corpora quadrigemina form part of the hindbrain
  2. 2The cerebellum is the centre for coughing and sneezing
  3. 3The forebrain controls reflex movements of the eyeball
  4. 4The cerebral cortex is where pain is consciously perceived
  5. 5The pons is the main centre setting breathing rhythm
U5 · Nervous system
19.

Which statement about neurone physiology is INCORRECT?

  1. 1A resting neurone has a membrane potential near −70 mV
  2. 2The Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase helps maintain the resting potential
  3. 3An action potential lasts roughly 2 ms
  4. 4In myelinated fibres, impulses are generated only at nodes of Ranvier
  5. 5Repolarisation results from K⁺ ions entering the axon
U5 · Nervous system
20.

Which statement about the hormone calcitonin is INCORRECT?

  1. 1It is produced by the follicular cells that make thyroxine
  2. 2It reduces plasma calcium
  3. 3It favours deposition of calcium in bone
  4. 4It decreases calcium reabsorption in kidney tubules
  5. 5It acts antagonistically to parathormone
U5 · Endocrine system
21.

Which statement about human hormones is correct?

  1. 1Glucagon is secreted by β-cells of the pancreatic islets
  2. 2Aldosterone increases reabsorption of both Na⁺ and K⁺
  3. 3Thymosin promotes maturation of B lymphocytes
  4. 4Cholecystokinin acts mainly on the stomach and liver
  5. 5ADH makes the distal tubule and collecting duct more permeable to water
U5 · Endocrine system
22.

Which statement regarding excretion is INCORRECT?

  1. 1Excretion helps to keep the internal environment constant
  2. 2Excretion refers only to the elimination of nitrogen-containing wastes
  3. 3Bile pigments leave the human body via both urine and faeces
  4. 4Nephridia serve for excretion in annelids and some molluscs
  5. 5In mammals, ammonia is the first nitrogenous waste formed and is converted to urea
U5 · Excretion & osmoregulation
23.

Which statement about human vertebrae is correct?

  1. 1The axis carries a tooth-like process (dens) projecting upward from its body
  2. 2The atlas has a long, prominent spinous process
  3. 3Six vertebrae fuse to form the sacrum
  4. 4Thoracic vertebrae typically have bifid spines
  5. 5The lumbar vertebrae have the largest vertebral foramen
U5 · Skeleton, muscle & movement
24.

Which statement about the human menstrual cycle is correct?

  1. 1Progesterone reaches its peak only 1–2 days before bleeding starts
  2. 2The FSH peak is higher than the LH peak
  3. 3The proliferative and secretory phases are always of equal length
  4. 4Ovulation is triggered by a fall in LH
  5. 5Falling oestrogen and progesterone after corpus luteum regression bring on menstruation
U5 · Reproduction & development
25.

Which statement about the human uterine (Fallopian) tube is INCORRECT?

  1. 1Its outer end opens as a fimbriated funnel near the ovary
  2. 2It is lined by ciliated epithelium
  3. 3It conveys the oocyte towards the uterus
  4. 4Its secretions nourish gametes and the early embryo
  5. 5Fertilisation normally takes place in the narrow segment close to the uterus
U5 · Reproduction & development
26.

Which statement about the human epididymis is INCORRECT?

  1. 1It is a long, tightly coiled tube
  2. 2It links the testis with the vas deferens
  3. 3Sperms are stored in it until ejaculation
  4. 4Sperms gain motility and fertilising ability while passing through it
  5. 5Sperm hyperactivation takes place within it
U5 · Reproduction & development
27.

Which statement about human prenatal development or infant growth is correct?

  1. 1Fetal heartbeat can be detected by the end of the first trimester
  2. 2Lanugo hair covers the fetus by the end of the eighth week
  3. 3Babies usually sit unsupported at about three months
  4. 4Infants first begin to vocalise only after six months
  5. 5Infants should be on the full family diet by about seven months
U5 · Reproduction & development
28.

Petals of the water lily open in daylight and fold at dusk each day. This response is best described as

  1. 1phototropism.
  2. 2nyctinasty.
  3. 3chemotaxis.
  4. 4thigmonasty.
  5. 5geotropism.
U4 · Plant hormones & responses
29.

Which statement about plant tissue culture is INCORRECT?

  1. 1It means growing plant tissue in vitro on a sterile medium whose only added growth regulator is IAA
  2. 2Many plant cells are totipotent and can regenerate whole plants
  3. 3Leaf, stem or root pieces can serve as explants
  4. 4A callus is an undifferentiated mass of dividing cells
  5. 5It allows rapid production of many genetically identical plants in little space
U10 · Plant propagation & tissue culture
30.

Which vegetative structure is WRONGLY matched with the plant named?

  1. 1Stem tuber – Solanum tuberosum (potato)
  2. 2Corm – Colocasia
  3. 3Runner – Centella
  4. 4Rhizome – Solanum tuberosum (potato)
  5. 5Leaf (epiphyllous) buds – Bryophyllum
U4 · Plant reproduction & life cycles
31.

In recombinant DNA work, restriction endonucleases are used because they

  1. 1seal nicks between DNA fragments.
  2. 2cleave DNA at particular recognition sequences.
  3. 3extend a DNA strand by adding nucleotides.
  4. 4block translation of mRNA.
  5. 5cut DNA at random positions.
U7 · rDNA tools & techniques
32.

A pea plant carries two copies of the same allele (TT) for stem height. For this trait it is described as

  1. 1heterozygous.
  2. 2hemizygous.
  3. 3homozygous.
  4. 4polygenic.
  5. 5codominant.
U6 · Mendelian inheritance
33.

Which statement best expresses why meiosis has been advantageous in evolution?

  1. 1It keeps chromosome number constant from parent to offspring
  2. 2It is required before gametes can form
  3. 3It ensures offspring inherit exactly the parental gene combinations
  4. 4It produces new combinations of alleles on which selection can act
  5. 5It alternates regularly with mitosis in life cycles
U2 · Cell cycle, mitosis & meiosis
34.

In a home-garden food web, grass is eaten by insect D and by organism C. Insect A eats D. Organism B eats both A and D. A coucal eats B and C, and also other prey. Which statement is correct?

  1. 1The longest food chain has four trophic levels
  2. 2A must be a keystone species
  3. 3Removing C will necessarily reduce the coucal population
  4. 4B could be a garden lizard and C could be a snail
  5. 5There is only one primary consumer
U8 · Ecosystems & energy flow
35.

Which atmospheric pollutant has the LEAST effect on crop production?

  1. 1Sulphur dioxide
  2. 2Nitrogen oxides
  3. 3Carbon monoxide
  4. 4CFCs
  5. 5Carbon dioxide
U8 · Environmental issues & pollution
36.

Which microorganism is used mainly in fermentation and enzyme production rather than being eaten directly as food or a supplement?

  1. 1Pleurotus
  2. 2Volvariella
  3. 3Spirulina
  4. 4Aspergillus
  5. 5Agaricus
U9 · Industrial & food microbiology
37.

Which statement is NOT a valid reason for using microorganisms as model organisms in research?

  1. 1They multiply quickly
  2. 2They are cheap to culture with simple equipment
  3. 3Every reproductive cell they produce is genetically identical
  4. 4Their basic metabolic pathways resemble those of other organisms
  5. 5Large populations fit into a small laboratory space
U9 · Microbial growth & lab techniques
38.

Which antibiotic is correctly paired with its mode of action?

  1. 1Ciprofloxacin – blocks DNA gyrase and hence DNA replication
  2. 2Penicillin – inhibits bacterial protein synthesis
  3. 3Erythromycin – prevents peptidoglycan cross-linking
  4. 4Polymyxin – inhibits fungal ergosterol synthesis
  5. 5Clotrimazole – damages bacterial cell membranes
U9 · Microbes & disease
39.

Which feature does NOT apply to prions?

  1. 1They are infectious misfolded protein particles
  2. 2They propagate without any nucleic acid
  3. 3They possess a symmetrical protein capsid
  4. 4They may spread through contaminated blood or tissue
  5. 5The normal protein they convert is coded by a host gene
U9 · Microbial diversity & structure
40.

Which property is NOT a factor that contributes to a microbe's ability to cause disease?

  1. 1Entering host cells or tissues
  2. 2Surviving host defences inside the body
  3. 3Releasing exotoxins or endotoxins
  4. 4Synthesising RNA polymerase
  5. 5Interfering with normal host physiology
U9 · Microbes & disease
41.

Which of the following plant phyla consist of vascular plants that produce neither seeds nor flowers?
A. Lycophyta
B. Pterophyta
C. Anthophyta
D. Coniferophyta
E. Hepatophyta (liverworts)

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2A, B and E only
  3. 3B and E only
  4. 4A, B and D only
  5. 5C and D only
U3 · Plant diversity
42.

Which of these groups include at least some animals that have no bony skeleton?
A. Arthropoda
B. Mammalia
C. Chordata
D. Nematoda
E. Aves

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3B and E only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5A, B, C and D only
U3 · Animal diversity
43.

Which of the following can alter the blood glucose concentration of a healthy adult?
A. Glucagon
B. Thyroxine
C. Aldosterone
D. The hypothalamus
E. Parathormone

  1. 1A, C and E only
  2. 2B and C only
  3. 3A, B and D only
  4. 4C, D and E only
  5. 5A and E only
U5 · Homeostasis, liver & thermoregulation
44.

Which of the following are normally present in the urine of a healthy adult?
A. Potassium ions
B. Glucose
C. Creatinine
D. Hydrogen ions
E. Leucocytes

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3B, C and E only
  4. 4C and E only
  5. 5A, B, C and D only
U5 · Excretion & osmoregulation
45.

Which statements about cardiac muscle are correct?
A. It is myogenic
B. Each cell contains only a single sarcomere
C. Neighbouring cells are joined by intercalated discs
D. Gap junctions allow impulses to pass between cells
E. Its cells are very long, unbranched cylinders

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2B and E only
  3. 3A, C and D only
  4. 4C, D and E only
  5. 5A, B, C and D only
U5 · Animal tissues
46.

Which statements about animal skeletons are correct?
A. Earthworms and roundworms rely on a hydrostatic skeleton
B. Every skeleton acts as a calcium reserve
C. Both exoskeletons and endoskeletons protect soft tissues
D. Radiolarians have an internal skeleton
E. No mollusc has an internal skeleton

  1. 1A, C and D only
  2. 2B and E only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4C, D and E only
  5. 5A, B and C only
U5 · Skeleton, muscle & movement
47.

Which of the following conditions arise from an abnormal NUMBER of chromosomes?
A. Turner syndrome (45,X)
B. Haemophilia
C. Patau syndrome (trisomy 13)
D. Phenylketonuria
E. β-thalassaemia

  1. 1A and C only
  2. 2A, B and C only
  3. 3B, D and E only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5A, C and E only
U6 · Human genetics & disorders
48.

Which meiotic events directly make the four daughter cells genetically different from each other and from the parent cell?
A. Pairing of homologues (synapsis)
B. Crossing over at chiasmata
C. Spindle formation
D. Random orientation of bivalents (independent assortment)
E. Cytokinesis

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2A, B and D only
  3. 3B and D only
  4. 4C and E only
  5. 5B, C and D only
U2 · Cell cycle, mitosis & meiosis
49.

Each geological period below is paired with three groups. In which period(s) had at least one listed group NOT yet appeared?
A. Devonian: fishes, insects, flowering plants
B. Jurassic: dinosaurs, conifers, mammals
C. Carboniferous: amphibians, ferns, trilobites
D. Ordovician: birds, molluscs, crustaceans
E. Cretaceous: flowering plants, birds, dinosaurs

  1. 1B and C only
  2. 2C and E only
  3. 3A and D only
  4. 4B, C and E only
  5. 5A, B and D only
U3 · Origin of life & evolution
50.

Five terrestrial biomes are described by temperature range and latitude:
P | -40 to 0 °C | 60–75°
Q | -30 to 20 °C | 45–60°
R | 10 to 25 °C | 30–40° (winter rain)
S | 20 to 30 °C | 0–15°
T | 10 to 40 °C | 15–30°
Which statements are correct?
A. Coniferous trees dominate Q
B. With rainfall above 1000 mm a year, S has the greatest biodiversity
C. T is the largest terrestrial biome
D. Small trees and shrubs dominate R
E. P supports the longest food chains

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A and C only
  3. 3B, C and E only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5A, B, C and D only
U8 · Biomes & Sri Lankan ecosystems
2017 · Paper IIStructured & essay
1A
Part A · Structured

(i) Apart from acting as a solvent, list the main roles water plays in living organisms.
(ii) Select three physical or chemical properties of water that are of special value to organisms living in water. For each, explain how it helps them and give a named example.

1B
Part A · Structured

(i) Write down the three principles of the cell theory.
(ii) List the internal structural features found in eukaryotic cells but not in prokaryotic cells.
(iii) You are given a slide of onion bulb epidermis and a compound light microscope. In the correct order, list the steps you would follow to bring the cells into clear view.

1C
Part A · Structured

(i) Consider these molluscan features: (a) distinct head (b) suckers (c) two pairs of tentacles (d) shell (e) body compressed from side to side. Using the letters, indicate which features occur in a freshwater mussel, a chiton and an octopus.
(ii) Give two ways to tell a heterocercal tail fin from a homocercal tail fin.
(iii) Describe a nictitating membrane.
(iv) (a) Name an amphibian that keeps a long tail as an adult. (b) Give one external feature by which it can be told apart from a lizard.
(v) Name a genus of limbless amphibian.

2A
Part A · Structured

(i) Viewed under low power, give three features of a transverse section of the human colon that distinguish it from one of the small intestine.
(ii) Give two functions of hydrochloric acid in the stomach.
(iii) Name three hormones that regulate the reabsorption of ions in the kidney.
(iv) (a) Name an ion that is both reabsorbed and secreted along the nephron. (b) Name an ion reabsorbed by both active and passive mechanisms.
(v) Name the chief chemical constituent of kidney stones.

2B
Part A · Structured

(i) (a) State the overall role of the nervous system. (b) Give three ways in which dendrites differ from axons.
(ii) (a) Define a nerve impulse. (b) Give two factors that influence how fast an impulse travels along an axon.
(iii) (a) Name two inhibiting hormones produced by the hypothalamus. (b) Apart from hormone secretion, list the functions of the hypothalamus.
(iv) In which lobe of the cerebrum is the hearing (auditory) area located?
(v) (a) Define a trophic hormone. (b) Which hormone stimulates the secretion of gastric juice?

2C
Part A · Structured

(i) (a) State the general function of the human circulatory system. (b) Name the plasma protein present in greatest amount.
(ii) (a) Define the cardiac cycle. (b) Give three factors that keep human blood pressure in the normal range.
(iii) Name a phylum of triploblastic animals that has no blood circulatory system.
(iv) (a) How does adding solute to water change its water potential? (b) Define turgor pressure.
(v) (a) Define plasmolysis. (b) What is the value of pressure potential at incipient plasmolysis? (c) At that point, how does the cell's water potential compare with its solute potential?

3A
Part A · Structured

(i) (a) Give the two main forms in which CO₂ is carried in human blood. (b) Where in the brain is the breathing control centre?
(ii) Define locomotion.
(iii) (a) Give two features shared by skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle fibres. (b) Give two features found only in skeletal muscle fibres.
(iv) (a) Which structural arrangement allows the human upper arm to move through a wide range? (b) Give two features of the upper limb that help in lifting heavy loads. (c) Give two features of the lower limb that support upright posture.
(v) Give one disadvantage of a hydrostatic skeleton.

3B
Part A · Structured

(i) Name a living plant tissue whose main role is support.
(ii) Apart from cellulose, name two major cell-wall components of that tissue.
(iii) Define parthenocarpy.
(iv) Define parthenogenesis as it occurs in plants.
(v) Outline the events of seed germination.

3C
Part A · Structured

(i) (a) For how long do a human sperm and a human ovum remain viable? (b) At which stage of spermatogenesis and of oogenesis does the second meiotic division take place?
(ii) (a) How does inhibin regulate spermatogenesis? (b) Describe the acrosome reaction.
(iii) (a) Define ovulation. (b) Which hormone triggers it?
(iv) Where on the human egg are the sperm receptors found?
(v) (a) Give two functions of oestrogen. (b) Name a placental hormone that keeps the myometrium quiet. (c) Explain the role of oxytocin during childbirth.

4A
Part A · Structured

(i) (a) Define a test cross. (b) Why is a test cross carried out?
(ii) (a) Define a back cross. (b) Why is a back cross carried out?
(iii) Under what condition is a back cross the same as a test cross?
(iv) State what each of these pedigree symbols means: an open square; a filled circle; a square and circle joined by a horizontal line.
(v) In a family pedigree, two unaffected parents (1 and 2) have an unaffected son (3) and an affected daughter (4); son 3 marries an affected woman and their child (5) is unaffected. (a) Is the statement 'this trait is autosomal dominant' correct or incorrect? (b) Using A and a, give the possible genotypes of individuals 1–5.

4B
Part A · Structured

(i) List the levels of organisation of the environment in the correct order.
(ii) (a) Define an extinct species. (b) Name an extinct bird.
(iii) State the main objectives of the Convention on Biological Diversity.
(iv) (a) Give four human activities that lead to desertification. (b) Give three effects of desertification on people.

4C
Part A · Structured

(i) For each microbial nutritional type (chemoautotroph, chemoheterotroph, photoautotroph, photoheterotroph), state its carbon source and its energy source.
(ii) Describe how a clean, dry glass Petri dish should be sterilised before use in microbiology.
(iii) Give two characteristics of the toxin of Clostridium tetani.
(iv) Name an enzyme produced industrially using Aspergillus oryzae.

5a
Part B · Essay

Explain how enzymes bring about catalysis.

5b
Part B · Essay

Describe the enzyme-catalysed reactions that produce the first stable product of CO₂ fixation in C3 plants and in C4 plants.

5c
Part B · Essay

Explain why C4 plants fix CO₂ more efficiently than C3 plants.

6
Part B · Essay

(a) Define transpiration.
(b) Explain how external (environmental) factors change the rate of transpiration.
(c) Describe how a potometer is set up and used to estimate the rate of transpiration.

7
Part B · Essay

(a) Describe where the human testes are situated.
(b) Outline the structure of a human testis.
(c) Explain how sperms are produced in the human male.

8
Part B · Essay

Describe the traditional selective breeding methods that people use to improve crops and livestock.

9a
Part B · Essay

Using suitable examples, describe the different categories of natural resources.

9b
Part B · Essay

Explain what is meant by sustainable use of natural resources and how it can be achieved.

10a
Part B · Essay

Write a short note on the human vertebral column.

10b
Part B · Essay

Write a short note on invasive species.

10c
Part B · Essay

Write a short note on cyanobacteria.

2017 · Answers & reviewsMEDVision answers

Answer key — this booklet

122333445264738195101112123133144153163173184195201215222231245255265271282291304312323334344353364373381393404411422433442453461471483493501

Answer key — original 2017 paper (MEDVision model answers)

For students working from the original paper. Shaded cells: check against the official marking scheme (amber = likely, red = disputed).

112231445562738195101113122133145153164173185195201215222231245255265271283291301313321335345352361373382393403413422431442452461473483495501

Paper I — reviews

1
Answer 2 Trace elements act mainly as enzyme cofactors/activators (e.g. Zn in carbonic anhydrase, Mo in nitrate reductase). The pigment trap refers to Mg, which is a macro-element.
2
Answer 3 Mitochondria and chloroplasts contain their own circular DNA, supporting endosymbiotic origin. Ribosomes contain rRNA, not DNA, and the nucleolus is part of the nucleus.
3
Answer 3 Epithelia protect, secrete, absorb and transport. Mechanical support is the job of connective tissues such as bone and cartilage.
4
Answer 4 A disaccharide (12 carbons) gives roughly twice the ATP of glucose, about 60 ATP, far more than a 3–6 C intermediate. One NADH gives only about 2.5 ATP.
5
Answer 2 Polypeptide synthesis needs ribosomes, which stud the rough ER, not the smooth ER. SER makes lipids, stores Ca²⁺, detoxifies and handles carbohydrates.
6
Answer 4 Photorespiration (RuBisCO acting on O₂, with peroxisome and mitochondrion involvement) is not a light-reaction event. Photolysis and both types of photophosphorylation are.
7
Answer 3 Tight junctions in gut epithelium seal adjacent cells to prevent leakage. Desmosomes resist mechanical stress and gap junctions allow communication.
8
Answer 1 Branched ether-linked lipids are unique to Archaea; Methanobacterium is an archaean. All other genera are bacteria, fungi, plants or animals.
9
Answer 5 Arachnids have internal fertilisation, a circum-oesophageal nerve ring and direct development. Nereis has a trochophore, insects have larvae, earthworms fertilise externally in a cocoon, and planarians lack a nerve ring.
10
Answer 1 All five are arthropods sharing a chitinous exoskeleton, so it cannot separate them. Antennae, eyes, wings and leg arrangement all differ.
11
Answer 2 Nitrobacter is a chemoautotroph oxidising nitrite to nitrate. The protist parasite, mushroom, primate and fish are all heterotrophs.
12
Answer 3 Lipase is present in both pancreatic and intestinal juice. Chymotrypsinogen and nucleases are pancreatic, while maltase and enterokinase are intestinal only.
13
Answer 3 Contraction of the external intercostals lifts the ribs and moves the sternum up and forward, while the diaphragm contracts and flattens. Thoracic and pleural pressures fall.
14
Answer 4 Humidity, light, wind and soil water directly alter the vapour-pressure gradient or stomatal aperture. Soil texture acts only indirectly.
15
Answer 3 Active loading at the source lowers ψ, water enters and pressure builds, so mass flow runs from source to sink. Loading is active and lowers ψ.
16
Answer 3 Eosinophils combat helminth parasites and allergy. Monocytes are largest and also phagocytic, RBCs are ~99% of cells, and lymphocytes number ~10⁹ per litre.
17
Answer 3 Annelids and fishes have closed systems. Flatworms have none, echinoderms have a reduced system, crustaceans use haemocyanin and the SA node is the pacemaker.
18
Answer 4 Conscious pain perception occurs in the somatosensory cortex of the cerebrum. Corpora quadrigemina are midbrain, the medulla controls coughing and is the main respiratory centre, and eye reflexes are midbrain.
19
Answer 5 Repolarisation is due to K⁺ leaving the axon (efflux) through voltage-gated channels. The other statements are correct.
20
Answer 1 Calcitonin comes from parafollicular (C) cells; follicular cells produce T₃/T₄. It lowers blood Ca²⁺, opposing PTH.
21
Answer 5 ADH increases water permeability of the DCT and collecting duct. Glucagon is from α-cells, aldosterone retains Na⁺ but secretes K⁺, the thymus matures T cells and CCK acts on pancreas and gall bladder.
22
Answer 2 Excretion is the removal of all metabolic wastes, including CO₂, excess salts, water and bile pigments, not only nitrogenous wastes.
23
Answer 1 The axis bears the dens (odontoid process). The atlas has only a posterior tubercle, the sacrum has 5 fused vertebrae, bifid spines are cervical and the largest foramen is cervical.
24
Answer 5 Regression of the corpus luteum lowers oestrogen and progesterone, causing endometrial shedding. Progesterone peaks about a week before menstruation, the LH surge exceeds FSH, and the proliferative phase is variable.
25
Answer 5 Fertilisation normally occurs in the ampulla, the outer (upper) third of the tube, not the part near the uterus.
26
Answer 5 Sperms mature and are stored in the epididymis, but hyperactivation and capacitation occur in the female tract.
27
Answer 1 Fetal heartbeat is detectable by the end of the third month. Lanugo appears around the fifth month, sitting unaided at about 6–8 months, and the family diet at about one year.
28
Answer 2 A non-directional movement responding to the day–night cycle is nyctinasty. Tropisms are directional growth responses and taxes are movements of whole organisms.
29
Answer 1 Culture media contain nutrients and a balance of auxins and cytokinins, not just IAA, so the first definition is wrong. Totipotency, explants, callus and clonal propagation are correct.
30
Answer 4 Potato propagates by stem tubers, not a horizontal rhizome (ginger and Canna have rhizomes). The other pairings are correct.
31
Answer 2 Restriction enzymes cut at specific (often palindromic) recognition sequences. Ligase joins DNA and polymerase adds nucleotides.
32
Answer 3 Two identical alleles make a homozygous genotype. Different alleles would be heterozygous; hemizygous applies to a single copy, e.g. X-linked genes in males.
33
Answer 4 Crossing over and independent assortment create genetic recombination, providing variation for natural selection. Keeping chromosome number constant is a function, not the evolutionary advantage.
34
Answer 4 B eats insects, so it fits a lizard, and C eats grass and is eaten by the coucal, so it fits a snail. The longest chain Grass→D→A→B→Coucal has five levels, and the coucal has other prey.
35
Answer 3 CO harms animals by binding haemoglobin but has little effect on plants. SO₂ and NOₓ cause acid rain and leaf injury, CFCs raise UV by depleting ozone, and CO₂ alters climate and photosynthesis.
36
Answer 4 Aspergillus is used indirectly, e.g. in soy sauce fermentation and enzyme or citric acid production. The others are edible mushrooms or a protein supplement.
37
Answer 3 Microbial offspring are not always identical because mutation and recombination occur. The other features are genuine reasons.
38
Answer 1 Ciprofloxacin (a quinolone) inhibits DNA gyrase. Penicillin targets the cell wall, erythromycin protein synthesis, polymyxin bacterial membranes, and clotrimazole is an antifungal.
39
Answer 3 A protein coat with helical or icosahedral symmetry (capsid) is a viral feature. Prions are naked misfolded proteins without nucleic acid.
40
Answer 4 All living cells make RNA polymerase, so it is not a virulence factor. Invasion, survival, toxins and disruption of host function are.
41
Answer 1 Club mosses (Lycophyta) and ferns (Pterophyta) are seedless vascular plants. Flowering plants and conifers bear seeds, and liverworts are non-vascular.
42
Answer 2 Arthropods (exoskeleton), nematodes (hydroskeleton) and chordates such as sharks and tunicates lack bone. All mammals and birds have bony skeletons.
43
Answer 3 Glucagon raises glucose, thyroxine increases glucose absorption and use, and the hypothalamus acts via the pituitary and sympathetic system. Aldosterone controls Na⁺/K⁺ and PTH controls Ca²⁺.
44
Answer 2 Normal urine contains K⁺, creatinine and H⁺. Glucose and amino acids are fully reabsorbed, and white cells indicate infection.
45
Answer 3 Cardiac muscle is myogenic and has intercalated discs containing gap junctions. Its cells are short, branched and contain many sarcomeres.
46
Answer 1 Annelids and nematodes use hydrostatic skeletons, both skeleton types protect, and radiolarians have internal silica skeletons. Not all skeletons store calcium, and cephalopods have internal shells.
47
Answer 1 Turner (XO) and Patau (trisomy 13) are aneuploidies. Haemophilia, PKU and thalassaemia are gene mutations.
48
Answer 3 Crossing over and independent assortment create new allele combinations. Synapsis, spindle formation and cytokinesis occur but do not themselves create variation.
49
Answer 3 Flowering plants arose in the Cretaceous and birds in the Jurassic, so A and D contain groups not yet present. Mammals existed by the Jurassic, and the groups in C and E were all present.
50
Answer 1 P is tundra, Q taiga (conifers), R chaparral (shrubs and small trees), S tropical rainforest and T desert or savanna. Taiga, not T, is the largest biome, and tundra has short food chains.

Paper II — marking points

1A
  1. Functions: medium for metabolic reactions; reactant (hydrolysis, photosynthesis); transport medium; temperature regulation (sweating, transpiration); lubricant (synovial, mucus); turgidity/hydrostatic support; medium for fertilization and dispersal
  2. High specific heat capacity – resists temperature change; stable aquatic habitat, e.g. fish in lakes
  3. Maximum density at 4 °C / ice floats – insulates water below; organisms survive under frozen ponds
  4. High surface tension (cohesion) – surface film supports organisms such as water striders / mosquito larvae
  5. Transparency – light penetrates for photosynthesis by submerged plants / phytoplankton
  6. High latent heat of fusion – water slow to freeze, protecting aquatic organisms
  7. Dissolves O₂ and CO₂ – gas exchange of fish (gills) and aquatic plants
1B
  1. All organisms are composed of one or more cells
  2. The cell is the basic structural and functional unit of life
  3. All cells arise from pre-existing cells
  4. Eukaryotes: true nucleus with nuclear envelope; membrane-bound organelles (mitochondria, chloroplasts, ER, Golgi, lysosomes); linear DNA with histones forming chromosomes; 80S ribosomes; cytoskeleton; nucleolus
  5. Microscope: place slide on stage and clip; select low-power objective (×10)
  6. Adjust illumination using mirror/diaphragm/condenser
  7. Using coarse adjustment, lower objective close to the slide while viewing from the side
  8. Look through eyepiece and raise the objective with coarse adjustment until focused
  9. Sharpen with fine adjustment; centre the cells; switch to high power and refocus with fine adjustment only
1C
  1. Mussel: d, e (shell, laterally flattened body; no head)
  2. Chiton: a, d (head, shell of 8 plates)
  3. Octopus: a, b (head, suckers; no external shell)
  4. Heterocercal fin: unequal lobes (dorsal lobe larger); vertebral column extends into the dorsal lobe (homocercal is symmetrical and the column ends at the base)
  5. Nictitating membrane: thin transparent third eyelid that moves across the eye to protect and moisten it (e.g. frog, birds)
  6. Tailed adult amphibian: salamander or newt (Urodela), e.g. Triturus
  7. Distinguish from lizard: moist, glandular skin without scales; no claws on digits
  8. Legless amphibian genus: Ichthyophis (caecilian)
2A
  1. Large intestine: no villi; many goblet cells; crypts straight/simple glands; longitudinal muscle in bands (taeniae coli); no Peyer's patches/lymphoid nodules in the same pattern
  2. HCl functions: converts pepsinogen to pepsin and provides acid pH for pepsin; kills microorganisms; denatures proteins; curdles milk/activates other enzymes
  3. Hormones affecting ion reabsorption: aldosterone, parathyroid hormone, calcitonin (also ANP; ADH for water)
  4. Ion both reabsorbed and secreted: K⁺ (also H⁺, HCO₃⁻)
  5. Ion reabsorbed actively and passively: Na⁺ (also Cl⁻)
  6. Main component of renal calculi: calcium oxalate
2B
  1. Nervous system: receives stimuli, integrates and coordinates responses rapidly to maintain homeostasis
  2. Dendrites: many per neurone; short and highly branched; conduct impulses towards the cell body; no myelin; contain Nissl granules; tapering
  3. Nerve impulse: a wave of electrical/electrochemical change (action potential) travelling along a nerve fibre
  4. Speed factors: axon diameter; myelination (saltatory conduction); temperature
  5. Inhibitory hypothalamic hormones: somatostatin (GHIH), prolactin-inhibiting hormone (dopamine)
  6. Other hypothalamic functions: thermoregulation; hunger/satiety; thirst and osmoregulation; sleep–wake/circadian rhythm; emotions and behaviour; controls autonomic nervous system
  7. Auditory area: temporal lobe
  8. Trophic hormone: hormone that stimulates another endocrine gland to secrete its hormones (e.g. TSH, ACTH)
  9. Gastric juice secretion stimulated by gastrin
2C
  1. Circulation transports O₂, nutrients, hormones, wastes and heat; defence; homeostasis
  2. Most abundant plasma protein: albumin
  3. Cardiac cycle: sequence of events (systole and diastole of atria and ventricles) in one heartbeat (~0.8 s)
  4. BP maintained by: cardiac output (heart rate, stroke volume); peripheral resistance (vessel diameter); blood volume; elasticity of arteries; baroreceptor reflex / hormones
  5. Triploblastic phylum without circulation: Platyhelminthes (also Nematoda)
  6. Solutes lower (make more negative) water potential
  7. Turgor pressure: pressure exerted by cell contents against the cell wall as water enters
  8. Plasmolysis: shrinking of protoplast away from the cell wall due to water loss in hypertonic solution
  9. At incipient plasmolysis ψp = 0
  10. So ψ equals ψs at incipient plasmolysis
3A
  1. CO₂ carried mainly as HCO₃⁻ in plasma (~70%) and as carbaminohaemoglobin (~23%)
  2. Respiratory centre: medulla oblongata (with pons)
  3. Locomotion: movement of the whole organism from one place to another
  4. Common to all muscle: contain actin and myosin; contractile/excitable; need ATP and Ca²⁺; have mitochondria
  5. Skeletal only: multinucleate; long unbranched cylindrical fibres; voluntary; no intercalated discs/gap junctions
  6. Upper arm range: ball-and-socket shoulder joint with shallow glenoid cavity
  7. Weight lifting: strong muscles (biceps, deltoid) attached to long bones; elbow hinge acting as lever; clavicle bracing shoulder; strong grip/opposable thumb
  8. Erect posture: large weight-bearing femur angled inward; arched foot; strong gluteal/quadriceps muscles; knee locking
  9. Hydroskeleton disadvantage: no rigid protection; slow movement; cannot support large terrestrial bodies
3B
  1. Living supporting tissue: collenchyma
  2. Wall substances besides cellulose: pectin and hemicellulose
  3. Parthenocarpy: development of fruit without fertilization (seedless fruit, e.g. banana)
  4. Parthenogenesis in plants: development of an embryo from an unfertilized egg cell
  5. Germination: seed imbibes water, enzymes (amylase via GA) activated
  6. Stored food hydrolysed and transported to embryo axis
  7. Respiration increases, cell division and elongation
  8. Radicle emerges first, then plumule; epigeal or hypogeal
  9. Requires water, O₂, suitable temperature
3C
  1. Sperm survives ~48–72 h in female tract; ovum ~12–24 h
  2. Meiosis II: spermatogenesis – secondary spermatocyte to spermatids; oogenesis – secondary oocyte, completed only after sperm entry (fertilization)
  3. Inhibin (from Sertoli cells) inhibits FSH secretion, regulating spermatogenesis
  4. Acrosome reaction: release of acrosomal enzymes (hyaluronidase, acrosin) on contact with zona pellucida, letting sperm penetrate
  5. Ovulation: release of secondary oocyte from mature Graafian follicle
  6. Triggered by LH surge
  7. Sperm receptors are in the zona pellucida (ZP3 glycoprotein)
  8. Oestrogen: develops secondary sexual characters; repairs/proliferates endometrium; feedback on FSH/LH; LH surge
  9. Progesterone suppresses myometrial contractions
  10. Oxytocin stimulates strong uterine contractions (positive feedback) to expel the fetus
4A
  1. Test cross: crossing an individual of dominant phenotype with a homozygous recessive
  2. Purpose: to determine whether the dominant phenotype is homozygous or heterozygous
  3. Back cross: crossing an F₁ hybrid with one of its parents (or parental genotype)
  4. Purpose: to identify the F₁ genotype / to transfer a desired trait while restoring parental characters
  5. Back cross equals test cross when the parent used is homozygous recessive
  6. Symbols: square = unaffected male; shaded circle = affected female; square–circle joined by a line = mating/marriage
  7. Statement 'autosomal dominant' is incorrect (×): unaffected parents have affected children, so recessive
  8. Genotypes (re-set pedigree): 1 Aa; 2 Aa; 3 AA or Aa; 4 aa; 5 Aa (original paper's pedigree: 1 Aa; 2 Aa; 3 Aa; 4 aa; 5 AA or Aa)
4B
  1. Levels: individual → population → community → ecosystem → biome → biosphere
  2. Extinct species: one with no living member anywhere
  3. Extinct bird: dodo (also passenger pigeon)
  4. CBD objectives: conservation of biodiversity; sustainable use of its components; fair and equitable sharing of benefits from genetic resources
  5. Desertification causes: deforestation; overgrazing; over-cultivation/poor farming; improper irrigation (salinization); mining; fuelwood collection
  6. Impacts: food shortage/famine; water shortage; poverty and migration; loss of livelihood; dust storms/health problems
4C
  1. Chemoautotroph: CO₂; chemical (inorganic oxidation)
  2. Chemoheterotroph: organic compounds; chemical (organic)
  3. Photoautotroph: CO₂; light
  4. Photoheterotroph: organic compounds; light
  5. Petri dish: wrap in paper/foil and sterilize by dry heat in hot-air oven at 160–180 °C for 1–2 h (or autoclave 121 °C, 15 psi, 15 min)
  6. Tetanus toxin (tetanospasmin): exotoxin; protein; neurotoxin causing spastic paralysis; heat labile; converted to toxoid
  7. Enzyme from Aspergillus oryzae: amylase (also protease)
5a
  1. Enzymes are biological catalysts, mostly globular proteins
  2. They lower activation energy of the reaction
  3. Substrate binds to the active site, which has a specific 3D shape
  4. Forms enzyme–substrate complex (E + S → ES → EP → E + P)
  5. Lock-and-key model: rigid complementary active site
  6. Induced-fit model: active site changes shape slightly on binding, increasing fit
  7. Mechanisms: orienting substrates, straining bonds, providing favourable micro-environment (pH), temporary covalent participation of R groups
  8. Products released; enzyme unchanged and reused
  9. Specificity due to active-site shape
  10. Cofactors/coenzymes may be needed
  11. Affected by temperature, pH, substrate and enzyme concentration, inhibitors
5b
  1. C3: in mesophyll chloroplast stroma, CO₂ combines with RuBP (5C)
  2. Catalysed by RuBP carboxylase/oxygenase (RuBisCO)
  3. Unstable 6C intermediate splits into two molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate (PGA, 3C) – first stable product
  4. C4: in mesophyll cytoplasm, CO₂ (as HCO₃⁻) combines with phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP, 3C)
  5. Catalysed by PEP carboxylase
  6. Forms oxaloacetate (4C) – first stable product
  7. OAA reduced to malate (or aspartate), transported to bundle-sheath cells
  8. Malate decarboxylated, releasing CO₂ for RuBisCO/Calvin cycle; pyruvate returns and is regenerated to PEP using ATP
5c
  1. PEP carboxylase has a very high affinity for CO₂ and no affinity for O₂
  2. Can fix CO₂ at very low concentrations
  3. CO₂ pumping concentrates CO₂ in bundle-sheath cells
  4. High CO₂:O₂ ratio around RuBisCO suppresses photorespiration
  5. Kranz anatomy separates initial fixation and Calvin cycle spatially
  6. Stomata can be partly closed in hot dry conditions, conserving water while still fixing CO₂
  7. Higher photosynthetic rate at high light and temperature
6
  1. Transpiration: loss of water as vapour from the aerial parts of plants, mainly via stomata (also cuticle, lenticels)
  2. Light: opens stomata and warms leaf, raising rate
  3. Temperature: higher temperature increases evaporation and lowers air humidity – rate increases
  4. Humidity: high humidity reduces the vapour pressure gradient – rate falls
  5. Wind: removes the humid diffusion shell – rate increases (very strong wind may close stomata)
  6. Soil water: shortage leads to stomatal closure, reducing rate
  7. Atmospheric pressure: low pressure increases rate
  8. Potometer: cut a leafy shoot under water to prevent air entry
  9. Fit shoot airtight into the potometer filled with water (vaseline to seal joints)
  10. Introduce an air bubble into the capillary tube
  11. Record distance moved by the bubble in a given time
  12. Reservoir used to reset the bubble; repeat readings
  13. Rate = volume of water uptake (πr² × distance)/time; assumes uptake ≈ transpiration
  14. Keep the set-up under constant conditions; vary one factor for comparisons
7
  1. Paired testes lie outside the abdominal cavity in the scrotum
  2. Scrotal temperature ~2–3 °C below body temperature, needed for spermatogenesis
  3. Testes descend through the inguinal canal before birth; suspended by spermatic cord
  4. Covered by a fibrous capsule (tunica albuginea), divided by septa into ~250 lobules
  5. Each lobule contains 1–4 highly coiled seminiferous tubules
  6. Tubules lined by germinal epithelium with spermatogonia and Sertoli cells
  7. Interstitial Leydig cells between tubules secrete testosterone
  8. Tubules → rete testis → efferent ducts → epididymis
  9. Spermatogonia (2n) divide by mitosis (multiplication)
  10. Some grow into primary spermatocytes (2n)
  11. Meiosis I → secondary spermatocytes (n)
  12. Meiosis II → spermatids (n)
  13. Spermiogenesis: spermatids differentiate into spermatozoa (head, acrosome, midpiece, tail), nourished by Sertoli cells
  14. Controlled by FSH, LH (via testosterone) and inhibin; ~64–74 days
8
  1. Selective breeding: choosing parents with desired traits to produce offspring with those traits
  2. Mass selection: select superior plants/seed from a population and propagate them
  3. Pure-line selection: select from self-pollinated progeny of a single superior plant
  4. Inbreeding: mating closely related individuals to obtain homozygous pure lines; risk of inbreeding depression
  5. Outbreeding/out-crossing: mating unrelated individuals of the same breed to bring in new genes
  6. Cross-breeding: crossing two different breeds/varieties (e.g. local × exotic cattle) for combined traits
  7. Hybridization: crossing genetically different parents producing hybrids with hybrid vigour (heterosis)
  8. Interspecific hybridization (e.g. mule)
  9. Back-crossing to transfer a single desirable trait into an elite variety
  10. Vegetative propagation (grafting, budding) to maintain selected traits
  11. Desired traits: high yield, disease/pest resistance, drought tolerance, quality, early maturity
  12. Limitations: slow, many generations, reduced genetic diversity
9a
  1. Natural resources: materials/energy from nature used by humans
  2. Renewable: can be replenished naturally – e.g. solar energy, wind, water, forests, fish, soil
  3. Inexhaustible (perpetual) renewable: solar, wind, tidal energy
  4. Renewable resources can be depleted if overused (e.g. forests, fish stocks)
  5. Non-renewable: cannot be replaced within human time scale – e.g. fossil fuels (coal, petroleum, natural gas)
  6. Minerals and metals (iron, gemstones, graphite) are non-renewable
  7. Biotic resources (plants, animals) vs abiotic (minerals, water, land)
  8. Sri Lankan examples: mineral sands, graphite, gems, forests, fisheries
9b
  1. Sustainable use: meeting present needs without compromising future generations' ability to meet theirs
  2. Use renewable resources below their regeneration rate (e.g. sustainable yield fishing, forestry)
  3. Reduce, reuse, recycle to minimize consumption and waste
  4. Shift to renewable energy (solar, wind, hydro) from fossil fuels
  5. Efficient use: energy conservation, drip irrigation, water harvesting
  6. Conservation of soil (contour farming, terracing, cover crops)
  7. Reforestation and protected areas
  8. Pollution control and waste management
  9. Conservation of biodiversity and genetic resources
  10. Laws, policies, EIA and public awareness/education
10a
  1. Made of 33 vertebrae in childhood; 26 bones in adults (sacrum and coccyx fused)
  2. Cervical 7, thoracic 12, lumbar 5, sacral 5 (fused), coccygeal 4 (fused)
  3. Four curvatures: cervical and lumbar (secondary, convex anteriorly); thoracic and sacral (primary)
  4. Typical vertebra: body, vertebral arch, vertebral foramen, spinous and transverse processes, articular processes
  5. Intervertebral discs (fibrocartilage) act as shock absorbers and permit movement
  6. Atlas has no body; axis has dens – allow head rotation
  7. Cervical: transverse foramina, bifid spines; thoracic: facets for ribs; lumbar: large bodies
  8. Functions: supports body/head, protects spinal cord, attachment of ribs and muscles, flexible movement, erect posture
10b
  1. Alien (non-native) species introduced intentionally or accidentally that spread rapidly and harm native biodiversity
  2. Features: rapid reproduction, high dispersal, wide tolerance, no natural enemies
  3. Effects: outcompete natives, predation, habitat alteration, disease spread, economic loss
  4. Major cause of biodiversity loss
  5. Sri Lankan plant examples: Lantana camara, Ulex europaeus, Eichhornia crassipes (water hyacinth), Salvinia molesta, Prosopis juliflora, Annona glabra
  6. Animal examples: tilapia, apple snail (Pomacea), African land snail
  7. Control: prevention/quarantine, mechanical removal, biological control, awareness
10c
  1. Prokaryotes of Domain Bacteria; photoautotrophic
  2. Contain chlorophyll a and phycobilins (phycocyanin, phycoerythrin); no chloroplasts – thylakoids free in cytoplasm
  3. Oxygenic photosynthesis; store cyanophycean starch
  4. Unicellular, colonial or filamentous; often with mucilage sheath; no flagella
  5. Heterocysts fix N₂ (Anabaena, Nostoc); akinetes for survival
  6. Reproduce asexually by binary fission, fragmentation/hormogonia
  7. Examples: Nostoc, Anabaena, Oscillatoria, Lyngbya, Spirulina
  8. Importance: N₂ fixation in paddy fields; O₂ production; primary producers; Spirulina as food; cause algal blooms/toxins (Microcystis); symbiosis (Azolla–Anabaena, lichens)

Scan notes: All 50 MCQs and all Paper II questions legible. Q34 food web, Q50 biome diagram and Q4A pedigree read from page images. Answers judged without official marking scheme; ambiguous items (5, 12, 18, 22, 23, 44, 48, 50) marked medium.

2018

G.C.E. (Advanced Level) — Biology

Old syllabus (pre-2019) · Re-set practice paper

Paper I50 MCQs · 2 hoursAnswer all. Choose the one correct or most suitable option.
Paper II12 parts in this booklet · 3 hoursPart A: answer all structured questions. Part B: answer four essays.

Every question tests the same concept as question of the same number in the 2018 paper, re-written by MEDVision. Source coverage: Paper I + Paper II Part A (essay page missing from scan).

2018 · Paper IMultiple choice
1.

A cell in an onion root tip is observed during metaphase of mitosis. Which of the following would be seen in this cell at this stage?

  1. 1The nucleolus reappearing inside a newly formed nucleus
  2. 2Sister chromatids moving towards opposite poles
  3. 3Chromosomes lying on the equatorial plane, each attached to spindle fibres at its centromere
  4. 4A new nuclear envelope forming around each chromosome set
  5. 5Chromatin threads just beginning to coil and shorten
U2 · Cell cycle, mitosis & meiosis
2.

A student examines an unstained, living Hydrilla leaf cell under the high power of an ordinary light microscope. Which of the following structures would the student NOT be able to identify clearly?

  1. 1Cell wall
  2. 2Chloroplasts
  3. 3Large central vacuole
  4. 4Mitochondria
  5. 5Nucleus
U2 · Microscopy
3.

Which one of the following steps associated with photosynthesis directly uses ATP?

  1. 1Splitting of water molecules at photosystem II
  2. 2Combination of CO₂ with PEP to form oxaloacetate
  3. 3Diffusion of O₂ out of the leaf through stomata
  4. 4Conversion of pyruvate to PEP in mesophyll cells of maize
  5. 5Combination of CO₂ with RuBP catalysed by rubisco
U2 · Cellular respiration & fermentation
4.

Which of the following statements about the chemical elements present in organisms is correct?

  1. 1All of the naturally occurring elements are essential to living organisms.
  2. 2Trace elements make up more than 1% of the dry mass of an organism.
  3. 3The relative proportions of elements vary from one kind of organism to another.
  4. 4Iron is one of the major (macro) elements of living matter.
  5. 5Sodium is one of the six most abundant elements in living matter, along with C, H, O, N and P.
U2 · Biomolecules & water
5.

Cohesion between water molecules and adhesion of water to other surfaces are important in plants. Which of the following plant functions depends mainly on a DIFFERENT property of water?

  1. 1Ascent of an unbroken water column in the xylem of a tall tree
  2. 2Uptake of water held in soil pores by root hairs
  3. 3Firmness of non-woody stems maintained by water-filled cells
  4. 4Capillary rise of water along narrow xylem lumens
  5. 5Dissolving of ions and sugars in the cytoplasm
U2 · Biomolecules & water
6.

A plant has flowers whose parts occur in threes. Which one of the following lists contains features that would ALL be present in this plant?

  1. 1Ovules enclosed in an ovary, dominant sporophyte generation, more than one type of RNA polymerase, scattered vascular bundles in the stem
  2. 2One cotyledon, fibrous roots, membrane lipids with branched hydrocarbon chains
  3. 3Parallel venation, a free-living photosynthetic gametophyte, vascular bundles lacking cambium
  4. 4Heterospory, fibrous roots, protein synthesis initiated with formyl-methionine
  5. 5Perianth, seeds not enclosed in a fruit, scattered vascular bundles in the stem
U3 · Plant diversity
7.

Which of the following could be true of a single-celled protist that lacks flagella at every stage of its life?

  1. 1It has a cell wall made of peptidoglycan.
  2. 2It lacks a membrane-bound nucleus.
  3. 3It obtains its food heterotrophically.
  4. 4It reproduces by producing flagellated zoospores.
  5. 5It belongs to kingdom Monera.
U3 · Prokaryotes, protists & fungi
8.

Which of the following statements on the classification of living organisms is correct?

  1. 1Viruses are not placed in any kingdom because they lack a well-defined nucleus.
  2. 2Carolus Linnaeus placed living organisms in two kingdoms, plants and animals.
  3. 3Kingdom Protista is a natural group whose members share a single common ancestor.
  4. 4Members of a genus share more common characters than members of a species.
  5. 5The three-domain system was introduced by Robert Whittaker.
U3 · Classification & taxonomy
9.

A bilaterally symmetrical animal with a true coelom bears tentacles on its head and has a dorsally placed heart. Which of the following structures would this animal most probably possess?

  1. 1Pinnules
  2. 2Jointed antennae
  3. 3Gills (ctenidia)
  4. 4Calcareous endoskeletal spines
  5. 5Cnidocytes
U3 · Animal diversity
10.

Which of the following statements on the human alimentary canal is correct?

  1. 1In the stomach wall, the longitudinal muscle layer lies immediately next to the submucosa.
  2. 2The gaps between neighbouring microvilli are called crypts of Lieberkühn.
  3. 3Secretin causes the gall bladder to contract and release bile.
  4. 4Impulses carried by the vagus nerve increase the secretion of gastric juice.
  5. 5Microvilli can be resolved under the low power of a light microscope.
U5 · Digestion & nutrition
11.

Which of the following statements about the control of breathing in humans is correct?

  1. 1A rise in arterial blood pH stimulates the aortic chemoreceptors to increase breathing.
  2. 2The respiratory centres are located in the hypothalamus.
  3. 3Impulses from the inspiratory centre of the medulla oblongata cause the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles to contract.
  4. 4Stimulation of lung stretch receptors inhibits the expiratory centre.
  5. 5Stimulation of the expiratory centre causes the diaphragm to contract.
U5 · Gas exchange
12.

Which of the following best describes the movement of water and dissolved mineral ions in the xylem of a tall tree?

  1. 1It occurs in both directions, from source to sink.
  2. 2It is driven by ATP hydrolysis in the vessel elements.
  3. 3It is a mass flow under tension (negative pressure) produced by transpiration.
  4. 4It is best explained by the Münch pressure-flow hypothesis.
  5. 5It is not affected by the rate of transpiration.
U4 · Water relations & transport
13.

Two plant cells are described. Cell X: dead, lignified secondary wall, short and broad, many pits, wide lumen. Cell Y: dead, very thick lignified secondary wall, long and narrow with tapering ends, almost no pits, very narrow lumen. Cells X and Y are respectively

  1. 1a tracheid and a vessel element.
  2. 2a vessel element and a sclerenchyma fibre.
  3. 3a companion cell and a tracheid.
  4. 4a sieve tube element and a sclerenchyma fibre.
  5. 5a vessel element and a tracheid.
U4 · Plant tissues & anatomy
14.

Which one of the following statements regarding animal circulatory systems is correct?

  1. 1The valve between the left atrium and left ventricle of the human heart has two cusps.
  2. 2Nematodes have a closed circulatory system.
  3. 3Haemerythrin is the respiratory pigment of prawns.
  4. 4The AV node acts as the pacemaker of the human heart.
  5. 5Snails have an open circulatory system with a ventral heart.
U5 · Circulation & blood
15.

A small lesion confined to the pons of the human brain stem would most likely disturb

  1. 1the control of heart rate.
  2. 2the regulation of the rhythm of breathing.
  3. 3the regulation of blood pressure.
  4. 4the interpretation of sensory information.
  5. 5the regulation of body temperature.
U5 · Nervous system
16.

Which of the following statements regarding the human ear is correct?

  1. 1The malleus fits into the oval window.
  2. 2A healthy young person hears sounds of 50–30 000 Hz.
  3. 3Sensory hair cells responsible for hearing are located in the organ of Corti.
  4. 4The pinna is supported by hyaline cartilage.
  5. 5The membranous labyrinth is filled with perilymph.
U5 · Sense organs
17.

Which of the following is produced by increased parasympathetic activity in humans?

  1. 1Dilation of the pupils
  2. 2Increased secretion by sweat glands
  3. 3Widening of the bronchi
  4. 4Slowing of the heart rate
  5. 5Breakdown of liver glycogen to glucose
U5 · Nervous system
18.

Which of the following statements about an action potential in a human neurone is correct?

  1. 1During repolarisation K⁺ ions enter the neurone.
  2. 2During depolarisation Na⁺ ions leave the neurone.
  3. 3A single action potential lasts about 10 milliseconds.
  4. 4A second action potential can be generated at the very instant the first one ends.
  5. 5The inside of the membrane becomes briefly positive with respect to the outside.
U5 · Nervous system
19.

Which of the following statements about human hormones is correct?

  1. 1Insulin is produced by α-cells of the islets of Langerhans.
  2. 2Cortisol is the principal mineralocorticoid of the adrenal cortex.
  3. 3Calcitonin raises the blood calcium level.
  4. 4Thyroxine increases the basal metabolic rate and heat production.
  5. 5Inhibin stimulates the secretion of FSH.
U5 · Endocrine system
20.

When a dwarf pea plant is treated with a certain growth substance its internodes lengthen markedly, and the same substance triggers hydrolytic enzyme synthesis in the aleurone layer of germinating barley. The substance is

  1. 1auxin.
  2. 2cytokinin.
  3. 3gibberellin.
  4. 4abscisic acid.
  5. 5ethylene.
U4 · Plant hormones & responses
21.

Which of the following statements regarding excretion is correct?

  1. 1In humans, urea is synthesised mainly in the kidneys.
  2. 2Nephridia occur only in the phylum Annelida.
  3. 3Producing urea allows the greatest conservation of water.
  4. 4Freshwater bony fishes excrete mainly uric acid.
  5. 5Nematodes possess a simple excretory system of longitudinal canals.
U5 · Excretion & osmoregulation
22.

Which of the following would NOT be expected as a major constituent of human breast milk?

  1. 1Casein
  2. 2Lactose
  3. 3Galactose as a free monosaccharide
  4. 4Calcium
  5. 5Fat
U5 · Reproduction & development
23.

Which one of the following statements about human ribs is correct?

  1. 1There are eleven pairs of ribs.
  2. 2Ribs are classified as short bones.
  3. 3The costal groove lies along the upper border of each rib.
  4. 4Each rib articulates at its posterior end with a thoracic vertebra.
  5. 5The first ten pairs of ribs join the sternum directly.
U5 · Skeleton, muscle & movement
24.

Which of the following statements regarding the bones of the human upper limb is correct?

  1. 1The ulna is shorter than the radius.
  2. 2The carpus consists of five bones.
  3. 3The humerus is the longest bone of the body.
  4. 4The lower end of the humerus articulates only with the radius.
  5. 5The head of the radius articulates with the radial notch of the ulna.
U5 · Skeleton, muscle & movement
25.

In a man, the hormone that exerts negative feedback specifically on FSH secretion is produced by

  1. 1Leydig (interstitial) cells.
  2. 2the prostate gland.
  3. 3Sertoli cells of the seminiferous tubules.
  4. 4the seminal vesicles.
  5. 5the bulbourethral glands.
U5 · Reproduction & development
26.

A pea tendril touching a stake coils around it. Which statement about this response is correct?

  1. 1It is a nastic response, independent of the direction of the stimulus.
  2. 2It results from unequal growth, cells on the side away from the contact elongating more.
  3. 3It is the same type of response as a pollen tube growing towards an ovule.
  4. 4Auxins play no part in it.
  5. 5It is mainly controlled by cytokinins.
U4 · Plant hormones & responses
27.

In a flowering plant, which of the following represents the male gametophyte?

  1. 1The microsporangium (pollen sac)
  2. 2The microspore mother cell
  3. 3The sperm nucleus
  4. 4The pollen grain
  5. 5The tapetum
U4 · Plant reproduction & life cycles
28.

Pure-breeding red-flowered and white-flowered four o'clock plants (Mirabilis jalapa) were crossed and every F1 plant had pink flowers. This pattern is due to

  1. 1codominance.
  2. 2incomplete dominance.
  3. 3multiple alleles.
  4. 4polygenic inheritance.
  5. 5complete dominance.
U6 · Extensions of Mendelian genetics
29.

Complete the statement: "Different forms of the same gene are termed ____; they originate through ____, most of which arise from errors during ____." Which choice fills the blanks correctly, in order?

  1. 1genotypes, variations, DNA replication
  2. 2alleles, mutations, DNA replication
  3. 3alleles, mutations, translation
  4. 4mutants, variations, protein synthesis
  5. 5heterozygotes, mutations, meiosis
U6 · Mutations
30.

Which of the following persons best illustrates Turner syndrome?

  1. 1A male with karyotype 47,XXY
  2. 2A female with karyotype 45,X
  3. 3A male with karyotype 47,XYY
  4. 4A female with karyotype 47,XXX
  5. 5A female with a point mutation on one X chromosome
U6 · Human genetics & disorders
31.

A transgenic (genetically modified) tomato plant differs from ordinary tomato plants because it

  1. 1contains an extra set of chromosomes.
  2. 2contains DNA introduced from another organism by recombinant DNA technology.
  3. 3is genetically identical to its parent plant.
  4. 4can never produce fertile offspring with other tomato plants.
  5. 5has better-regulated gene expression.
U7 · GMOs, biosafety & applications
32.

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate role of a genetic counsellor?

  1. 1Explaining the nature of a genetic disorder to an affected person
  2. 2Describing how the disorder is inherited to the affected person and family
  3. 3Recommending termination of a pregnancy whenever either parent is found to be a carrier
  4. 4Helping family members to cope with the condition
  5. 5Estimating the risk of the disorder appearing in future children
U6 · Human genetics & disorders
33.

In a grassland, gross primary productivity is 2500 kJ m⁻² yr⁻¹ and the energy available at the third trophic level is 12 kJ m⁻² yr⁻¹. If only 10% of energy passes from one trophic level to the next, how much energy (kJ m⁻² yr⁻¹) is used by the producers in respiration?

  1. 11200
  2. 21300
  3. 32380
  4. 42488
  5. 52250
U8 · Ecosystems & energy flow
34.

Large-scale clearing of forests is most directly linked to which of the following?

  1. 1A rise in the incidence of skin cancer
  2. 2Corrosion of marble and limestone statues
  3. 3A rise in sea level
  4. 4Accumulation of heavy metals in crops
  5. 5Narrowing of the geographical range of tropical diseases
U8 · Environmental issues & pollution
35.

The experiment in which Stanley Miller passed electric sparks through a mixture of methane, ammonia, hydrogen and water vapour showed that

  1. 1life can arise spontaneously from non-living matter.
  2. 2the primordial seas were rich in organic molecules.
  3. 3organic molecules such as amino acids can be formed from simple inorganic gases.
  4. 4all cells arise from pre-existing cells.
  5. 5life first appeared about 3500 million years ago.
U3 · Origin of life & evolution
36.

Which of the following correctly describes Nitrosomonas?

  1. 1A chemoautotroph that oxidises NH₄⁺ to NO₂⁻
  2. 2A chemoautotroph that oxidises NO₂⁻ to NO₃⁻
  3. 3A chemoheterotroph that reduces N₂ to NH₃
  4. 4A chemoautotroph that reduces NO₃⁻ to N₂
  5. 5A chemoheterotroph that oxidises NH₄⁺ to NO₂⁻
U9 · Environmental microbiology & waste treatment
37.

A culture medium has to include a vitamin solution that is destroyed by high temperature. Which is the best way to prepare the sterile medium?

  1. 1Autoclave the complete medium including the vitamin solution.
  2. 2Heat the complete medium at 70 °C for three hours.
  3. 3Autoclave the medium without the vitamin, sterilise the vitamin solution by membrane filtration (0.45 µm or smaller pores), then mix aseptically after cooling.
  4. 4Autoclave the vitamin solution and the rest of the medium separately and mix them after cooling.
  5. 5Mix all components and sterilise the flask with ultraviolet light.
U9 · Microbial growth & lab techniques
38.

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of fungi?

  1. 1Cell walls made of peptidoglycan
  2. 2Ingestion of food followed by internal digestion
  3. 3Heterotrophic nutrition by extracellular digestion and absorption
  4. 4Storage of food as starch
  5. 5Reproduction by endospores
U3 · Prokaryotes, protists & fungi
39.

Which of the following statements about sanitary landfills for municipal solid waste is correct?

  1. 1They are rarely used because they are very costly to operate.
  2. 2They involve filling wetlands with waste.
  3. 3Spreading, compacting and covering the waste reduces its volume.
  4. 4Their use is limited in areas where the groundwater table is deep.
  5. 5The buried waste does not decompose.
U8 · Environmental issues & pollution
40.

Consider these principles of food preservation:
P – keeping microorganisms from entering food
Q – slowing the multiplication of microorganisms already in food
R – destroying the microorganisms present in food
On which of these is canning mainly based?

  1. 1P, Q and R
  2. 2P and Q only
  3. 3P and R only
  4. 4Q and R only
  5. 5R only
U10 · Food science & postharvest
41.

Which of the following sequence(s) show(s) levels of biological organisation in correct ascending order?
A – Protein molecule, mitochondrion, liver cell, liver tissue, liver
B – Spotted deer, herd of spotted deer, all organisms of Yala, Yala ecosystem, biosphere
C – Myelin sheath, axon, neurone, spinal cord, nervous system
D – Glucose, glycogen granule, blood, erythrocyte, heart
E – Dog, Canidae, Carnivora, Mammalia, Chordata

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2A, B and C only
  3. 3A and C only
  4. 4B and E only
  5. 5A, B and E only
U1 · Characteristics of life & levels of organisation
42.

Which of the following organelle(s) take(s) part in the synthesis of glycolipids?
A – Lysosome
B – Golgi apparatus
C – Peroxisome
D – Endoplasmic reticulum
E – Mitochondrion

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2B and D only
  3. 3D only
  4. 4B, C and D only
  5. 5C and E only
U2 · Cell organelles & structure
43.

Which of the following is/are found ONLY in plant tissues?
A – Plasmodesmata
B – Desmosomes
C – Glyoxysomes
D – Peroxisomes
E – Lysosomes

  1. 1A only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3A and C only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5A, B and C only
U2 · Cell organelles & structure
44.

An ectothermic vertebrate excretes urea as its main nitrogenous waste. Which of the following could it possess?
A – Gills
B – Lungs
C – Feathers
D – A completely divided four-chambered heart
E – External ear (pinna)

  1. 1A only
  2. 2A and B only
  3. 3B and D only
  4. 4A, B and D only
  5. 5C, D and E only
U3 · Animal diversity
45.

Which of the following statements about absorption of the products of digestion in humans is/are correct?
A – Glucose is taken up into intestinal epithelial cells by active transport.
B – Triglycerides are re-formed inside the epithelial cells of the villi.
C – Amino acids pass from the epithelial cells into blood capillaries of the villi by diffusion.
D – Fatty acids and glycerol enter the lacteals directly.
E – Sucrose is absorbed intact into the epithelial cells.

  1. 1A, B and C only
  2. 2A and B only
  3. 3A, B and D only
  4. 4C, D and E only
  5. 5A and E only
U5 · Digestion & nutrition
46.

Which of the following statements about human red blood cells is/are correct?
A – In adults they are formed in red bone marrow.
B – They carry oxygen and part of the carbon dioxide.
C – Their diameter is about 12 µm.
D – Old cells are removed mainly in the spleen and liver.
E – A healthy adult man has about 2–3 million per mm³.

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A and B only
  3. 3B, C and D only
  4. 4A, D and E only
  5. 5A, B, D and E only
U5 · Circulation & blood
47.

Which of the following is/are actively reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule of the human nephron?
A – Glucose
B – Na⁺
C – Urea
D – Amino acids
E – K⁺

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A, B, D and E only
  3. 3A, B, C and D only
  4. 4B and E only
  5. 5A, B, C, D and E
U5 · Excretion & osmoregulation
48.

Which of the following statements about human skeletal muscle is/are correct?
A – It fatigues relatively quickly.
B – Its fibres are linked by gap junctions in intercalated discs.
C – Each myofibril contains many sarcomeres arranged in series.
D – It can be stretched (is extensible).
E – Its fibres are short and spindle-shaped.

  1. 1A, C and D only
  2. 2A and C only
  3. 3B, C and D only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5A, B and D only
U5 · Skeleton, muscle & movement
49.

Which of the following statements about the human uterus is/are correct?
A – Oestrogen increases the number of oxytocin receptors in the myometrium.
B – Progesterone stimulates strong contractions of the myometrium.
C – Implantation of the blastocyst begins about 6–7 days after fertilisation.
D – The endometrium is lined by stratified squamous epithelium.
E – Uterine gland secretions are the main source of nourishment for the foetus throughout pregnancy.

  1. 1A, B and C only
  2. 2A and C only
  3. 3C and E only
  4. 4A, C and E only
  5. 5B and D only
U5 · Reproduction & development
50.

Which line(s) correctly give(s) a characteristic feature of savanna, dry-mixed evergreen forest, tropical lowland rain forest and montane forest, IN THAT ORDER?
A – Fire-resistant trees; indistinct stratification; continuous closed canopy; evergreen trees
B – Continuous closed canopy; grasses dominant; stunted trees; deciduous trees
C – Evergreen trees; fire-resistant trees; indistinct stratification; xerophytes
D – Grasses dominant; fire-resistant trees; evergreen trees; indistinct stratification
E – Stunted trees; evergreen trees; indistinct stratification; twisted trunks

  1. 1A only
  2. 2A and D only
  3. 3B and C only
  4. 4A, D and E only
  5. 5D only
U8 · Biomes & Sri Lankan ecosystems
2018 · Paper IIStructured & essay
1A
Part A · Structured

(i) Explain briefly what is meant by each of the following characteristics of living organisms: (a) growth (b) development (c) reproduction.
(ii) Name the main type of organic compound present in each of the following: (a) albumen of a hen's egg (b) coconut milk (c) primary walls of plant cells (d) cuticle (exoskeleton) of an insect.
(iii) Name a laboratory test you would use to detect: (a) the main organic compound of egg albumen (b) the main organic compound of coconut milk (c) the main stored food of green algae (Chlorophyta).

1B
Part A · Structured

(i) Classify monosaccharides according to the number of carbon atoms they contain, giving one named example for each class.
(ii) Define a disaccharide.
(iii) (a) State the chemical property shared by all monosaccharides and certain disaccharides. (b) Describe a simple laboratory test to detect sugars having the property stated in (a), including the expected positive result.

1C
Part A · Structured

(i) Give the generic names of two seedless vascular plants that are homosporous.
(ii) Six animals are to be separated: a prawn, a garden snail, a leech, a liver fluke, a tapeworm and a sea cucumber. Construct a dichotomous key to identify them using the characters: tentacles, suckers, hooks, body segmentation and a large muscular foot.
(iii) Draw a labelled sketch of the external appearance of a pedicellaria of a starfish.
(iv) Name two classes of echinoderms whose members lack pedicellariae.

2A
Part A · Structured

(i) Apart from cnidarians and flatworms, name one class of animals whose members have an alimentary canal with only one opening.
(ii) (a) Describe the radula. (b) State its function.
(iii) (a) Explain why some plants are insectivorous. (b) Give the generic name of one aquatic insectivorous plant.
(iv) (a) Trace, in order, the route taken by air from the exterior to the alveoli in humans. (b) State the role of goblet cells in the respiratory tract.
(v) (a) Define a respiratory cycle. (b) State the volume of air inhaled during one quiet respiratory cycle of a healthy adult man at rest.

2B
Part A · Structured

(i) (a) Explain the term ultrafiltration as it occurs in the nephron. (b) Name one ion secreted into the lumen of the human nephron.
(ii) Apart from forming urine, state three functions of the human kidney.
(iii) Name the receptors in human skin that take part in thermoregulation.
(iv) (a) Name the structural and functional unit of the human liver. (b) State four ways in which the liver contributes to homeostasis.

2C
Part A · Structured

(i) State three factors responsible for the resting membrane potential of a neurone.
(ii) Which lobe of the cerebrum controls the muscle movements needed for speech?
(iii) (a) Define a hormone. (b) State the part(s) of the kidney tubule on which ADH acts.
(iv) Give two main differences between nervous and endocrine coordination.
(v) (a) Describe the paranasal sinuses of the human skull. (b) Name a bone containing a sinus that is not a cranial bone. (c) State two functions of these sinuses.
(vi) Name the two processes on the ramus of the human mandible and state the function of each.

3A
Part A · Structured

(i) Where is the pacemaker of the human heart located?
(ii) Name the first arteries that branch from the aorta and the structure they supply.
(iii) Explain how the blood circulatory system helps to keep human body temperature constant in hot and in cold conditions.
(iv) Taking both the ABO and Rh systems into account, state the blood group of (a) a universal donor (b) a universal recipient.

3B
Part A · Structured

In a stained section of a young plant organ, P is a central star-shaped tissue with four radiating arms, Q is a tissue in separate groups lying between those arms, R is a single ring of barrel-shaped cells enclosing the vascular cylinder, and S is the layer of cells immediately inside R.
(i) Identify the organ and the type of section.
(ii) (a) Name tissues P, Q, R and S. (b) Which tissue would stain red with safranin?
(iii) Draw and label a few cells of tissue R at maturity.
(iv) Explain the features that make gymnosperms more successful on land than bryophytes.
(v) Apart from propagating plants with desired traits, state three uses of plant tissue culture.

3C
Part A · Structured

(i) State the main purpose of observing a methylene-blue-stained bacterial smear under high power.
(ii) (a) Name the arrangements of cocci seen as: single cells; groups of four; chains; irregular grape-like clusters. (b) Name two ways in which bacilli may be arranged.
(iii) (a) What are prions? (b) State ways by which prions may be transmitted between humans.
(iv) What term is used for members of the normal human microbiota that cause disease when body resistance falls?
(v) Give four factors that lower the general resistance of the human body to infection.

4A
Part A · Structured

(i) (a) Define the placenta. (b) Name the type of placenta found in humans.
(ii) (a) Name one substance that crosses the placenta in both directions between mother and foetus. (b) Name one virus that can cross the placenta.
(iii) (a) Name a hormone produced only by the placenta. (b) Apart from hormone secretion and exchange of materials, state two functions of the placenta.
(iv) (a) Define lactation. (b) Name two hormones directly involved in it.
(v) Explain the cause of menopause.

4B
Part A · Structured

(i) State the site of oxidative phosphorylation in a eukaryotic cell.
(ii) Outline the events of oxidative phosphorylation.
(iii) Name three enzymes that take part in DNA replication and give one function of each.
(iv) State three crop-protection traits that have been introduced into crop plants by genetic modification.

4C
Part A · Structured

(i) Explain why the study of environmental science is important.
(ii) Define in-situ conservation.
(iii) Apart from declaring national reserves, give three methods of in-situ conservation.
(iv) What is the Ramsar Convention?
(v) Name two Ramsar wetlands in the north-western part of Sri Lanka.

2018 · Answers & reviewsMEDVision answers

Answer key — this booklet

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Answer key — original 2018 paper (MEDVision model answers)

For students working from the original paper. Shaded cells: check against the official marking scheme (amber = likely, red = disputed).

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Paper I — reviews

1
Answer 3 At metaphase the chromosomes are arranged at the metaphase (equatorial) plate, attached to spindle fibres by their kinetochores. Chromatin condensation belongs to prophase, chromatid separation to anaphase, and reappearance of nucleolus/envelope to telophase.
2
Answer 4 Cell wall, chloroplasts, vacuole and nucleus are readily visible with a light microscope. Mitochondria are about 1 µm, close to the resolution limit, and are not distinguishable in a typical unstained plant cell.
3
Answer 4 Regenerating PEP from pyruvate (pyruvate phosphate dikinase) in C4 mesophyll cells consumes ATP. Photolysis is light-driven, gas movement is diffusion, and the carboxylation reactions by PEP carboxylase and rubisco themselves need no ATP.
4
Answer 3 Elemental composition is not constant across organisms. Only about 20–25 of the 92 natural elements are essential, trace elements are present in very small amounts (<0.01% of mass), iron is a trace element, and the six major elements are C, H, O, N, P and S.
5
Answer 5 Dissolving solutes depends on the polarity of water (its solvent property), not on cohesion and adhesion. Xylem transport, soil water uptake and turgor-based support involve hydrogen-bonded water columns and water clinging to walls.
6
Answer 1 Trimerous flowers indicate a monocot, an angiosperm with seeds in fruits, a dominant sporophyte, eukaryotic multiple RNA polymerases and scattered bundles. Branched membrane lipids are archaeal, formyl-methionine start is bacterial, naked seeds are gymnosperm and free-living photosynthetic gametophytes belong to bryophytes and ferns.
7
Answer 3 Non-flagellate unicellular protists such as Amoeba or Plasmodium are heterotrophs. Protists are eukaryotes without peptidoglycan walls, and producing flagellated zoospores contradicts the description.
8
Answer 2 Linnaeus formally recognised the two kingdoms Plantae and Animalia. Viruses are excluded because they are acellular, Protista is an artificial (polyphyletic) group, a species shares more features than a genus, and Carl Woese proposed the three domains.
9
Answer 3 The description fits a mollusc such as a snail or squid, which respires with gills (ctenidia). Pinnules and spines are echinoderm features, jointed antennae belong to arthropods, and cnidocytes to cnidarians.
10
Answer 4 Parasympathetic (vagal) impulses stimulate gastric juice secretion. The longitudinal layer is outermost, crypts lie between villi, CCK (not secretin) contracts the gall bladder, and microvilli require an electron microscope.
11
Answer 3 The medullary inspiratory centre sends impulses to the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles. Respiratory centres are in the medulla and pons, a FALL in pH stimulates chemoreceptors, and stretch receptors inhibit inspiration.
12
Answer 3 Transpiration pull creates tension so the xylem sap moves upward under a negative pressure (cohesion–tension theory). The flow is one-way and passive, while pressure flow explains phloem translocation.
13
Answer 2 A vessel element is broad with a wide lumen and numerous pits; a sclerenchyma fibre is elongated, extremely thick-walled with a narrow lumen and few or no pits. The trap is choosing tracheid, but tracheids are well pitted for water conduction.
14
Answer 1 The mitral (bicuspid) valve lies between the left atrium and left ventricle. Nematodes lack a circulatory system, crustaceans use haemocyanin, the SA node is the pacemaker and molluscs have a dorsal heart.
15
Answer 2 The pons contains the pneumotaxic and apneustic centres that adjust ventilation. Heart rate and blood pressure are medullary functions, sensory interpretation is cortical and temperature control is hypothalamic.
16
Answer 3 Hair cells of the organ of Corti in the cochlea are the auditory receptors. The stapes fits the oval window, hearing range is about 20–20 000 Hz, the pinna is elastic cartilage and the membranous labyrinth contains endolymph.
17
Answer 4 Vagal (parasympathetic) impulses slow the heart. Pupil dilation, sweating, bronchodilation and glycogenolysis are sympathetic responses.
18
Answer 5 An action potential is a transient reversal of membrane polarity. Depolarisation is due to Na⁺ influx and repolarisation to K⁺ efflux, it lasts about 1–2 ms, and the refractory period prevents an immediate second spike.
19
Answer 4 Thyroxine raises the metabolic rate and heat generation. Insulin is from β-cells, aldosterone is the main mineralocorticoid, calcitonin lowers blood Ca²⁺ and inhibin inhibits FSH.
20
Answer 3 Gibberellins promote internode elongation and induce α-amylase synthesis in the aleurone during cereal germination. Abscisic acid has the opposite (dormancy-promoting) effect.
21
Answer 5 Nematodes have a simple (H-shaped) system of longitudinal excretory canals. Urea is made in the liver, protonephridia also occur in flatworms, uric acid gives the greatest water saving, and freshwater fish excrete ammonia.
22
Answer 3 The sugar of milk is the disaccharide lactose; free galactose is not a normal major component. Casein, lactose, calcium and fat (fatty acids) are typical constituents.
23
Answer 4 All twelve pairs of ribs articulate posteriorly with thoracic vertebrae. Ribs are flat bones, the costal groove is on the inferior border and only the first seven pairs (true ribs) attach directly to the sternum.
24
Answer 5 The radial head articulates with the ulna at the proximal radio-ulnar joint. The ulna is the longer forearm bone, there are eight carpals, the femur is the longest bone and the distal humerus articulates with both radius and ulna.
25
Answer 3 Inhibin is secreted by Sertoli cells in the testes and inhibits FSH release. Leydig cells, also in the testis, secrete testosterone, which is the main trap.
26
Answer 2 Thigmotropism involves differential (unequal) growth on the contact and opposite sides, mediated by auxin. Pollen tube growth towards the ovule is chemotropism.
27
Answer 4 The pollen grain, containing a tube cell and a generative cell, is the male gametophyte. The microspore is only its first cell and the pollen sac is the microsporangium, a sporophytic structure.
28
Answer 2 An F1 phenotype intermediate between the two parents indicates incomplete dominance. In codominance both parental traits would be expressed side by side, for example red and white patches.
29
Answer 2 Alternative forms of a gene are alleles, and they arise by mutation, mostly from errors in DNA replication. Errors in transcription or translation affect RNA or protein, not the inherited gene.
30
Answer 2 Turner syndrome is 45,XO: a phenotypic female with a single X chromosome. 47,XXY is Klinefelter syndrome, and XYY and triple X are separate conditions.
31
Answer 2 A GMO carries one or more foreign genes inserted by recombinant DNA technology. Clones are genetically identical to the source, and GMOs are not defined by polyploidy or sterility.
32
Answer 3 Genetic counselling is non-directive; counsellors give information and support but do not instruct couples to terminate a pregnancy, least of all merely because a parent is a carrier.
33
Answer 2 Working back at 10% transfer: 12 at level 3 means 120 at level 2 and NPP = 1200. Respiration = GPP − NPP = 2500 − 1200 = 1300 kJ m⁻² yr⁻¹; 1200 is the NPP trap.
34
Answer 3 Deforestation adds to atmospheric CO₂, intensifying global warming, melting ice and raising sea level. Skin cancer relates to ozone depletion and corrosion of limestone to acid rain.
35
Answer 3 Miller's apparatus produced amino acids from inorganic gases under simulated early-Earth conditions. It did not prove spontaneous generation, support cell theory or date the origin of life.
36
Answer 1 Nitrosomonas is a chemoautotroph that oxidises ammonium to nitrite, using the energy to fix CO₂. Nitrobacter oxidises nitrite to nitrate, and denitrifiers reduce nitrate to N₂.
37
Answer 3 Heat-stable components are autoclaved, the heat-labile solution is filter-sterilised and both are combined aseptically after cooling. Autoclaving destroys the vitamin, and UV cannot sterilise a bulk liquid.
38
Answer 3 Fungi are absorptive heterotrophs that secrete enzymes and absorb the products. Their walls are chitin, they store glycogen and oil, and endospores are bacterial.
39
Answer 3 In a sanitary landfill waste is spread, compacted and covered, reducing its volume at relatively low cost. Wetlands and HIGH water tables are unsuitable, and the waste decomposes anaerobically producing gas and leachate.
40
Answer 3 Canning kills microbes by heat (R) and the hermetic seal stops recontamination (P). It does not depend on merely slowing the growth of surviving microbes (Q).
41
Answer 1 A runs molecule → organelle → cell → tissue → organ and B runs organism → population → community → ecosystem → biosphere. C and D are out of order, and E is a taxonomic hierarchy, not levels of organisation.
42
Answer 2 The lipid part is made in the endoplasmic reticulum and carbohydrate chains are added and modified in the Golgi apparatus. Lysosomes, peroxisomes and mitochondria do not assemble glycolipids.
43
Answer 3 Plasmodesmata and glyoxysomes (fat-to-sugar conversion in germinating seeds) are plant features. Desmosomes and lysosomes are animal features, and peroxisomes occur in both.
44
Answer 2 Ureotelic ectotherms include cartilaginous fishes (gills) and adult amphibians (lungs). Feathers and a fully divided four-chambered heart belong to birds or crocodilians, which excrete mainly uric acid, and a pinna is mammalian.
45
Answer 1 Glucose is actively absorbed, triglycerides are resynthesised in enterocytes, and amino acids leave the cells into capillaries by (facilitated) diffusion. Fats enter lacteals as chylomicrons, not as fatty acids and glycerol, and disaccharides are hydrolysed before absorption.
46
Answer 1 RBCs are made in red marrow, carry O₂ and some CO₂, and are destroyed in the spleen and liver. Their diameter is about 7.5 µm and the adult male count is about 4.5–6.5 million/mm³.
47
Answer 2 Na⁺, K⁺, glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed actively (or by co-transport) in the PCT. Urea is reabsorbed passively by diffusion, which is the trap.
48
Answer 1 Skeletal muscle fatigues easily, its myofibrils are chains of sarcomeres and it is extensible. Gap junctions and intercalated discs are cardiac features, and short spindle-shaped fibres describe smooth muscle.
49
Answer 2 Oestrogen induces oxytocin receptors and implantation starts around day 6–7. Progesterone suppresses contractions, the endometrium has simple columnar epithelium, and uterine secretions nourish only the very early embryo before the placenta takes over.
50
Answer 1 Only A matches each forest type correctly. The others misplace features, for example indistinct stratification for montane or rain forest, or stunted trees for savanna.

Paper II — marking points

1A
  1. Growth: irreversible increase in dry mass/size of an organism (cell number/size)
  2. Development: changes in form and function during life, involving differentiation and specialisation of cells
  3. Reproduction: producing new individuals of the same kind to continue the species
  4. Egg white – protein; coconut milk – lipid (fat)
  5. Primary cell wall – carbohydrate (cellulose, polysaccharide); arthropod exoskeleton – carbohydrate (chitin, with protein)
  6. Test for egg-white protein: Biuret test (violet/purple colour)
  7. Test for coconut-milk lipid: Sudan III test (red-stained oil droplets/layer) or grease-spot test
  8. Main storage substance of Chlorophyta is starch – iodine test (blue-black)
1B
  1. Triose (3C) – glyceraldehyde/dihydroxyacetone
  2. Tetrose (4C) – erythrose
  3. Pentose (5C) – ribose/deoxyribose/ribulose
  4. Hexose (6C) – glucose/fructose/galactose
  5. Disaccharide: sugar formed by condensation of two monosaccharides joined by a glycosidic bond (e.g. maltose, sucrose, lactose)
  6. Common feature: reducing property (free aldehyde/ketone group acting as reducing agent)
  7. Benedict's test: add equal volume of Benedict's reagent to sample solution, heat in a boiling water bath ~2–5 min
  8. Positive result: blue → green/yellow/orange/brick-red precipitate (Cu²⁺ reduced to Cu₂O)
  9. Include a control (water) for comparison
1C
  1. Homosporous seedless vascular plants: Lycopodium, Nephrolepis/Pteris/Dryopteris (ferns), Psilotum, Equisetum (any two)
  2. Animals: (a) prawn, (b) snail, (c) leech, (d) liver fluke, (e) tapeworm, (f) sea cucumber
  3. Key 1: tentacles present → 5; tentacles absent → 2
  4. Key 2: suckers present → 3; suckers absent → (a) prawn
  5. Key 3: hooks present → (e) tapeworm; hooks absent → 4
  6. Key 4: segmented body → (c) leech; unsegmented body → (d) liver fluke
  7. Key 5: large foot present → (b) snail; large foot absent → (f) sea cucumber
  8. Pedicellaria drawing: small stalk (with muscles) bearing two/three movable jaws (pincers) at tip
  9. Classes without pedicellaria: Holothuroidea, Crinoidea, Ophiuroidea (any two)
2A
  1. Class with incomplete alimentary canal (besides cnidarians/flatworms): Ophiuroidea (brittle stars)
  2. Radula: chitinous ribbon bearing rows of teeth in the buccal cavity of molluscs (not bivalves)
  3. Use of radula: scraping/rasping food and carrying it into the mouth
  4. Insectivorous plants grow in nitrogen-poor soils; trap and digest insects to obtain nitrogen (and minerals)
  5. Aquatic insectivorous plant: Utricularia
  6. Air path: nostrils → nasal cavity → pharynx → larynx → trachea → bronchi → bronchioles → terminal/respiratory bronchioles → alveolar ducts → alveoli
  7. Goblet cells secrete mucus that traps dust and microorganisms and moistens the airway
  8. Respiratory cycle: one inspiration followed by one expiration
  9. Tidal volume ≈ 500 ml (0.5 dm³)
2B
  1. Ultrafiltration: filtration of blood plasma under high hydrostatic pressure from glomerular capillaries into Bowman's capsule; blood cells and large proteins retained
  2. Ions secreted into nephron lumen: H⁺, K⁺ (also NH₄⁺, HCO₃⁻ in some cases)
  3. Other kidney functions: osmoregulation (water balance), pH (acid–base) regulation, secretion of erythropoietin/renin, activation of vitamin D, blood pressure regulation (any three)
  4. Thermoreceptors: hot (heat) receptors and cold receptors (free nerve endings/Ruffini and Krause end bulbs)
  5. Functional unit of liver: liver lobule
  6. Homeostatic roles: regulation of blood glucose (glycogenesis/glycogenolysis/gluconeogenesis), deamination & urea formation, detoxification, regulation of plasma proteins, lipid/cholesterol regulation, heat production, storage of vitamins/iron (any four)
2C
  1. Resting potential factors: Na⁺/K⁺ pump (3 Na⁺ out, 2 K⁺ in); greater membrane permeability to K⁺ than Na⁺ (K⁺ leak); large negatively charged proteins/anions inside the cell
  2. Frontal lobe (Broca's area) controls speech muscle movements
  3. Hormone: chemical messenger secreted in small amounts by endocrine cells into blood and acting on distant target cells
  4. ADH acts on the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct (increases water permeability)
  5. Nervous: electrical impulses via neurones, rapid, short-lived, localised; Endocrine: chemical via blood, slower, long-lasting, widespread
  6. Sinuses: air-filled cavities in some skull bones, lined with mucous membrane and opening into the nasal cavity
  7. Bone with sinuses not part of cranium: maxilla
  8. Functions: lighten the skull; resonance of voice (also warm/moisten air)
  9. Mandible processes: coronoid process – attachment of temporalis muscle; condylar process – articulates with temporal bone (temporomandibular joint)
3A
  1. Pacemaker (SA node) is in the wall of the right atrium near the opening of the superior vena cava
  2. First branches of aorta: coronary arteries (right and left) supplying the heart muscle (myocardium)
  3. Circulation distributes heat from metabolically active organs (liver, muscle) throughout the body
  4. In heat: vasodilation of skin arterioles increases blood flow to skin, increasing heat loss
  5. In cold: vasoconstriction reduces skin blood flow, conserving heat; blood flow diverted to core
  6. Universal donor: O Rh-negative (O⁻)
  7. Universal recipient: AB Rh-positive (AB⁺)
3B
  1. Structure: transverse section of a (young) dicot root
  2. P – xylem; Q – phloem; R – endodermis; S – pericycle
  3. Tissue stained red by safranin: xylem (lignified walls)
  4. Drawing of mature endodermis: compact barrel-shaped cells without intercellular spaces, with Casparian strips/suberised thickened walls and passage cells opposite xylem
  5. Gymnosperm success over bryophytes: dominant sporophyte with true roots, stem, leaves; well-developed vascular tissue (xylem, phloem)
  6. Thick cuticle, stomata, lignified support allowing tall growth
  7. Seeds with protective coat and food store; pollen grains so fertilisation is independent of water
  8. Reduced, dependent gametophytes protected within sporophyte
  9. Tissue culture uses: production of disease (virus)-free plants; germplasm conservation; production of secondary metabolites; producing haploid plants/somatic hybrids; genetic engineering of plants; rapid multiplication of plants difficult to propagate (any three)
3C
  1. Purpose: to observe the shape (morphology) and arrangement of bacterial cells
  2. A – coccus (single/monococcus); B – tetrad (tetracocci); C – streptococci (chain); D – staphylococci (irregular cluster)
  3. Bacilli arrangements: single bacilli and streptobacilli (chains) (also diplobacilli)
  4. Prions: infectious, misfolded protein particles without nucleic acid that convert normal proteins into abnormal form (cause CJD, kuru)
  5. Transmission: contaminated surgical instruments, tissue/organ transplants (corneal, dura), blood transfusion, consuming infected nervous tissue (cannibalism), growth hormone from cadavers
  6. Such microbes are opportunistic pathogens
  7. Lowered resistance: malnutrition, old age/infancy, stress and fatigue, immunodeficiency diseases (HIV), chronic illness (diabetes, cancer), immunosuppressive drugs/chemotherapy, prolonged antibiotic use, alcohol/smoking, injuries/burns (any four)
4A
  1. Placenta: temporary organ formed from foetal (chorion) and maternal (endometrium) tissues for exchange between mother and foetus
  2. Human placenta type: haemochorial (chorionic/discoid) placenta
  3. Material crossing both ways: water (also hormones); e.g. O₂ in, CO₂/urea out
  4. Virus crossing placenta: HIV, rubella virus (also hepatitis B, cytomegalovirus)
  5. Hormone only from placenta: human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) (or human placental lactogen)
  6. Other functions: barrier against some pathogens/harmful substances; transfer of maternal antibodies (passive immunity); anchoring foetus; storage (glycogen, iron)
  7. Lactation: secretion and ejection of milk from mammary glands after childbirth
  8. Hormones: prolactin (milk production) and oxytocin (milk ejection)
  9. Menopause: depletion of ovarian follicles so ovaries stop responding/secreting oestrogen and progesterone, ending menstrual cycles
4B
  1. Site: inner mitochondrial membrane (cristae)
  2. NADH and FADH₂ donate electrons to the electron transport chain
  3. Electrons pass along carriers, releasing energy used to pump H⁺ into the intermembrane space
  4. Proton gradient drives H⁺ back through ATP synthase, phosphorylating ADP to ATP (chemiosmosis)
  5. O₂ is the final electron acceptor, combining with H⁺ to form water
  6. Helicase – unwinds the double helix by breaking hydrogen bonds
  7. DNA polymerase – adds nucleotides to the 3′ end of new strand (and proofreads)
  8. Primase – makes RNA primer; ligase – joins Okazaki fragments (also topoisomerase relieves strain)
  9. GM traits: insect/pest resistance (Bt toxin), herbicide resistance, virus/disease resistance (also drought/salinity tolerance)
4C
  1. Environmental science helps understand interactions of humans with the environment, identify problems and find solutions for sustainable use and conservation
  2. In-situ conservation: conserving species within their natural habitats
  3. Methods (other than national reserves): sanctuaries, forest reserves, biosphere reserves, conservation of wetlands/mangroves, protecting sacred groves, community conservation areas, legal protection of species (any three)
  4. Ramsar convention: international treaty (1971, Ramsar, Iran) for conservation and wise use of wetlands of international importance
  5. NW Sri Lanka Ramsar sites: Wilpattu wetland cluster, Vankalai Sanctuary (also Anawilundawa, Mannar area)

Scan notes: Old-syllabus 2018 paper. Paper I complete (Q1-50). Paper II Part A (Q1-4) present; Part B essay page (Q5-10) missing from scan, so essays are omitted. Low-confidence MCQs: Q7 (diatoms make option 2 arguable), Q44, Q45.

2019 (Old)

G.C.E. (Advanced Level) — Biology

Old syllabus (pre-2019) · Re-set practice paper

Paper I50 MCQs · 2 hoursAnswer all. Choose the one correct or most suitable option.
Paper II25 parts in this booklet · 3 hoursPart A: answer all structured questions. Part B: answer four essays.

Every question tests the same concept as question of the same number in the 2019 (Old) paper, re-written by MEDVision. Source coverage: Paper I + full Paper II.

2019 (Old) · Paper IMultiple choice
1.

A researcher proposes that a fungicide reduces leaf-spot disease in chilli plants and tests the idea through several trials. Which statement about the scientific method is correct?

  1. 1Every scientific investigation must include a control group.
  2. 2A theory, once accepted, can never be modified.
  3. 3A hypothesis repeatedly supported by experimental evidence gains acceptance, but it is never proven absolutely.
  4. 4Predictions are not required in order to test a hypothesis.
  5. 5A hypothesis is formulated only after experiments have been completed.
U1 · Characteristics of life & levels of organisation
2.

Which of the following correctly matches a property of water with its biological significance?

  1. 1High specific heat capacity: cooling of the human body by sweating
  2. 2Adhesion: pond skaters walking on the water surface
  3. 3High latent heat of fusion: cell contents and water bodies resist freezing because much heat must be lost before ice forms
  4. 4Cohesion: dissolving of ionic compounds in the cytoplasm
  5. 5High latent heat of vaporisation: stable temperature of large lakes throughout the day
U2 · Biomolecules & water
3.

Which statement about eukaryotic cell organelles is correct?

  1. 1The Golgi apparatus is the main site of steroid hormone synthesis.
  2. 2Ribosomes are composed of protein and transfer RNA.
  3. 3Rough endoplasmic reticulum consists mainly of branched tubules with no cisternae.
  4. 4Peroxisomes contain enzymes that transfer hydrogen from substrates to oxygen, producing hydrogen peroxide.
  5. 5Lysosomes are bounded by a double membrane.
U2 · Cell organelles & structure
4.

The lining of the urinary bladder must prevent urine from seeping between its epithelial cells. Which statement about cell junctions is correct?

  1. 1Gap junctions are the main junctions found between plant cell walls.
  2. 2Anchoring junctions allow ions to pass directly between the cytoplasm of adjacent cells.
  3. 3Plasmodesmata connect adjacent animal epithelial cells.
  4. 4Desmosomes form a continuous seal that stops fluid leaking between epithelial cells.
  5. 5Tight junctions bind neighbouring plasma membranes so closely that extracellular fluid cannot leak between the cells.
U2 · Cell organelles & structure
5.

Which of the following correctly describes an event in the eukaryotic cell cycle?

  1. 1The nuclear envelope re-forms during anaphase.
  2. 2DNA replication takes place during the G₂ phase.
  3. 3Chromosomes first begin to condense during telophase.
  4. 4The centromeres of the chromosomes lie on the equatorial plane during metaphase.
  5. 5The spindle first begins to form during anaphase.
U2 · Cell cycle, mitosis & meiosis
6.

Which statement about glycolysis is correct?

  1. 1Glycolysis takes place in the cytosol whether or not oxygen is present.
  2. 2Glucose is converted to fructose‑1,6‑bisphosphate without the use of ATP.
  3. 3There is a net gain of four ATP per glucose molecule.
  4. 4Glycolysis occurs in the mitochondrial matrix.
  5. 5The end product of glycolysis is acetyl coenzyme A.
U2 · Cellular respiration & fermentation
7.

Which statement about the Krebs cycle is correct?

  1. 1The Krebs cycle takes place in the cytosol.
  2. 2The Krebs cycle can continue indefinitely in the absence of oxygen.
  3. 3Most of the ATP of aerobic respiration is formed directly in the Krebs cycle.
  4. 4FADH₂ is oxidised within the Krebs cycle to form ATP directly.
  5. 5Carbon dioxide is released in decarboxylation reactions of the cycle in the mitochondrial matrix.
U2 · Cellular respiration & fermentation
8.

Which generalisation is true for Kingdom Protista as classified in the A/L syllabus?

  1. 1None of its members has a cell wall.
  2. 2All of its multicellular members are photosynthetic.
  3. 3None of its members possesses cilia.
  4. 4All its members share a single common ancestor (monophyletic).
  5. 5None of its members stores starch.
U3 · Prokaryotes, protists & fungi
9.

A taxonomist wants to group a set of birds according to their evolutionary relationships. Which criterion is most suitable?

  1. 1Number of toes on each foot
  2. 2Similarity of nucleotide sequences in their ribosomal RNA genes
  3. 3Colour of the feathers
  4. 4Presence or absence of a crest
  5. 5Length of the beak
U3 · Classification & taxonomy
10.

Which statement is true for Kingdom Plantae?

  1. 1All heterosporous plants are independent of water for fertilisation.
  2. 2All homosporous plants lack vascular tissue.
  3. 3In all tracheophytes, the sporophyte is the dominant generation.
  4. 4All seed plants produce flowers.
  5. 5The gametophytes of all seedless vascular plants are non-photosynthetic.
U3 · Plant diversity
11.

A student wishes to place an unknown flatworm in its correct class using a single feature. Which feature is most suitable?

  1. 1Presence of a mouth
  2. 2Presence of eye spots
  3. 3Dorso-ventrally flattened body
  4. 4Nature of the body surface: ciliated epidermis or non-ciliated tegument
  5. 5Leaf-like body shape
U3 · Animal diversity
12.

In a transverse section of part of the human small intestine, which feature confirms that the section is from the duodenum?

  1. 1Glands in the submucosa that secrete alkaline mucus
  2. 2Villi projecting into the lumen
  3. 3Lacteals in the villi
  4. 4Inner circular and outer longitudinal muscle layers
  5. 5Goblet cells in the epithelium
U5 · Digestion & nutrition
13.

A red blood cell enters the liver through the hepatic artery. Which sequence correctly shows its route to a lung?

  1. 1hepatic artery → hepatic portal vein → inferior vena cava → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary artery
  2. 2hepatic artery → liver sinusoids → hepatic vein → inferior vena cava → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary artery
  3. 3hepatic artery → hepatic vein → superior vena cava → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary vein
  4. 4hepatic artery → liver sinusoids → hepatic vein → inferior vena cava → left atrium → left ventricle → aorta
  5. 5hepatic artery → hepatic portal vein → hepatic vein → inferior vena cava → right atrium → pulmonary vein
U5 · Circulation & blood
14.

Which white blood cell is correctly matched with its function?

  1. 1Basophil: production of antibodies
  2. 2Neutrophil: release of heparin
  3. 3Eosinophil: defence against parasitic worms and moderation of allergic reactions
  4. 4B lymphocyte: phagocytosis of bacteria
  5. 5Monocyte: release of histamine
U5 · Immunity
15.

Which statement about the movement of water and ions in flowering plants is correct?

  1. 1Uptake of K⁺ into guard cells is driven by ATP-powered proton pumps, lowering their water potential.
  2. 2The Casparian strip of the endodermis stops all ions from entering the xylem.
  3. 3The vacuolar pathway offers the least resistance to water movement across the root cortex.
  4. 4When stomata open, K⁺ ions move out of the guard cells.
  5. 5Mineral ions enter root hair cells only by simple diffusion.
U4 · Water relations & transport
16.

Which statement about translocation in the phloem is correct?

  1. 1Glucose is the main sugar transported in phloem.
  2. 2Loading of sucrose into sieve tubes is passive and needs no ATP.
  3. 3Phloem sap contains no inorganic ions.
  4. 4Translocation occurs only downwards, from the leaves to the roots.
  5. 5Plant hormones and systemic pesticides can be carried in the phloem, both upwards and downwards.
U4 · Water relations & transport
17.

A human spinal nerve is best described as containing

  1. 1only axons of motor neurones.
  2. 2only dendrons of sensory neurones.
  3. 3cell bodies of both sensory and motor neurones.
  4. 4long dendrites (dendrons) of sensory neurones and axons of motor neurones.
  5. 5axons of interneurones only.
U5 · Nervous system
18.

Which statement about the human autonomic nervous system is correct?

  1. 1Sympathetic preganglionic fibres are longer than the postganglionic fibres.
  2. 2Both sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions supply cardiac muscle, smooth muscle and glands.
  3. 3Sweat glands of the skin receive both sympathetic and parasympathetic fibres.
  4. 4The parasympathetic division predominates in a stressful situation.
  5. 5Sympathetic stimulation increases digestive secretions.
U5 · Nervous system
19.

Which of the following receptor–stimulus type pairings is INCORRECT?

  1. 1Rods of the retina: photoreceptors
  2. 2Hair cells of the organ of Corti: mechanoreceptors
  3. 3Olfactory cells of the nasal epithelium: mechanoreceptors
  4. 4Taste receptor cells: chemoreceptors
  5. 5Pacinian corpuscles: mechanoreceptors
U5 · Sense organs
20.

Which statement about antidiuretic hormone (ADH) in humans is correct?

  1. 1ADH makes the distal tubule and collecting duct more permeable to water, producing a small volume of concentrated urine.
  2. 2ADH is synthesised in the posterior pituitary.
  3. 3ADH secretion increases when blood osmotic pressure falls.
  4. 4ADH causes arterioles to dilate.
  5. 5ADH acts mainly on the proximal convoluted tubule.
U5 · Excretion & osmoregulation
21.

In a healthy person, which component of blood plasma is largely retained in the glomerular capillaries during ultrafiltration?

  1. 1Glucose
  2. 2Albumin
  3. 3Urea
  4. 4Amino acids
  5. 5Sodium ions
U5 · Excretion & osmoregulation
22.

Which statement about the human skull is correct?

  1. 1The cranium consists of 14 bones.
  2. 2The maxilla is the only movable bone of the skull.
  3. 3The frontal bone contributes to both the forehead (face) and the cranium.
  4. 4The zygomatic arch is formed entirely by the zygomatic bone.
  5. 5The nasal bones contain air sinuses.
U5 · Skeleton, muscle & movement
23.

Which statement about the bones and joints of the human upper limb is correct?

  1. 1The glenoid cavity is part of the humerus.
  2. 2All eight carpals articulate with the radius.
  3. 3The phalanges articulate directly with the carpals.
  4. 4The elbow joint is formed by the humerus and scapula.
  5. 5The saddle joint between the trapezium and the first metacarpal allows the thumb to be opposed.
U5 · Skeleton, muscle & movement
24.

Consider the following statements about the smooth muscle of the wall of the human small intestine.
A – Its cells are spindle-shaped.
B – Each cell has a single, centrally placed nucleus.
C – Its cells are branched.
D – Its cells show cross-striations due to sarcomeres.
E – It contracts slowly and is slow to fatigue.
Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2A, B and E only
  3. 3A, C and E only
  4. 4B, D and E only
  5. 5C and D only
U5 · Animal tissues
25.

Which statement about plant movements is correct?

  1. 1Nastic movements depend on the direction of the stimulus.
  2. 2Growth of a pollen tube towards the ovule is a thigmotropism.
  3. 3Tropisms are directional growth curvatures of a plant part caused by unequal distribution of auxin.
  4. 4Tropic responses involve movement of the whole plant.
  5. 5Folding of Mimosa leaflets when touched is a tropism.
U4 · Plant hormones & responses
26.

Which of the following pairings of an asexual reproduction method and an organism is INCORRECT?

  1. 1Multiple fission: Spirogyra
  2. 2Binary fission: Paramecium
  3. 3Budding: yeast
  4. 4Multiple fission: Plasmodium
  5. 5Sporangiospore formation: Rhizopus
U5 · Reproduction & development
27.

In man, spermatozoa become motile and gain the ability to fertilise (mature) mainly while they are in the

  1. 1seminiferous tubules.
  2. 2vas deferens.
  3. 3epididymis.
  4. 4seminal vesicles.
  5. 5rete testis.
U5 · Reproduction & development
28.

Which feature of sexual reproduction is shared by all land plants (embryophytes)?

  1. 1All need external water for fertilisation.
  2. 2All are heterosporous.
  3. 3The gametophyte is the dominant generation in all of them.
  4. 4All produce pollen tubes.
  5. 5The egg is retained and fertilised within a female structure of the parent plant.
U4 · Plant reproduction & life cycles
29.

Which statement about the life cycle of Pogonatum is correct?

  1. 1The sporophyte is independent and lives longer than the gametophyte.
  2. 2Male and female sex organs are borne on separate gametophyte plants.
  3. 3Each archegonium contains several eggs.
  4. 4The sporophyte consists of true roots, stem and leaves.
  5. 5Spores are produced by mitosis in the capsule.
U3 · Plant diversity
30.

Which statement about fertilisation in flowering plants is correct?

  1. 1The generative nucleus fertilises the egg directly, without dividing.
  2. 2Double fertilisation is common in gymnosperms.
  3. 3Parthenocarpic fruits contain fertilised seeds.
  4. 4The endosperm develops from the triploid nucleus formed when one male gamete fuses with the two polar nuclei.
  5. 5The zygote is formed by fusion of the tube nucleus with the egg.
U4 · Plant reproduction & life cycles
31.

To find out whether a tall pea plant is homozygous or heterozygous, it should be crossed with

  1. 1a homozygous dwarf (recessive) plant.
  2. 2another tall plant from the same F₁.
  3. 3a homozygous tall plant.
  4. 4one of its parents, whatever its phenotype.
  5. 5a randomly chosen F₂ plant.
U6 · Mendelian inheritance
32.

What is the expected result of repeated inbreeding in a crop population?

  1. 1An increase in genetic diversity
  2. 2The production of hybrid vigour
  3. 3A decrease in the frequency of homozygous individuals
  4. 4An increase in homozygosity, giving true-breeding (pure) lines
  5. 5The elimination of inbreeding depression
U10 · Agriculture, soils & pest management
33.

Two plants, each heterozygous for two genes (AaBb, with A and B on the same parental chromosome), are crossed. The F₂ shows only a 3:1 phenotypic ratio instead of 9:3:3:1. What is the most likely reason?

  1. 1Incomplete dominance at locus A
  2. 2Codominance at both loci
  3. 3Independent assortment of the two genes
  4. 4Multiple alleles at locus B
  5. 5Complete linkage of the two genes on the same chromosome
U6 · Linkage & sex-linkage
34.

Which statement about the layers of the Earth's atmosphere is correct?

  1. 1The ozone layer lies within the troposphere.
  2. 2The mesosphere extends from about 50 km to about 85 km above the Earth's surface.
  3. 3Temperature decreases with altitude throughout the stratosphere.
  4. 4Most of the water vapour and dust is found in the stratosphere.
  5. 5The thermosphere lies directly above the troposphere.
U8 · Environmental issues & pollution
35.

In which option do all three organisms belong to the same category for Sri Lanka (endemic, exotic or migrant)?

  1. 1Sri Lanka junglefowl, purple-faced langur, tilapia
  2. 2Indian pitta, barn swallow, forest wagtail
  3. 3Rubber, kithul, water hyacinth
  4. 4Water hyacinth, Sri Lanka blue magpie, barn swallow
  5. 5Black ruby barb, guppy, snakehead
U8 · Biodiversity & conservation
36.

Which option shows the following groups in the order in which they first appeared on Earth (earliest first)?

  1. 1Insects, bryophytes, dinosaurs, conifers
  2. 2Conifers, bryophytes, insects, dinosaurs
  3. 3Bryophytes, conifers, dinosaurs, insects
  4. 4Bryophytes, insects, conifers, dinosaurs
  5. 5Dinosaurs, conifers, insects, bryophytes
U3 · Origin of life & evolution
37.

Which statement correctly describes cyanobacteria?

  1. 1They photosynthesise in chloroplasts.
  2. 2They survive unfavourable conditions by forming endospores.
  3. 3They reproduce sexually by fusion of gametes.
  4. 4They use atmospheric nitrogen as an energy source.
  5. 5They are prokaryotes with oxygen-releasing photosynthesis, and some fix nitrogen in heterocysts.
U9 · Microbial diversity & structure
38.

Which statement about viruses is correct?

  1. 1Lytic viruses release their progeny by bursting the host cell.
  2. 2Viruses can multiply in sterile nutrient broth.
  3. 3Viruses are retained by bacteriological filters.
  4. 4Mad cow disease is caused by a virus.
  5. 5A virus particle contains both DNA and RNA.
U9 · Microbial diversity & structure
39.

Which of the following correctly pairs an industrially produced enzyme with a microorganism used to produce it?

  1. 1Cellulase: Lactobacillus
  2. 2Amylase: Nitrobacter
  3. 3Lipase: Rhizopus
  4. 4Invertase: Rhizobium
  5. 5Protease: Azotobacter
U9 · Industrial & food microbiology
40.

Food intoxication is caused by eating toxins already formed in the food. Which pair of bacteria both cause food intoxication?

  1. 1Salmonella and Shigella
  2. 2Vibrio and Salmonella
  3. 3Shigella and Clostridium botulinum
  4. 4Salmonella and Vibrio parahaemolyticus
  5. 5Staphylococcus aureus and Clostridium botulinum
U9 · Microbes & disease
41.

Consider the following statements about enzyme cofactors.
A – They are non-protein components needed for the activity of some enzymes.
B – Every enzyme requires a cofactor.
C – Prosthetic groups are tightly (permanently) bound to the enzyme.
D – Coenzymes are organic molecules that bind loosely to the enzyme.
E – All cofactors are organic molecules.
Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. 1A, C and D only
  2. 2A, B and C only
  3. 3B, D and E only
  4. 4A, D and E only
  5. 5C, D and E only
U2 · Enzymes
42.

Consider the following statements about modes of nutrition.
A – Parasitism is a form of symbiosis.
B – Rhizobium is heterotrophic.
C – Cuscuta is an epiphyte.
D – Holozoic nutrition involves ingestion, digestion, absorption, assimilation and egestion.
E – Orchids growing on tree branches are parasites of the tree.
Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2A, B and D only
  3. 3B, C and E only
  4. 4A, D and E only
  5. 5C and D only
U8 · Populations & ecological interactions
43.

Which of the following brain regions are responsible for the normal rhythmic control of breathing in man?
A – Cerebellum
B – Medulla oblongata
C – Thalamus
D – Pons
E – Corpus callosum

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2B and C only
  3. 3B and D only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5D and E only
U5 · Gas exchange
44.

Which of the following are functions of the human medulla oblongata?
A – Regulation of heart rate
B – Control of the diameter of blood vessels
C – Pupillary light reflex
D – Reflex control of coughing and swallowing
E – Maintenance of balance

  1. 1A, B and C only
  2. 2A, C and E only
  3. 3B, D and E only
  4. 4A, B and D only
  5. 5C, D and E only
U5 · Nervous system
45.

Consider the following comparisons of ammonia, urea and uric acid.
A – Toxicity: ammonia > urea > uric acid
B – Solubility in water: ammonia > urea > uric acid
C – Energy needed for synthesis: ammonia > urea > uric acid
D – Water needed for excretion: ammonia > urea > uric acid
E – Number of nitrogen atoms per molecule: ammonia > urea > uric acid
Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3B, C and E only
  4. 4C, D and E only
  5. 5A, B and D only
U5 · Excretion & osmoregulation
46.

Consider the following statements about the human female reproductive cycle.
A – The ovarian cycle consists of a follicular phase and a luteal phase.
B – Development of new follicles begins during menstruation.
C – Menstruation is triggered by the LH surge.
D – If fertilisation does not occur, the corpus luteum degenerates into a corpus albicans.
E – Throughout pregnancy, progesterone is secreted only by the corpus luteum.
Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. 1A, B and C only
  2. 2A, C and E only
  3. 3A, B and D only
  4. 4B, D and E only
  5. 5C, D and E only
U5 · Reproduction & development
47.

Which of the following are required for transcription of a gene?
A – DNA helicase
B – A DNA template strand
C – RNA polymerase
D – Ribosomes
E – DNA ligase

  1. 1A, B and C only
  2. 2B, C and D only
  3. 3A, C and E only
  4. 4B and C only
  5. 5C, D and E only
U7 · Gene expression & regulation
48.

Which of the following biomes occur mainly in tropical and subtropical latitudes?
A – Savanna
B – Hot desert
C – Taiga (boreal forest)
D – Tundra
E – Chaparral

  1. 1A and C only
  2. 2B and D only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4C and E only
  5. 5D and E only
U8 · Biomes & Sri Lankan ecosystems
49.

Consider the following statements about genetically modified organisms (GMOs).
A – They contain one or more genes transferred from another organism.
B – They usually differ from the parent organism in only one or a few traits.
C – They are produced by conventional hybridisation.
D – They are accepted worldwide without public controversy.
E – None has yet been released for commercial cultivation.
Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2A and C only
  3. 3B and D only
  4. 4A, B and C only
  5. 5C, D and E only
U7 · GMOs, biosafety & applications
50.

Consider the following pairings of microorganisms with their mode of nutrition.
A – Green sulphur bacteria: photoautotrophs
B – Purple sulphur bacteria: chemoheterotrophs
C – Nitrosomonas: chemoautotrophs
D – Mushrooms: chemoheterotrophs
E – Chemoautotrophs obtain energy by oxidising organic compounds.
Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. 1A, B and C only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3B, D and E only
  4. 4A, D and E only
  5. 5C, D and E only
U9 · Microbial diversity & structure
2019 (Old) · Paper IIStructured & essay
1A
Part A · Structured

(i) List three characteristics shared by all living organisms.
(ii) Describe what is meant by each of the following levels of protein structure: (a) primary (b) secondary (c) tertiary (d) quaternary.
(iii) Outline the structure of the vacuole of a mature plant cell.
(iv) Give four roles of the vacuole in plant cells.
(v) Give three functions carried out by smooth endoplasmic reticulum but not by rough endoplasmic reticulum.

1B
Part A · Structured

(i) How does cytokinesis in a plant cell differ from cytokinesis in an animal cell?
(ii) Define the term kinetochore.
(iii) Name the three types of enzyme cofactor and give one example of each.
(iv) List the three structural components of an ATP molecule.

1C
Part A · Structured

(i) Give the scientific name of the leopard found in Sri Lanka.
(ii) Outline the rules followed by biologists when giving scientific names to organisms.
(iii) Name the main storage substance of Allomyces.
(iv) In one animal class, the main nitrogenous excretory product changes with the habitat or life stage of the animal. Name this class.
(v) What type of symmetry does an adult sea cucumber show?

2A
Part A · Structured

(i) (a) Give two symptoms of vitamin B deficiency in man. (b) Write the dental formula of a healthy adult human.
(ii) (a) Name the site that secretes enterogastrone in man. (b) State its function.
(iii) (a) Two animals have the following surface area to volume ratios. Animal X | 6.5 cm⁻¹; Animal Y | 0.4 cm⁻¹. Which animal could meet its gas-exchange needs through its body surface? (b) Name the muscles that bring about normal inspiration and expiration in man.
(iv) Give an example of a group of organisms that uses each of the following for excretion or osmoregulation: (a) contractile vacuoles (b) salt glands.
(v) (a) Apart from their position, give one structural difference between cortical and juxtamedullary nephrons. (b) Give two major causes of kidney stone formation in man.

2B
Part A · Structured

(i) Explain the term double circulation.
(ii) (a) A normal ECG trace has a small first wave (P), a sharp spike complex (QRS) and a broader final wave (T). State the cardiac event represented by each. (b) What is coronary bypass surgery?
(iii) Four adult men have these blood haemoglobin levels. P | 11.0 g/dL; Q | 14.8 g/dL; R | 9.5 g/dL; S | 15.5 g/dL. Which of them has/have a level below the minimum for a healthy adult male?
(iv) Define imbibition.
(v) (a) Name the theory that explains the movement of water in xylem. (b) Outline the principles on which this upward movement of water depends.

2C
Part A · Structured

(i) (a) Name the structural and functional unit of the human nervous system. (b) Explain the term resting potential of a neurone.
(ii) (a) Name the neurotransmitter released at the endings of human motor neurones. (b) Give two factors that increase the speed at which an impulse travels along a neurone.
(iii) Four regions of the human brain are described: P, the anterior part of the cerebral hemisphere behind the forehead; Q, the lowest part of the brainstem, continuous with the spinal cord; R, the posterior part of the cerebral hemisphere; S, the folded structure lying below the back of the cerebrum. (a) Name P, Q, R and S. (b) Which of them develop from the embryonic hindbrain? (c) Which of them coordinates voluntary muscular movements?
(iv) (a) Give the main advantage of binocular vision in man. (b) Trace, in order, the path by which sound vibrations travel from the outside air to the sensory receptor cells of the ear.
(v) (a) Where is the thyroid gland located in man? (b) Name the thyroid hormone involved in calcium homeostasis.

3A
Part A · Structured

(i) (a) What is a hydrostatic skeleton? (b) Name the bone cells that deposit inorganic salts in bone tissue.
(ii) (a) Which bone forms the sides and most of the roof of the human cranium? (b) What are fontanelles?
(iii) Apart from support and maintenance of upright posture, give two functions of the human vertebral column.
(iv) Give two features by which a female pelvis differs from a male pelvis.
(v) Apart from contractility, give two functional properties common to all muscle tissues.

3B
Part A · Structured

(i) (a) Give three advantages of asexual reproduction. (b) Give the main advantage of sexual reproduction.
(ii) (a) Which gland contributes most of the volume of human semen? (b) What is the function of Leydig cells?
(iii) (a) In the cortex of a section of human ovary, a large spherical cell is seen surrounded by a clear non-cellular layer and then by several layers of cuboidal cells. Identify this structure. (b) Name the ovarian structure that secretes progesterone.
(iv) (a) For about how long does a human ovum remain viable after ovulation? (b) In which trimester can the foetal heartbeat first be detected?
(v) Name one bacterial sexually transmitted disease of humans.

3C
Part A · Structured

(i) Name three tissues that give mechanical support to plants.
(ii) (a) State the significance of seed dormancy. (b) Give three causes of seed dormancy.
(iii) (a) Name a plant growth substance that (1) promotes and (2) inhibits seed germination. (b) List, in order, the events of seed germination.
(iv) State the type of exotoxin produced by each of Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Clostridium tetani and Vibrio cholerae.
(v) (a) A child who recovers from chickenpox is not infected again. Name this type of immunity. (b) Name the specific molecules responsible for it.

4A
Part A · Structured

(i) An F₁ individual is crossed with one of its parents. Name this type of cross and give its purpose.
(ii) Name the type of inheritance that gives each of the following F₂ phenotypic ratios: (a) red : pink : white flowers = 1 : 2 : 1 (b) blood groups A : AB : O = 1 : 2 : 1 (c) red : white flowers = 1 : 1
(iii) List the factors that can change allele frequencies in a population.
(iv) Give three agriculturally useful traits introduced into genetically modified crops.
(v) Apart from hormones, name two substances made by recombinant DNA technology that are used to treat human disease.

4B
Part A · Structured

(i) Name the energy sources thought to have driven the formation of organic molecules from simple molecules during the origin of life.
(ii) Define extinction of a species.
(iii) Explain briefly what is meant by a keystone species.
(iv) State the objectives of (a) CITES and (b) the Convention on Biological Diversity.
(v) Give four harmful effects on human health of hydrocarbons as air pollutants.

4C
Part A · Structured

(i) Give two morphological forms of viruses.
(ii) State the usual sterilisation method for each of: (a) nutrient agar (b) glass Petri dishes (c) a heat-sensitive enzyme solution.
(iii) Give two harmful effects of soil microorganisms on plants.
(iv) Name two symbiotic associations between microorganisms and plant roots.
(v) Name one bacterial species used to make biopesticides.

5a
Part B · Essay150 marks

Describe the structure of a chloroplast, with the aid of a labelled diagram.

5b
Part B · Essay150 marks

Explain what photorespiration is, and discuss how it affects the efficiency of photosynthesis.

6a
Part B · Essay150 marks

Describe the structure of a transverse section of a mature dicot stem that has undergone secondary growth, as seen under the light microscope.

6b
Part B · Essay150 marks

Explain the process of secondary growth in a dicot stem.

7a
Part B · Essay150 marks

Describe the structure of the human heart.

7b
Part B · Essay150 marks

Describe the coronary circulation in man and explain the consequences of blockage of the coronary arteries.

8a
Part B · Essay150 marks

Describe the structure of a nephron in the human kidney, with the aid of a labelled diagram.

8b
Part B · Essay150 marks

Explain how the nephron and its associated blood vessels work together to form urine.

9a
Part B · Essay150 marks

Describe the normal microbiota of the human body and explain their importance to human health.

9b
Part B · Essay150 marks

Explain why certain recessive traits in humans occur only, or more frequently, in males than in females.

10a
Part B · Essay50 marks

Write a short note on micropropagation of plants.

10b
Part B · Essay50 marks

Write a short note on global warming.

10c
Part B · Essay50 marks

Write a short note on natural classification of organisms.

2019 (Old) · Answers & reviewsMEDVision answers

Answer key — this booklet

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Answer key — original 2019 (Old) paper (MEDVision model answers)

For students working from the original paper. Shaded cells: check against the official marking scheme (amber = likely, red = disputed).

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Paper I — reviews

1
Answer 3 Hypotheses gain acceptance when supported by evidence but are never proven beyond all doubt. Theories can be revised, predictions are essential for testing, and descriptive studies may not need a control.
2
Answer 3 Because a large amount of heat must be removed before water freezes, cells and ponds resist freezing. Surface tension (cohesion), not adhesion, supports pond skaters; sweating cools through latent heat of vaporisation, and temperature stability is due to specific heat.
3
Answer 4 Peroxisomal oxidases pass hydrogen to O₂, forming H₂O₂, which catalase then breaks down. Steroids are made by SER, ribosomes contain rRNA, RER is made of flattened cisternae and lysosomes have a single membrane.
4
Answer 5 Tight junctions seal adjacent membranes and block leakage between cells. Plasmodesmata are plant structures, gap junctions (not anchoring junctions) allow direct exchange, and desmosomes give strong attachment rather than a seal.
5
Answer 4 Chromosomes align at the metaphase plate in metaphase. DNA replicates in S phase, condensation and spindle formation start in prophase, and the nuclear envelope re-forms in telophase.
6
Answer 1 Glycolysis occurs in the cytosol under both aerobic and anaerobic conditions and ends with pyruvate. Two ATP are invested in the early steps; four are formed, so the net gain is 2.
7
Answer 5 CO₂ is released by decarboxylation steps in the matrix. Without O₂, NAD⁺ and FAD are not regenerated, so the cycle stops. Most ATP comes from oxidative phosphorylation, where FADH₂ is oxidised by the electron transport chain.
8
Answer 2 The multicellular protists (red, brown and green seaweeds) are all photosynthetic. The kingdom includes ciliates, walled algae and starch-storing green algae, and it is polyphyletic.
9
Answer 2 Natural (phylogenetic) classification uses characters that reflect common ancestry, such as DNA or rRNA sequence similarity. Single, convenient external features give an artificial classification.
10
Answer 3 In every vascular plant the sporophyte dominates. Selaginella is heterosporous but still needs water, ferns are homosporous yet vascular, gymnosperms have no flowers, and fern prothalli photosynthesise.
11
Answer 4 Free-living turbellarians have a ciliated epidermis, while flukes and tapeworms are covered by a non-ciliated tegument, so the body covering separates the classes. The other features are not consistent across whole classes.
12
Answer 1 Brunner's glands, which secrete alkaline mucus from the submucosa, are found only in the duodenum. Villi, lacteals, goblet cells and the two muscle layers occur throughout the small intestine.
13
Answer 2 Blood from the hepatic artery flows through the sinusoids to the hepatic vein, the inferior vena cava and the right side of the heart, then leaves in the pulmonary artery. The trap is the hepatic portal vein, which brings blood to the liver from the gut. Pulmonary veins carry blood away from the lungs.
14
Answer 3 Eosinophils attack helminth parasites and help regulate allergic responses. Plasma cells derived from B lymphocytes make antibodies, basophils release heparin and histamine, and neutrophils and monocytes phagocytose.
15
Answer 1 Proton pumps create the gradient that drives K⁺ into guard cells, which lowers their water potential, so water enters and the stomata open. The endodermis regulates ion entry but does not block it, the vacuolar route is the most resistant, and K⁺ leaves only when stomata close.
16
Answer 5 Phloem carries sucrose, hormones, ions and systemic chemicals in both directions, from sources to sinks. Loading and unloading require ATP.
17
Answer 4 Spinal nerves are mixed nerves. They carry sensory dendrons towards the dorsal root ganglion and motor axons to effectors. The cell bodies lie in the ganglion and in the grey matter, not in the nerve trunk.
18
Answer 2 Both divisions innervate cardiac muscle, smooth muscle and glands. Sympathetic preganglionic fibres are short, skin structures receive only sympathetic fibres, and the sympathetic division dominates under stress while reducing digestive activity.
19
Answer 3 Olfactory cells detect dissolved chemicals, so they are chemoreceptors, not mechanoreceptors. All the other pairings are correct.
20
Answer 1 ADH increases water reabsorption in the distal tubule and collecting duct. It is made in the hypothalamus and released from the posterior pituitary when blood osmotic pressure rises, and it constricts arterioles.
21
Answer 2 Plasma proteins such as albumin are too large to pass through the filtration barrier. Glucose, amino acids, ions and urea all enter the filtrate.
22
Answer 3 The frontal bone forms the forehead and the front of the cranium. The cranium has 8 bones, the mandible is the only movable bone, and the zygomatic arch includes the zygomatic process of the temporal bone.
23
Answer 5 The first carpometacarpal joint is a saddle joint that allows the thumb to be opposed. The glenoid cavity belongs to the scapula, only some carpals articulate with the radius, and phalanges articulate with the metacarpals.
24
Answer 2 Smooth muscle cells are unbranched, spindle-shaped and uninucleate, have no sarcomeres and fatigue slowly. Branching and striations belong to cardiac and skeletal muscle.
25
Answer 3 Tropisms are growth curvatures of a part of the plant, controlled by unequal auxin distribution. Nastic movements (e.g. Mimosa) do not depend on stimulus direction, and pollen tube growth is chemotropic.
26
Answer 1 Spirogyra reproduces asexually by fragmentation. Multiple fission is seen in Plasmodium (and encysted Amoeba).
27
Answer 3 Sperm mature in the epididymis and acquire motility and fertilising capacity there. Sperm in the testis are formed but not yet motile.
28
Answer 5 All land plants retain the egg in an archegonium or ovule, so fertilisation is internal and the embryo is protected. Bryophytes and ferns still need water, most plants are homosporous, and only seed plants form pollen tubes.
29
Answer 2 Pogonatum is dioecious, so antheridia and archegonia are on separate plants. The sporophyte (foot, seta, capsule) depends on the gametophyte, each archegonium holds one egg, and spores form by meiosis.
30
Answer 4 One male gamete fuses with the two polar nuclei to form the triploid primary endosperm nucleus, which gives rise to the endosperm. The generative nucleus divides to form two male gametes, and parthenocarpic fruits develop without fertilisation.
31
Answer 1 A test cross with a homozygous recessive reveals the unknown genotype: all-tall offspring mean homozygous, and a 1:1 ratio means heterozygous. A cross with a parent is a back cross.
32
Answer 4 Repeated inbreeding increases homozygosity and produces pure lines, but it reduces diversity and may cause inbreeding depression. Hybrid vigour comes from outbreeding.
33
Answer 5 Completely linked genes are inherited together like a single gene, giving 3:1. Incomplete dominance or codominance change monohybrid ratios rather than reducing a dihybrid ratio to 3:1.
34
Answer 2 The mesosphere spans roughly 50–85 km. Ozone lies in the stratosphere, where temperature rises with height, and most water vapour and dust are in the troposphere.
35
Answer 2 Indian pitta, barn swallow and forest wagtail are all migrant birds that visit Sri Lanka. Each of the other sets mixes endemic, native and exotic species.
36
Answer 4 Bryophyte-like early land plants came first, then insects (Devonian), conifers (late Carboniferous) and dinosaurs (Triassic). The trap is placing insects after conifers or dinosaurs.
37
Answer 5 Cyanobacteria are prokaryotes with oxygenic photosynthesis, and genera such as Nostoc and Anabaena fix N₂ in heterocysts. They have no chloroplasts, no endospores and no true sexual reproduction.
38
Answer 1 Lytic viruses lyse the host cell when they are released. Viruses replicate only inside living cells and pass through bacterial filters, mad cow disease is caused by prions, and a virion contains either DNA or RNA.
39
Answer 3 Rhizopus is used commercially to produce lipase. Amylase comes from Aspergillus or Bacillus, cellulase from Trichoderma, invertase from Saccharomyces, and protease from Bacillus.
40
Answer 5 S. aureus enterotoxin and C. botulinum neurotoxin are preformed in food, so they cause intoxication. Salmonella, Shigella and Vibrio cause food infections.
41
Answer 1 Cofactors are non-protein helpers. Prosthetic groups are tightly bound and coenzymes are loosely bound organic molecules. Not every enzyme needs a cofactor, and many cofactors are inorganic ions.
42
Answer 2 Parasitism is a type of symbiosis, Rhizobium is a heterotroph, and holozoic nutrition includes all five listed stages. Cuscuta is a parasite, and epiphytic orchids are commensals rather than parasites.
43
Answer 3 The rhythm centre lies in the medulla oblongata and is modulated by the pneumotaxic and apneustic centres in the pons. The other regions do not set the breathing rhythm.
44
Answer 4 The medulla contains the cardiac, vasomotor and reflex centres (coughing, swallowing, vomiting). Eye reflexes are midbrain functions, and the cerebellum maintains balance.
45
Answer 5 Toxicity, solubility and the water needed for excretion all fall from ammonia to urea to uric acid. Energy cost rises in that order, and the number of nitrogen atoms per molecule is 1, 2 and 4.
46
Answer 3 A, B and D are correct. Menstruation follows the fall in progesterone and oestrogen, not the LH surge, and the placenta takes over progesterone secretion later in pregnancy.
47
Answer 4 Transcription needs a DNA template and RNA polymerase, which unwinds the DNA itself, plus ribonucleotides. Helicase and ligase are replication enzymes, and ribosomes are needed for translation.
48
Answer 3 Savannas and hot deserts lie in tropical and subtropical belts. Taiga and tundra are high-latitude biomes, and chaparral is a mid-latitude Mediterranean biome.
49
Answer 1 GMOs carry foreign genes introduced by recombinant DNA technology and differ from the parent in only a few traits. They are controversial and are widely cultivated commercially.
50
Answer 2 Green sulphur bacteria are photoautotrophs, Nitrosomonas oxidises ammonia as a chemoautotroph, and fungi are chemoheterotrophs. Purple sulphur bacteria are photoautotrophs, and chemoautotrophs oxidise inorganic compounds.

Paper II — marking points

1A
  1. Life characteristics (any 3): cellular organisation, metabolism, growth & development, reproduction, irritability/response, homeostasis, adaptation/evolution, heredity
  2. Primary: sequence of amino acids linked by peptide bonds
  3. Secondary: regular coiling/folding of polypeptide into α-helix or β-pleated sheet stabilised by hydrogen bonds
  4. Tertiary: further 3D folding of a polypeptide held by H bonds, ionic bonds, disulphide bridges, hydrophobic interactions
  5. Quaternary: association of two or more polypeptide chains (e.g. haemoglobin)
  6. Vacuole: large central sac bounded by a single membrane, the tonoplast, containing cell sap
  7. Vacuole functions: maintain turgor, store food/ions, store pigments, store waste/toxic compounds, hydrolytic (lysosome-like) digestion, growth by water uptake
  8. SER functions: lipid/steroid synthesis, detoxification of drugs/poisons, carbohydrate metabolism (glycogen breakdown), storage of Ca²⁺ (in muscle)
1B
  1. Animal cells divide by a cleavage furrow (constriction inward); plant cells form a cell plate from Golgi vesicles growing outward
  2. Kinetochore: protein structure on the centromere of each chromatid where spindle microtubules attach
  3. Activators/inorganic ions — e.g. Zn²⁺, Mg²⁺, Cl⁻
  4. Coenzymes — e.g. NAD, FAD, coenzyme A
  5. Prosthetic groups — e.g. haem, FAD (tightly bound)
  6. ATP components: adenine (base), ribose (pentose sugar), three phosphate groups
1C
  1. Sri Lankan leopard: Panthera pardus kotiya
  2. Binomial: genus name + specific epithet; genus capitalised, species lowercase
  3. Names in Latin/latinised form; italicised when printed or underlined separately when handwritten
  4. Each species has one unique name; earliest valid name has priority; author name may follow
  5. Allomyces storage: glycogen (and oil)
  6. Class: Amphibia (aquatic forms/larvae excrete ammonia, terrestrial adults urea)
  7. Adult sea cucumber: pentaradial (radial) symmetry
2A
  1. Vitamin B deficiency: beriberi (B1), pellagra (B3), anaemia (B12/folate), cracked lips/angular stomatitis (B2), dermatitis, neuritis
  2. Adult dentition: I 2/2, C 1/1, PM 2/2, M 3/3 = 32
  3. Enterogastrone secreted by mucosa of duodenum
  4. Function: inhibits gastric secretion and gastric motility (slows stomach emptying)
  5. Animal X (high SA:V, 6.5 cm⁻¹) can respire through body surface
  6. Inspiration: diaphragm and external intercostal muscles; quiet expiration: relaxation of these (forced expiration: internal intercostals, abdominal muscles)
  7. Contractile vacuoles: freshwater protists (e.g. Amoeba, Paramecium); salt glands: marine birds/reptiles
  8. Juxtamedullary nephrons have long loops of Henle reaching deep into medulla (cortical nephrons short loops); vasa recta associated
  9. Kidney stone causes: low water intake/dehydration, high dietary Ca/oxalate, high uric acid, urinary infections, hyperparathyroidism
2B
  1. Double circulation: blood passes through heart twice per complete circuit — pulmonary and systemic circuits
  2. P wave: atrial depolarisation (atrial systole)
  3. QRS complex: ventricular depolarisation (ventricular systole)
  4. T wave: ventricular repolarisation
  5. Bypass: grafting a vessel (e.g. saphenous vein) to route blood around a blocked coronary artery
  6. Below normal adult male Hb (minimum ~13 g/dL): P (11.0) and R (9.5)
  7. Imbibition: absorption of water by hydrophilic colloids (cellulose, proteins, starch) causing swelling
  8. Cohesion–tension theory
  9. Principles: transpiration pull generates tension; cohesion of water molecules; adhesion to xylem walls; continuous water column; (root pressure, capillarity contribute)
2C
  1. Functional unit: neurone
  2. Resting potential: potential difference (~−70 mV) across membrane of a non-conducting neurone, inside negative relative to outside
  3. Neurotransmitter: acetylcholine
  4. Speed increased by myelination (saltatory conduction) and larger axon diameter (also higher temperature)
  5. P: frontal lobe of cerebrum; Q: medulla oblongata; R: occipital lobe of cerebrum; S: cerebellum
  6. Hind-brain derivatives: Q and S
  7. Coordination of voluntary movement: S (cerebellum)
  8. Binocular vision gives depth perception/3D vision (judging distance)
  9. Hearing: pinna → external auditory canal → tympanic membrane → malleus → incus → stapes → oval window → perilymph → (endolymph) → basilar membrane → hair cells of organ of Corti
  10. Thyroid lies in the neck anterior to trachea, below larynx; calcitonin lowers blood Ca²⁺
3A
  1. Hydrostatic skeleton: fluid held under pressure in a closed body compartment against which muscles act (e.g. earthworm)
  2. Osteoblasts deposit inorganic salts
  3. Parietal bones form sides and most of roof of cranium
  4. Fontanelles: membrane-covered unossified gaps between cranial bones of infant skull
  5. Vertebral column: protects spinal cord, attachment of muscles/ribs, allows movement/flexibility, shock absorption, supports head
  6. Female pelvis: wider/shallower, larger rounded pelvic inlet, wider subpubic angle (>90°), shorter broader sacrum, less prominent ischial spines
  7. Muscle properties: excitability/irritability, extensibility, elasticity, conductivity
3B
  1. Asexual advantages: single parent sufficient, rapid increase in numbers, offspring genetically identical (keeps good traits), less energy, no gametes needed
  2. Sexual advantage: genetic variation, allowing adaptation/evolution
  3. Seminal vesicles secrete most of semen
  4. Leydig (interstitial) cells secrete testosterone
  5. Structure: primary follicle (oocyte, zona pellucida, layers of granulosa cells)
  6. Progesterone source: corpus luteum
  7. Ovum viable about 24 hours (12–24 h)
  8. Foetal heartbeat detected first in first trimester
  9. Bacterial STD: gonorrhoea, syphilis, chlamydia
3C
  1. Support tissues: collenchyma, sclerenchyma, xylem (and turgid parenchyma)
  2. Dormancy significance: survival through unfavourable conditions, germination at suitable time, dispersal over time
  3. Causes: impermeable seed coat, immature embryo, inhibitors (ABA), hard seed coat restricting embryo, need for light/after-ripening
  4. Activation: gibberellin; inhibition: abscisic acid
  5. Germination sequence: imbibition → activation of enzymes (GA triggers amylase) → hydrolysis/mobilisation of food reserves → respiration and growth → radicle emergence → plumule emergence
  6. C. diphtheriae: cytotoxin; C. tetani: neurotoxin; V. cholerae: enterotoxin
  7. Naturally acquired active immunity
  8. Antibodies (immunoglobulins)
4A
  1. Back cross: F1 crossed with one of its parents; purpose — recover/strengthen parental traits or (if recessive parent) determine genotype
  2. Red:pink:white 1:2:1 — incomplete dominance
  3. A:AB:O 1:2:1 — codominance (with multiple alleles; Iᴬ and Iᴮ both expressed in AB)
  4. Red:white 1:1 in F2 — not Mendelian; likely sex-linked inheritance (or test-cross-type ratio); accept per marking scheme
  5. Allele frequency changes: mutation, natural selection, genetic drift, gene flow (migration), non-random mating
  6. GM traits: pest (insect) resistance, herbicide tolerance, disease/virus resistance, improved nutrition (Golden rice), longer shelf life, drought/salt tolerance
  7. Recombinant products: vaccines (hepatitis B), interferon, clotting factor VIII, antibodies, tissue plasminogen activator
4B
  1. Energy sources: lightning (electric discharge), UV radiation, volcanic heat, radioactivity
  2. Extinction: complete disappearance of a species when no individuals remain
  3. Keystone species: species with a disproportionately large effect on community structure relative to its abundance; removal causes major changes
  4. CITES: regulates/control international trade in endangered wild animals and plants to prevent threat to survival
  5. CBD: conservation of biodiversity, sustainable use of its components, fair and equitable sharing of benefits from genetic resources
  6. Hydrocarbon effects: respiratory irritation, eye irritation, headache/dizziness, cancers (carcinogenic, e.g. benzene → leukaemia), formation of photochemical smog, damage to nervous system
4C
  1. Virus forms: helical, polyhedral (icosahedral), complex (and enveloped)
  2. Nutrient agar: autoclaving (121 °C, 15 psi, 15 min)
  3. Petri dishes: hot-air oven/dry heat (or autoclaving; disposable — irradiation)
  4. Enzyme solution: membrane filtration
  5. Soil microbes adverse: cause plant diseases (wilts, root rots), denitrification reduces soil nitrate, compete for nutrients
  6. Root symbioses: Rhizobium in legume root nodules; mycorrhizae (fungi); Frankia in non-legumes
  7. Biopesticide: Bacillus thuringiensis
5a
  1. Lens/discoid shaped, about 4–10 μm long
  2. Double membrane envelope (outer and inner membranes) with intermembrane space
  3. Inner fluid matrix: stroma
  4. Thylakoid membrane system; stacks of thylakoids called grana
  5. Grana connected by stroma (intergranal) lamellae
  6. Thylakoid lumen enclosed inside thylakoids
  7. Photosynthetic pigments (chlorophyll a, b, carotenoids) and photosystems I and II, ETC and ATP synthase in thylakoid membranes
  8. Stroma contains enzymes of Calvin cycle (RuBisCO), circular DNA, 70S ribosomes, starch grains, lipid droplets (plastoglobuli)
  9. Labelled diagram
5b
  1. RuBisCO can act as an oxygenase as well as a carboxylase
  2. Under high temperature, high O₂/low CO₂ (stomata closed), RuBisCO fixes O₂ to RuBP
  3. Produces one 3-phosphoglycerate and one 2-phosphoglycolate
  4. Phosphoglycolate metabolised via chloroplast, peroxisome and mitochondrion
  5. CO₂ released in mitochondria; uses ATP; produces no sugar/ATP
  6. Occurs in light and consumes O₂, releases CO₂ — hence 'photorespiration'
  7. Reduces efficiency: fixed carbon lost, RuBP diverted from Calvin cycle, energy wasted
  8. May reduce carbon fixation by up to ~25–50% in C3 plants in hot dry conditions
  9. C4 and CAM plants minimise photorespiration by concentrating CO₂ around RuBisCO
  10. Possible benefit: protects against photo-damage when CO₂ is low
6a
  1. Outermost periderm: cork (phellem) with dead suberised cells, cork cambium (phellogen), phelloderm
  2. Lenticels in periderm
  3. Remains of cortex (parenchyma, collenchyma) in young secondary stem
  4. Secondary phloem outside vascular cambium; crushed primary phloem outside it
  5. Phloem fibres, sieve tubes, companion cells, phloem parenchyma
  6. Continuous ring of vascular cambium
  7. Large mass of secondary xylem with annual rings (spring/early wood and autumn/late wood)
  8. Heartwood (central, non-functional) and sapwood (outer, functional)
  9. Xylem/medullary rays radiating through xylem and phloem
  10. Primary xylem and pith at centre
  11. Labelled diagram
6b
  1. Fascicular cambium present in vascular bundles
  2. Parenchyma of medullary rays between bundles dedifferentiates to form interfascicular cambium
  3. These join to form a complete cambium ring
  4. Fusiform initials divide periclinally: inward cells form secondary xylem, outward secondary phloem
  5. More xylem than phloem produced
  6. Ray initials form vascular rays for radial transport
  7. Cambium also divides anticlinally to increase circumference
  8. Seasonal activity produces annual rings
  9. Cortex/epidermis rupture as girth increases
  10. Cork cambium (phellogen) arises in cortex, producing cork outward and phelloderm inward = periderm
  11. Lenticels formed for gas exchange; bark = all tissues outside vascular cambium
7a
  1. Located in thoracic cavity between lungs, in mediastinum, slightly to left
  2. Enclosed by double-layered pericardium with pericardial fluid
  3. Wall: epicardium, myocardium (cardiac muscle), endocardium
  4. Four chambers: two thin-walled atria, two thick-walled ventricles; left ventricle wall thickest
  5. Septum separates right and left sides
  6. Tricuspid valve between right atrium and ventricle; bicuspid (mitral) between left chambers
  7. Chordae tendineae and papillary muscles hold AV valves
  8. Semilunar valves at bases of pulmonary trunk and aorta
  9. Vessels: venae cavae to right atrium, pulmonary artery from right ventricle, pulmonary veins to left atrium, aorta from left ventricle
  10. Conducting tissue: SA node, AV node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibres
  11. Coronary arteries supply heart muscle
7b
  1. Right and left coronary arteries arise from base of the aorta
  2. Branch over the heart surface and supply myocardium with O₂ and nutrients
  3. Capillaries in myocardium; deoxygenated blood collected by cardiac veins
  4. Cardiac veins drain into coronary sinus, which opens into right atrium
  5. Blood flow mainly during diastole
  6. Blockage by atherosclerosis (fatty plaques) or thrombus narrows lumen
  7. Reduced supply → myocardial ischaemia → angina pectoris (chest pain)
  8. Complete block → myocardial infarction (heart attack), death of muscle
  9. Can cause arrhythmias, heart failure, sudden death
  10. Treated by angioplasty/stents or bypass surgery
8a
  1. Nephron = functional unit of kidney (~1 million per kidney)
  2. Renal corpuscle: Bowman's capsule enclosing glomerulus, in cortex
  3. Bowman's capsule inner layer of podocytes, outer squamous epithelium
  4. Proximal convoluted tubule: cuboidal epithelium with microvilli and many mitochondria
  5. Loop of Henle: descending and ascending limbs extending into medulla
  6. Distal convoluted tubule in cortex
  7. Opens into collecting duct running through medulla to renal pelvis
  8. Cortical vs juxtamedullary nephrons
  9. Blood supply: afferent arteriole → glomerulus → efferent arteriole → peritubular capillaries / vasa recta
  10. Labelled diagram
8b
  1. Ultrafiltration in glomerulus: high pressure as efferent arteriole narrower than afferent
  2. Filtration through fenestrated endothelium, basement membrane, podocyte slits; proteins/cells retained
  3. Glomerular filtrate ~180 L/day
  4. Selective reabsorption in PCT: all glucose, amino acids, most Na⁺, water, HCO₃⁻ by active/passive transport
  5. Descending limb permeable to water; ascending limb pumps out NaCl — countercurrent multiplier creates medullary gradient
  6. Vasa recta maintain the gradient (countercurrent exchange)
  7. DCT: regulated reabsorption of Na⁺ (aldosterone), secretion of K⁺, H⁺; pH regulation
  8. Tubular secretion of H⁺, K⁺, NH₃, drugs, creatinine
  9. Collecting duct: water reabsorption controlled by ADH, producing concentrated urine
  10. Peritubular capillaries take back reabsorbed substances
  11. Urine passes to renal pelvis
9a
  1. Microorganisms normally colonising body surfaces without causing disease
  2. Resident and transient microbiota
  3. Skin: Staphylococcus epidermidis, Propionibacterium, Corynebacterium, yeasts
  4. Mouth/upper respiratory tract: Streptococcus, Neisseria, Lactobacillus
  5. Large intestine: E. coli, Bacteroides, Bifidobacterium, Clostridium (most abundant)
  6. Vagina: Lactobacillus (maintains acid pH)
  7. Internal organs and blood normally sterile
  8. Roles: competitive exclusion of pathogens, production of antimicrobial substances/acids
  9. Synthesis of vitamins K and B in gut
  10. Aid digestion of some substances; stimulate immune system development
  11. Can become opportunistic pathogens when immunity falls or they move to new sites; antibiotics disrupt them
9b
  1. Human males are XY, females XX
  2. Y chromosome small, lacks most genes present on X
  3. Sex-linked (X-linked) genes carried on non-homologous region of X
  4. Males hemizygous: a single recessive allele on X is expressed
  5. Females need two recessive alleles (homozygous) to express; heterozygotes are carriers
  6. Probability of two recessive alleles is low, so trait rarer in females
  7. Affected males inherit allele from carrier mother; father does not pass X to sons
  8. Examples: red-green colour blindness, haemophilia, Duchenne muscular dystrophy
  9. Y-linked (holandric) traits like hypertrichosis of ears occur only in males, passed father to son
  10. Sex-limited traits expressed only in one sex
10a
  1. Tissue culture technique to produce large numbers of plants from small explants
  2. Based on totipotency of plant cells
  3. Explant (shoot tip, meristem, leaf) taken and surface-sterilised
  4. Grown aseptically on nutrient medium with sugars, minerals, vitamins, agar and growth regulators
  5. Callus formation; high cytokinin:auxin ratio → shoots; high auxin → roots
  6. Plantlets hardened (acclimatised) before transfer to soil
  7. Advantages: rapid mass production, genetically identical clones, disease-free (meristem) plants, year-round, little space
  8. Used for orchids, banana, anthurium, conservation of rare plants
  9. Disadvantages: costly, needs skill, low genetic diversity
10b
  1. Rise in average global temperature due to enhanced greenhouse effect
  2. Greenhouse gases: CO₂, CH₄, N₂O, CFCs, water vapour
  3. Absorb and re-radiate infrared radiation from earth
  4. Sources: fossil fuel burning, deforestation, agriculture (paddy, livestock CH₄), fertilisers
  5. Effects: melting of polar ice/glaciers, sea level rise, flooding of coastal areas
  6. Climate change: extreme weather, altered rainfall, droughts
  7. Loss of biodiversity, coral bleaching, spread of vector-borne diseases, reduced crop yields
  8. Mitigation: reduce fossil fuels, renewable energy, reforestation, Kyoto Protocol/Paris Agreement
10c
  1. Classification based on evolutionary (phylogenetic) relationships
  2. Uses many characters: morphology, anatomy, embryology, cytology, biochemistry, DNA/protein sequences
  3. Groups organisms with common ancestry
  4. Contrast with artificial classification based on few convenient characters
  5. Hierarchical taxa: domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
  6. Three-domain system (Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya) based on rRNA
  7. Predictive value; reflects evolution; can change with new evidence
  8. Examples of natural groups: mammals, angiosperms

Scan notes: All 50 MCQs and all Paper II questions present; OCR mostly clean. Q2C brain diagram read from image (P frontal lobe, Q medulla/brainstem, R occipital lobe, S cerebellum). ECG figure in Q2B(ii) assumed standard PQRST. Q4A(ii)(c) (red:white 1:1 in F2) is ambiguous; answer tentative.

2019 (New)

G.C.E. (Advanced Level) — Biology

Current syllabus (2019 onward) · Re-set practice paper

Paper I50 MCQs · 2 hoursAnswer all. Choose the one correct or most suitable option.
Paper II25 parts in this booklet · 3 hoursPart A: answer all structured questions. Part B: answer four essays.

Every question tests the same concept as question of the same number in the 2019 (New) paper, re-written by MEDVision. Source coverage: Paper I + full Paper II.

2019 (New) · Paper IMultiple choice
1.

Living things are organised in a hierarchy of levels. Which is the lowest level at which all the characteristics of life, such as metabolism, growth and reproduction, can be observed?

  1. 1A protein molecule
  2. 2A mitochondrion
  3. 3A cell
  4. 4A tissue
  5. 5An organ system
U1 · Characteristics of life & levels of organisation
2.

Which of the following is a function performed by certain nucleotides or nucleotide derivatives in living cells?

  1. 1They are the main building blocks of storage polysaccharides.
  2. 2They act as coenzymes (organic cofactors), e.g. NAD⁺ and FAD.
  3. 3They carry oxygen in the blood of vertebrates.
  4. 4They contain hexose sugars that provide energy on oxidation.
  5. 5They form the structural framework of plant cell walls.
U2 · Biomolecules & water
3.

Which of the following statements about microscopes is correct?

  1. 1In a light microscope, light passes through the objective lens before it reaches the specimen.
  2. 2The transmission electron microscope is used to watch the movement of living cells.
  3. 3The scanning electron microscope is mainly used to study internal structures in ultra-thin sections.
  4. 4Electron microscopes focus visible light using electromagnetic lenses.
  5. 5Magnification and resolving power are important properties of both light and electron microscopes.
U2 · Microscopy
4.

Which of the following statements about the cytoskeleton of a eukaryotic cell is correct?

  1. 1Microfilaments are hollow tubes made of tubulin.
  2. 2Intermediate filaments are made of actin and drive amoeboid movement.
  3. 3Microtubules act as tracks along which motor proteins carry vesicles and organelles.
  4. 4Keratin is the main protein of microtubules.
  5. 5Microfilaments form the spindle fibres that pull chromatids apart.
U2 · Cell organelles & structure
5.

Which of the following events is correctly matched with the phase of the cell cycle in which it occurs?

  1. 1S phase – condensation of chromatin into chromosomes
  2. 2G₂ phase – synthesis of proteins such as tubulin needed for mitosis
  3. 3G₁ phase – replication of DNA
  4. 4Metaphase – beginning of spindle formation
  5. 5Prophase – division of the cytoplasm
U2 · Cell cycle, mitosis & meiosis
6.

Which of the following statements about chlorophyll is correct?

  1. 1Chlorophylls absorb red and blue-violet light strongly and reflect mostly green light.
  2. 2Chlorophyll b forms the reaction-centre pigment of both photosystems.
  3. 3Chlorophyll a protects the photosystems by dissipating excess light energy.
  4. 4The reaction-centre chlorophyll of photosystem I is P680.
  5. 5Chlorophylls absorb green light most efficiently.
U2 · Photosynthesis
7.

Which compound is formed when glucose is broken down by yeast in the absence of oxygen, by human muscle during an oxygen debt, and by a cell respiring aerobically?

  1. 1Acetaldehyde
  2. 2Acetyl CoA
  3. 3Oxaloacetate
  4. 4Citrate
  5. 5Pyruvate
U2 · Cellular respiration & fermentation
8.

Which of the following animals belongs to the simplest phylum in which a true coelom is present?

  1. 1Earthworm
  2. 2Planarian
  3. 3Ascaris (roundworm)
  4. 4Hydra
  5. 5Sponge
U3 · Animal diversity
9.

A leech and a cockroach both possess which of the following?

  1. 1A clitellum
  2. 2Parapodia
  3. 3A ventral, solid nerve cord with ganglia
  4. 4A chitinous exoskeleton
  5. 5A closed circulation with capillaries
U3 · Animal diversity
10.

Which of the following plants is most closely related, in evolutionary terms, to the liverwort Marchantia?

  1. 1Selaginella
  2. 2Nephrolepis
  3. 3Cycas
  4. 4Pogonatum
  5. 5Lycopodium
U3 · Plant diversity
11.

Which of the following is a characteristic of dicotyledonous flowering plants?

  1. 1The perianth is usually not differentiated into calyx and corolla.
  2. 2The pollen grains typically have a single aperture.
  3. 3The ovules are enclosed within an ovary formed by the carpels.
  4. 4The vascular bundles are scattered throughout the stem.
  5. 5The stamens produce megaspores.
U3 · Plant diversity
12.

Which of the following statements about the epidermis of flowering plants is correct?

  1. 1It is a meristematic tissue whose cells divide continuously.
  2. 2It is a permanent tissue that is usually one cell layer thick.
  3. 3Root hairs are multicellular outgrowths of the epidermis.
  4. 4Suberin in the cuticle reduces water loss from leaves.
  5. 5All of its cells contain many chloroplasts.
U4 · Plant tissues & anatomy
13.

Which of the following features helps a land plant increase its photosynthesis when it grows among other plants?

  1. 1Very small leaves in plants of shaded, humid forests
  2. 2Leaves held vertically to capture weak light
  3. 3Reduced branching of the shoot
  4. 4Leaves with stomata on the upper surface only
  5. 5Tall stems that raise the leaves above neighbouring plants
U4 · Plant form & growth
14.

Which of the following occurs when stomata open in the morning?

  1. 1K⁺ ions move out of the guard cells.
  2. 2The CO₂ concentration in the substomatal cavity rises.
  3. 3The water potential of the guard cells increases.
  4. 4K⁺ ions are actively taken into the guard cells and water follows by osmosis.
  5. 5The guard cells lose turgor.
U4 · Water relations & transport
15.

Which of the following statements about the mineral nutrition of plants is correct?

  1. 1Iron is a macronutrient.
  2. 2Deficiency symptoms of nitrogen first appear in the youngest leaves.
  3. 3Magnesium is a component of cytochromes.
  4. 4Sulfur deficiency first appears in the oldest leaves.
  5. 5Molybdenum is needed for nitrogen metabolism as a cofactor of nitrate reductase.
U4 · Plant nutrition
16.

Which feature of sexual reproduction is shared by mosses, ferns, conifers and flowering plants?

  1. 1They all produce two kinds of spores.
  2. 2The egg is retained within a female structure where fertilisation takes place.
  3. 3Water is not needed for fertilisation in any of them.
  4. 4The sporophyte always depends on the gametophyte for nutrition.
  5. 5The gametophyte is free-living in all of them.
U4 · Plant reproduction & life cycles
17.

Regarding how plants perceive and respond to light, which statement is correct?

  1. 1Blue-light photoreceptors and phytochromes are the two major classes of plant photoreceptors.
  2. 2Phototropism results from faster cell elongation on the illuminated side of the stem.
  3. 3Light-dependent germination of lettuce seeds is controlled only by blue-light receptors.
  4. 4Phytochromes absorb mainly green light.
  5. 5Cryptochromes are the main red-light receptors.
U4 · Plant hormones & responses
18.

Which of the following connective tissues normally contains no fibres in its matrix?

  1. 1Dense regular connective tissue of tendons
  2. 2Areolar connective tissue
  3. 3Blood
  4. 4Hyaline cartilage
  5. 5Adipose tissue
U5 · Animal tissues
19.

Which of the following animals is correctly matched with its type of feeding?

  1. 1Caterpillar eating a leaf – fluid feeder
  2. 2Python swallowing a rat – suspension feeder
  3. 3Mussel – suspension (filter) feeder
  4. 4Butterfly sucking nectar – substrate feeder
  5. 5Housefly larva living in carrion – fluid feeder
U5 · Digestion & nutrition
20.

Which of the following statements about the digestion of nucleic acids in humans is correct?

  1. 1Pepsin hydrolyses DNA in the stomach.
  2. 2Salivary nucleases begin nucleic acid digestion in the mouth.
  3. 3Nucleotidases split nucleosides into nitrogenous bases and sugars.
  4. 4Pancreatic nucleases hydrolyse DNA and RNA into nucleotides in the small intestine.
  5. 5Nucleosidases convert nucleic acids into nucleotides.
U5 · Digestion & nutrition
21.

A person whose arterial blood pressure is abnormally low is most likely to experience

  1. 1dizziness and fainting due to reduced blood flow to the brain.
  2. 2rupture of a cerebral blood vessel (stroke).
  3. 3kidney damage caused by high glomerular pressure.
  4. 4formation of an aneurysm in the aorta.
  5. 5thickening of the wall of the left ventricle.
U5 · Circulation & blood
22.

Which group of cells is involved in the internal (second line) innate defence of the human body?

  1. 1B lymphocytes and plasma cells
  2. 2Helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells
  3. 3Memory B cells and memory T cells
  4. 4B lymphocytes and macrophages
  5. 5Neutrophils, macrophages and natural killer cells
U5 · Immunity
23.

Which of the following animals is correctly matched with its main nitrogenous excretory product?

  1. 1Pigeon – urea
  2. 2Cockroach – ammonia
  3. 3Adult toad – uric acid
  4. 4Shark – urea
  5. 5Human – uric acid
U5 · Excretion & osmoregulation
24.

After a head injury, a patient walks unsteadily and cannot smoothly coordinate voluntary movements such as reaching for a cup. Which part of the brain is most likely damaged?

  1. 1Hypothalamus
  2. 2Thalamus
  3. 3Medulla oblongata
  4. 4Pons
  5. 5Cerebellum
U5 · Nervous system
25.

Which sequence correctly shows the path of light to the photoreceptors and then the path of the resulting nerve signal in the human eye?

  1. 1Cornea → vitreous humour → lens → aqueous humour → photoreceptors → ganglion cells → bipolar cells → optic nerve → occipital lobe
  2. 2Cornea → aqueous humour → lens → vitreous humour → photoreceptors → ganglion cells → bipolar cells → optic nerve → temporal lobe
  3. 3Cornea → aqueous humour → lens → vitreous humour → photoreceptors → bipolar cells → ganglion cells → optic nerve → occipital lobe
  4. 4Lens → cornea → aqueous humour → vitreous humour → photoreceptors → bipolar cells → ganglion cells → optic nerve → occipital lobe
  5. 5Cornea → aqueous humour → lens → vitreous humour → photoreceptors → bipolar cells → ganglion cells → optic nerve → frontal lobe
U5 · Sense organs
26.

Which of the following hormones is correctly matched with its function?

  1. 1Melatonin – regulation of biological (circadian) rhythms
  2. 2Oxytocin – stimulation of milk synthesis
  3. 3Parathyroid hormone – lowering of blood calcium
  4. 4Thymosin – maturation of B lymphocytes
  5. 5Glucagon – stimulation of glycogen synthesis in the liver
U5 · Endocrine system
27.

During spermatogenesis in humans, at which step is the chromosome number reduced from 46 to 23?

  1. 1Spermatogonium → primary spermatocyte
  2. 2Spermatid → spermatozoon
  3. 3Primary spermatocyte → secondary spermatocytes
  4. 4Secondary spermatocyte → spermatids
  5. 5Primordial germ cell → spermatogonium
U5 · Reproduction & development
28.

The blood levels of four hormones (W, X, Y and Z) during a 28-day human ovarian/menstrual cycle are described below.
W – rises slightly early in the follicular phase, then falls, with a small peak at mid-cycle.
X – rises steadily during the follicular phase to a peak about one day before ovulation, with a second, smaller rise in the luteal phase.
Y – stays low except for a very sharp, short peak at about day 14.
Z – stays low in the follicular phase and reaches a large peak around day 21.
Which of the following correctly identifies W, X, Y and Z?

  1. 1W – LH, X – progesterone, Y – FSH, Z – estradiol
  2. 2W – FSH, X – progesterone, Y – LH, Z – estradiol
  3. 3W – estradiol, X – FSH, Y – LH, Z – progesterone
  4. 4W – FSH, X – estradiol, Y – LH, Z – progesterone
  5. 5W – LH, X – estradiol, Y – FSH, Z – progesterone
U5 · Reproduction & development
29.

Which of the following statements about the human skeleton and joints is correct?

  1. 1The elbow is a hinge joint formed by the humerus with the radius and ulna.
  2. 2The fibula takes part in forming the knee joint.
  3. 3The thoracic and sacral curvatures of the vertebral column are secondary curvatures.
  4. 4Osteoporosis is a degenerative disease of the articular cartilage.
  5. 5The arches of the foot distribute body weight only when standing still.
U5 · Skeleton, muscle & movement
30.

A single mutant allele of the β-globin gene causes anaemia, episodes of pain, damage to several organs and increased resistance to malaria. This is an example of

  1. 1incomplete dominance.
  2. 2epistasis.
  3. 3polygenic inheritance.
  4. 4pleiotropy.
  5. 5sex-linked inheritance.
U6 · Extensions of Mendelian genetics
31.

Two plants heterozygous for a single gene (Rr) are crossed. Which of the following statements about this cross is correct?

  1. 1It is a dihybrid cross.
  2. 2The probability that an offspring receives r from both parents is ½.
  3. 3With complete dominance, the probability of an offspring showing the dominant phenotype is ¼.
  4. 4If R and r show incomplete dominance, the offspring phenotypes appear in a 1 : 2 : 1 ratio.
  5. 5R and r are linked alleles.
U6 · Mendelian inheritance
32.

A human egg cell carrying 24 chromosomes is fertilised by a normal sperm. The resulting zygote

  1. 1is trisomic, and would have Down syndrome if the extra chromosome is chromosome 21.
  2. 2is triploid.
  3. 3is monosomic and would develop Turner syndrome.
  4. 4is tetraploid.
  5. 5has the normal chromosome number of 46.
U6 · Human genetics & disorders
33.

A point mutation changes the mRNA codon GGA to GGG. Both codons code for glycine, so the polypeptide is unchanged. This mutation is

  1. 1a frameshift mutation caused by insertion.
  2. 2a silent substitution mutation.
  3. 3a missense mutation.
  4. 4a nonsense mutation.
  5. 5a deletion mutation.
U6 · Mutations
34.

A DNA polymerase obtained from a thermophilic bacterium such as Thermus aquaticus is used in the polymerase chain reaction mainly because it

  1. 1does not need primers.
  2. 2has very strong proofreading activity.
  3. 3remains active after repeated heating to about 95 °C.
  4. 4works best at low temperatures.
  5. 5synthesises its own RNA primers.
U7 · rDNA tools & techniques
35.

To insert a gene into a bacterial plasmid vector, it is essential that

  1. 1the gene has the same base sequence as the plasmid.
  2. 2the DNA containing the gene and the plasmid are cut with the same restriction enzyme to give complementary sticky ends.
  3. 3the gene carries its own origin of replication.
  4. 4the gene and the plasmid are of the same length.
  5. 5the gene is taken from a bacterium.
U7 · rDNA tools & techniques
36.

In Sri Lanka, dry patana grasslands are mainly found in the

  1. 1lower montane slopes of the intermediate zone and drier parts of the wet zone, e.g. the Uva basin.
  2. 2upper montane region of the wet zone, e.g. Horton Plains.
  3. 3lowlands of the dry zone.
  4. 4coastal arid zone.
  5. 5lowlands of the wet zone.
U8 · Biomes & Sri Lankan ecosystems
37.

Biodiversity provides many ecosystem services. Which item below is NOT one of these environmental service values?

  1. 1Regulation of the climate
  2. 2Recharge of groundwater
  3. 3Purification of water
  4. 4Preparation of disaster management plans by authorities
  5. 5Prevention of soil erosion
U8 · Biodiversity & conservation
38.

Which one of these acts against, rather than adds to, the enhanced greenhouse effect?

  1. 1Methane released from paddy fields
  2. 2Ozone in the troposphere
  3. 3Water vapour in the atmosphere
  4. 4Uptake of CO₂ by marine phytoplankton
  5. 5Burning of fossil fuels
U8 · Environmental issues & pollution
39.

Which of the following statements about culture media used in microbiology laboratories is correct?

  1. 1Agar is the main nutrient source for most microorganisms.
  2. 2Glucose is commonly used as the carbon source in media for growing fungi.
  3. 3Potato dextrose agar is mainly used to grow bacteria.
  4. 4Sodium chloride is an essential ingredient of every culture medium.
  5. 5All microorganisms can be grown on artificial media.
U9 · Microbial growth & lab techniques
40.

Water from a well was found to contain large numbers of faecal coliform bacteria. Which disease is LEAST likely to be acquired by drinking this water?

  1. 1Cholera
  2. 2Typhoid
  3. 3Bacillary dysentery
  4. 4Hepatitis A
  5. 5Tetanus
U9 · Microbes & disease
41.

Consider the following statements about ATP and energy in cells.
A – ATP is produced by photophosphorylation in mitochondria.
B – Energy is released when ATP is oxidised.
C – Energy from ATP hydrolysis can drive the pumping of ions that maintains electrical gradients across nerve cell membranes.
D – Some ATP (or GTP) is formed by substrate-level phosphorylation in the Krebs cycle.
E – Anabolic reactions release the energy used to make ATP.
Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2A and C only
  3. 3B and E only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5D and E only
U2 · Cellular respiration & fermentation
42.

In which of the following vertebrate classes are BOTH internal and external fertilisation found?
A – Chondrichthyes
B – Osteichthyes
C – Amphibia
D – Reptilia
E – Aves

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2A and D only
  3. 3B and C only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5D and E only
U3 · Animal diversity
43.

Which of the following respiratory pigments are correctly matched with the animals in which they occur?
A – Myoglobin – muscles of fishes
B – Haemocyanin – blood of earthworms
C – Chlorocruorin – some annelids
D – Haemerythrin – some annelids
E – Chlorocruorin – insects

  1. 1A, B and C only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3B, C and E only
  4. 4C, D and E only
  5. 5A, D and E only
U5 · Gas exchange
44.

Which of the following are effects of tobacco smoking on the human body?
A – Increased secretion of mucus by goblet cells of the airways
B – Paralysis of the cilia of the airways
C – Reduced oxygen transport because carbon monoxide binds to haemoglobin
D – Tuberculosis caused directly by tobacco smoke
E – Lowering of heart rate by nicotine

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2A, B and C only
  3. 3B, C and D only
  4. 4C, D and E only
  5. 5A, D and E only
U5 · Gas exchange
45.

Which of the following contribute to maintaining the resting membrane potential of a neuron?
A – Unequal distribution of Na⁺ and K⁺ ions across the membrane
B – The Na⁺/K⁺ pump moving three Na⁺ out for every two K⁺ in
C – Greater permeability of the resting membrane to K⁺ than to Na⁺
D – Opening of voltage-gated Na⁺ channels at rest
E – Equal permeability of the membrane to Na⁺ and K⁺

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A and D only
  3. 3B, C and E only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5A, B and C only
U5 · Nervous system
46.

Consider the following statements about parthenogenesis.
A – A complete individual develops from an unfertilised egg.
B – Worker honey bees are produced by parthenogenesis.
C – It occurs in some species of lizards.
D – In honey bees it produces only diploid females.
E – It occurs in all invertebrates.
Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2B and D only
  3. 3C and E only
  4. 4A and E only
  5. 5A and C only
U5 · Reproduction & development
47.

Which of the following animals are correctly matched with the type of skeleton they have?
A – Earthworm – coelomic fluid acting as a hydrostatic skeleton
B – Sea urchin – endoskeleton of calcium carbonate plates
C – Tortoise – bony plates in addition to an endoskeleton
D – Hydra – pseudocoelomic fluid acting as a hydrostatic skeleton
E – Ascaris – gastrovascular cavity acting as a hydrostatic skeleton

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2A, B and C only
  3. 3B, C and D only
  4. 4C, D and E only
  5. 5A, D and E only
U5 · Skeleton, muscle & movement
48.

Each of the following lists biomes in order from near the North Pole towards the equator.
A – Tundra → coniferous forest → temperate grassland → desert → tropical rain forest
B – Tundra → coniferous forest → temperate broadleaf forest → chaparral → desert
C – Coniferous forest → tundra → temperate grassland → savanna → tropical rain forest
D – Tundra → temperate broadleaf forest → coniferous forest → desert → tropical rain forest
E – Tundra → coniferous forest → savanna → temperate grassland → tropical rain forest
Which sequences are correct?

  1. 1A and C only
  2. 2B and D only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4C and E only
  5. 5D and E only
U8 · Biomes & Sri Lankan ecosystems
49.

Which of the following microorganisms are correctly matched with the industrial product made using them?
A – Lactobacillus bulgaricus – yoghurt
B – Acetobacter – vinegar
C – Rhizopus – lipase
D – Saccharomyces cerevisiae – citric acid
E – Penicillium – vitamin C

  1. 1A, B and C only
  2. 2A, B and D only
  3. 3B, C and E only
  4. 4C, D and E only
  5. 5A, D and E only
U9 · Industrial & food microbiology
50.

Consider the following statements about microbial spoilage of food.
A – Rancidity results when proteolytic microbes produce amines from fats.
B – Putrefaction is the anaerobic breakdown of proteins, producing foul-smelling compounds.
C – Souring of milk is caused mainly by lipolytic bacteria.
D – Saccharolytic microbes ferment carbohydrates in food and produce acids.
E – Food spoilage takes place only under aerobic conditions.
Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2A and C only
  3. 3C and E only
  4. 4B and E only
  5. 5B and D only
U10 · Food science & postharvest
2019 (New) · Paper IIStructured & essay
1A
Part A · Structured

(i) Name three major classes of lipids found in living organisms.
(ii) Which class of lipids forms the main framework of the plasma membrane?
(iii) Distinguish between a saturated and an unsaturated fatty acid in terms of structure.
(iv) List the functions of the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
(v) Name three types of vacuoles found in cells.
(vi) State the significance of mitotic cell division to living organisms.

1B
Part A · Structured

(i) In which part of the chloroplast does the Calvin cycle take place?
(ii) Name, in order, the three phases of the Calvin cycle.
(iii) Where in the chloroplast do the light-dependent reactions occur?
(iv) Name the products of the light-dependent reactions.
(v) Explain how a high concentration of O₂ around the leaves affects photosynthesis in a C₃ plant.

1C
Part A · Structured

(i) Outline, in sequence, the stages proposed for the chemical (biochemical) origin of life on Earth.
(ii) What is meant by a polyphyletic group?
(iii) Describe a zygosporangium and state its role in the life cycle of the fungus that forms it.
(iv) Name a plant phylum whose members (a) produce seeds but still have flagellated sperm, (b) lack a vascular system and have flagellated sperm.
(v) Name the structures used by a liver fluke to maintain its osmotic balance.
(vi) What type of body cavity is found in a roundworm?

2A
Part A · Structured

(i) State three functions of epithelial tissue in animals.
(ii) List the structural features of plant meristematic cells.
(iii) Name three types of specialised cells found in the plant epidermis.
(iv) A student is given strips of potato tuber of equal size, a series of sucrose solutions from 0.15 M to 0.40 M, Petri dishes and graph paper. Describe how the student could use these to estimate the water potential of the potato tissue.
(v) State the functions of calcium in plants.

2B
Part A · Structured

(i) Name two plant genera whose gametophytes are photosynthetic.
(ii) Which group of plants has the most reduced gametophytes?
(iii) What are sori and where are they found?
(iv) Define pollination in seed plants.
(v) State the functions of cytokinins in plants.

2C
Part A · Structured

(i) State the position of the caecum in the human gut.
(ii) Which cells of the gastric glands secrete pepsinogen?
(iii) What is the importance of buffers present in saliva?
(iv) By what method is each of the following absorbed into the cells of the villi: (a) amino acids, (b) fructose?
(v) Into which blood vessel do the capillaries of the villi drain?
(vi) Explain the advantage of double circulation in mammals.
(vii) What is hypertension? State its possible consequences to the body.

3A
Part A · Structured

(i) Give three differences between active and passive immunity.
(ii) Name the two types of nephrons in the human kidney.
(iii) A creatinine molecule is filtered at the glomerulus. List, in order, the structures it passes through until it leaves the kidney.
(iv) Name two disorders of the human urinary system.
(v) In a median section of the human brain, P lies below the thalamus and above the pituitary; Q is the bulge of the brainstem in front of the cerebellum; R is the lowest part of the brainstem continuous with the spinal cord; S is the large, folded upper part; T lies behind the brainstem below the occipital lobes. Name P–T.
(vi) Which of the parts P–T is mainly involved in (a) maintaining posture, (b) coordinating the movements of running, (c) regulating thirst?

3B
Part A · Structured

(i) What is a sensory receptor?
(ii) Where are the receptors for sound located in the human ear?
(iii) Name two tropic hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary.
(iv) Give one example of positive feedback in the human endocrine system.
(v) Explain why the blood glucose level remains high in type 2 diabetes.

3C
Part A · Structured

(i) Why are the human testes located in the scrotum?
(ii) Trace the path of sperm from the seminiferous tubules to the exterior.
(iii) Name a nutrient for sperm provided by the prostate secretion.
(iv) Name the structures in the ovary that secrete hormones.
(v) What is fertilisation?
(vi) In which phase of the uterine cycle does implantation take place?
(vii) What is detected in early pregnancy tests and how?
(viii) Name two assisted reproductive technologies.
(ix) State functions of the human skeleton other than support, protection and movement.
(x) Which joint permits the nodding movement of the head?
(xi) In which region of the vertebral column are vertebrae with bifid spinous processes found?
(xii) What is a sarcomere? Name the theory that explains muscle contraction.

4A
Part A · Structured

(i) What is a pedigree chart?
(ii) What information is needed to construct a pedigree chart for a family?
(iii) In a pedigree chart, what is represented by (a) a shaded square, (b) an unshaded circle?
(iv) In the Hardy–Weinberg equation p² + 2pq + q² = 1, what do (a) p, (b) p² represent?
(v) In a population of 100,000 people that is in Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium, 9,000 people show a recessive trait. Calculate how many people are heterozygous for this trait. Show your working.

4B
Part A · Structured

(i) What is the role of RNA polymerase (primase) in DNA replication, and why is it necessary?
(ii) Name two gene products that are not polypeptides.
(iii) What is the ultimate source of genetic variation?
(iv) What information is shown by a restriction map?
(v) State applications of DNA fingerprinting.
(vi) Name a natural vector commonly used to deliver foreign DNA into plant cells.

4C
Part A · Structured

(i) Define habitat.
(ii) Give one example each of the following interactions in an ecosystem: (a) abiotic factor affecting a biotic component, (b) biotic component affecting an abiotic factor, (c) interaction between two biotic components.
(iii) What is meant by ecosystem diversity?
(iv) What is a flagship species? Name two flagship species of Sri Lanka.
(v) State the problems caused by open dumping of solid waste.
(vi) Describe a sanitary landfill.

5a
Part B · Essay

Describe the general properties of enzymes.

5b
Part B · Essay

Explain how pH, temperature, competitive inhibitors and non-competitive inhibitors affect the rate of enzyme-catalysed reactions.

6a
Part B · Essay

Describe the internal structure of a dicotyledonous leaf as seen in transverse section, stating the function of each tissue. Draw a labelled diagram.

6b
Part B · Essay

Explain how organic solutes are translocated in the phloem of flowering plants.

7a
Part B · Essay

Describe how the lungs are ventilated in humans.

7b
Part B · Essay

Explain how breathing is regulated homeostatically in humans.

8a
Part B · Essay

Discuss the importance of polyploid plants in agriculture.

8b
Part B · Essay

Describe the environmental problems that may result from using genetically modified organisms in agriculture.

9a
Part B · Essay

Describe the characteristic features of the inland wetland ecosystems of Sri Lanka.

9b
Part B · Essay

Explain the effects of releasing wastewater into natural water bodies.

10a
Part B · Essay

Write a short note on: Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection.

10b
Part B · Essay

Write a short note on: the energy budget of an animal.

10c
Part B · Essay

Write a short note on: the extra-embryonic (fetal) membranes of amniotes.

2019 (New) · Answers & reviewsMEDVision answers

Answer key — this booklet

132235435261758193104113122135144155162171183193204211225234245253261273284291304314321332343352361374384392405414423432442455465472483491505

Answer key — original 2019 (New) paper (MEDVision model answers)

For students working from the original paper. Shaded cells: check against the official marking scheme (amber = likely, red = disputed).

132235435261758193104113122135144155162171183193204211225234245253261273284291304314321332343352361374384392405414423432442455465472483491505

Paper I — reviews

1
Answer 3 The cell is the smallest unit that shows all the properties of life, so it is the basic structural and functional unit. Molecules and organelles are not alive on their own; tissues and organ systems are higher levels built from cells.
2
Answer 2 NAD⁺, NADP⁺, FAD and coenzyme A are nucleotide-derived coenzymes. Trap: nucleotides contain pentose (not hexose) sugars and are not O₂ carriers or wall components.
3
Answer 5 Every microscope is characterised by its magnification and resolving power. Light passes through the specimen before the objective; EMs use an electron beam in a vacuum, SEM shows surfaces, and TEM needs dead, fixed, thin sections.
4
Answer 3 Microtubules (tubulin) are the tracks for motor proteins and form the mitotic spindle. Microfilaments are actin; keratin is an intermediate-filament protein that gives mechanical strength.
5
Answer 2 G₂ is a growth phase in which proteins required for division, such as tubulin, are made. DNA replicates in S phase, chromatin condenses and the spindle starts to form in prophase, and cytokinesis follows telophase.
6
Answer 1 Chlorophylls absorb mainly blue-violet and red light, which is why leaves look green. Chlorophyll a is the reaction-centre pigment, carotenoids give photoprotection, and PS I is P700 (PS II is P680).
7
Answer 5 All three pathways begin with glycolysis, which yields pyruvate. Acetaldehyde occurs only in alcoholic fermentation; acetyl CoA, citrate and oxaloacetate occur only in aerobic respiration.
8
Answer 1 Annelids are taught as the first true coelomates. Planarians (Platyhelminthes) are acoelomate, Ascaris has a pseudocoelom, and Hydra and sponges have no body cavity of this kind.
9
Answer 3 Annelids and arthropods both have a ventral, solid, ganglionated nerve cord. Clitellum and parapodia are annelid features, the chitinous exoskeleton is only in arthropods, and arthropods have an open circulation.
10
Answer 4 Pogonatum is a moss, so it is a fellow bryophyte (non-vascular). Selaginella, Lycopodium, Nephrolepis and Cycas are vascular plants and are far more distantly related.
11
Answer 3 As angiosperms, dicots have ovules (and later seeds) enclosed in an ovary. Undifferentiated perianth, single-aperture pollen and scattered bundles are monocot features, and stamens produce microspores.
12
Answer 2 The epidermis is a permanent dermal tissue, usually a single layer. Root hairs are unicellular, the cuticle contains cutin (not suberin), and most epidermal cells other than guard cells lack chloroplasts.
13
Answer 5 Growing tall lets a plant overtop its neighbours and avoid being shaded. Small leaves suit dry habitats, vertical leaves reduce interception of light (useful only in intense light), and branching increases rather than reduces light capture.
14
Answer 4 Active uptake of K⁺ lowers the water potential of guard cells, so water enters, turgor rises and the pore opens. Photosynthesis lowers (not raises) CO₂ in the substomatal cavity.
15
Answer 5 Molybdenum is a cofactor of nitrate reductase and nitrogenase. Iron is a micronutrient (and is in cytochromes); Mg is in chlorophyll; mobile N shows deficiency in older leaves while immobile S shows it in young leaves.
16
Answer 2 In all land plants the egg stays in an archegonium or ovule, so fertilisation is internal. Bryophytes and ferns still need water, heterospory is not universal, and only in bryophytes does the sporophyte depend on the gametophyte.
17
Answer 1 Plants have two major classes of photoreceptors: blue-light receptors (e.g. cryptochromes, phototropins) and phytochromes (red/far-red). Phototropic bending results from faster elongation on the shaded side, and seed germination is controlled by phytochrome.
18
Answer 3 Blood has a fluid matrix, plasma; fibrin threads form only during clotting. All the other tissues contain collagen and/or elastic fibres.
19
Answer 3 Mussels, like clams and oysters, strain food particles from water. A python is a bulk feeder, butterflies are fluid feeders, and maggots living in their food are substrate feeders.
20
Answer 4 Pancreatic nucleases act in the duodenum to give nucleotides; nucleotidases then give nucleosides, and nucleosidases split nucleosides into bases and pentoses. No nucleic acid digestion occurs in the mouth or stomach.
21
Answer 1 Low blood pressure reduces perfusion of the brain, causing dizziness and loss of consciousness. Stroke, kidney damage, aneurysm and ventricular hypertrophy are consequences of hypertension.
22
Answer 5 Internal innate defence relies on phagocytes (neutrophils, macrophages, dendritic cells) and natural killer cells. Any option containing B or T lymphocytes refers to adaptive immunity.
23
Answer 4 Sharks are ureotelic and retain urea in their blood for osmoregulation. Birds and insects excrete mainly uric acid, while adult amphibians and mammals excrete mainly urea.
24
Answer 5 The cerebellum coordinates voluntary movements and maintains balance and posture. The thalamus relays sensory input, the medulla controls vital reflexes, and the hypothalamus controls homeostasis.
25
Answer 3 Light passes cornea → aqueous humour → lens → vitreous humour to the rods and cones; signals travel photoreceptors → bipolar → ganglion cells → optic nerve → visual cortex of the occipital lobe. Watch for swapped bipolar/ganglion order and the wrong lobe.
26
Answer 1 Melatonin from the pineal gland regulates daily rhythms. Prolactin (not oxytocin) stimulates milk synthesis, PTH raises blood Ca²⁺, thymosin promotes T-cell maturation and glucagon promotes glycogen breakdown.
27
Answer 3 Meiosis I turns the diploid primary spermatocyte into haploid secondary spermatocytes. Meiosis II separates chromatids without changing the chromosome number, and spermiogenesis is only differentiation.
28
Answer 4 The mid-cycle surge is LH, estradiol peaks just before it, progesterone peaks in the mid-luteal phase from the corpus luteum, and FSH shows an early follicular rise with a small mid-cycle peak. The usual trap is confusing the two gonadotrophin curves.
29
Answer 1 The elbow is a hinge joint (humerus with radius and ulna) allowing flexion and extension. The knee involves the tibia, not the fibula; cervical and lumbar curves are secondary; osteoarthritis is the degenerative joint disease; the arches also work during walking.
30
Answer 4 One gene affecting many different phenotypic traits is pleiotropy. Epistasis and polygenic inheritance involve several genes, and the β-globin gene is autosomal.
31
Answer 4 With incomplete dominance (or codominance) the heterozygote has its own phenotype, so Rr × Rr gives 1 : 2 : 1. P(rr) = ¼, P(dominant phenotype) = ¾, it is a monohybrid cross, and linkage applies to different genes, not alleles.
32
Answer 1 24 + 23 = 47: one extra chromosome from non-disjunction, i.e. trisomy (aneuploidy). Polyploidy (triploid, tetraploid) involves whole extra sets.
33
Answer 2 One base is replaced by another (substitution), and because the genetic code is redundant the amino acid is unchanged, so the mutation is silent. Missense would change the amino acid; nonsense would create a stop codon.
34
Answer 3 Taq polymerase is heat-stable and survives the denaturation step of every cycle. It still needs DNA primers and actually lacks proofreading activity.
35
Answer 2 Cutting both with the same restriction enzyme produces complementary sticky ends that base-pair and are sealed by DNA ligase. The insert does not need its own Ori, the same length, or a bacterial source.
36
Answer 1 Dry patanas occur on the lower montane slopes (about 500–1500 m) of the intermediate zone and the drier parts of the wet zone. Wet patanas are in the upper montane wet zone, and savannas occur in the dry lowlands.
37
Answer 4 Climate regulation, groundwater recharge, water purification and soil protection are services provided by ecosystems. Preparing disaster management plans is a human management activity, not a service of biodiversity.
38
Answer 4 Photosynthesis by phytoplankton removes CO₂ and acts as a carbon sink. Methane, tropospheric ozone and water vapour are greenhouse gases, and burning fuels releases CO₂.
39
Answer 2 Glucose (dextrose) is the usual carbon source in fungal media such as PDA and Sabouraud agar. Agar is only a solidifying agent, PDA is a fungal medium, NaCl is not universal, and many microbes cannot yet be cultured.
40
Answer 5 Cholera, typhoid, dysentery and hepatitis A spread by the faecal–oral route through water. Tetanus occurs when Clostridium tetani spores enter wounds, not by drinking water.
41
Answer 4 C and D are correct: ATP powers electrical (transport) work such as the Na⁺/K⁺ pump, and the Krebs cycle has a substrate-level phosphorylation step. Photophosphorylation occurs in chloroplasts, ATP is hydrolysed rather than oxidised, and anabolic reactions use energy.
42
Answer 3 Most bony fishes fertilise externally, but live-bearers fertilise internally. Frogs fertilise externally, while most salamanders and caecilians fertilise internally. Cartilaginous fishes, reptiles and birds always fertilise internally.
43
Answer 2 Myoglobin is in vertebrate (including fish) muscle, and chlorocruorin and haemerythrin occur in certain annelids. Earthworms have haemoglobin, and insects rely on tracheae rather than a blood pigment for O₂ transport.
44
Answer 2 Smoke irritants raise mucus secretion and paralyse cilia, and CO combines with haemoglobin and cuts O₂ transport. TB is caused by a bacterium, and nicotine raises (not lowers) heart rate.
45
Answer 5 The resting potential depends on unequal ion distribution, the 3Na⁺/2K⁺ pump and the larger number of open K⁺ leak channels. Voltage-gated Na⁺ channels open only during an action potential.
46
Answer 5 Parthenogenesis is development of an unfertilised egg into a whole organism, and it occurs in some lizards such as whiptails. In honey bees it produces haploid male drones, not workers or females, and it is not universal among invertebrates.
47
Answer 2 Annelids use coelomic fluid, echinoderms have calcareous plates, and turtles and tortoises have bony plates. In Hydra the gastrovascular cavity forms the hydrostatic skeleton; in Ascaris it is the pseudocoelom. D and E swap these.
48
Answer 3 A and B follow the order of rising temperature towards the tropics: tundra, then taiga, then temperate biomes, then subtropical desert/chaparral, then tropical forest. C, D and E each put a pair of biomes in reverse latitudinal order.
49
Answer 1 Yoghurt uses Lactobacillus bulgaricus, vinegar uses acetic acid bacteria such as Acetobacter, and lipase is produced by Rhizopus. Citric acid is made with Aspergillus niger, and vitamin C is not a Penicillium product.
50
Answer 5 B and D are correct: putrefaction is anaerobic protein breakdown, and saccharolytic microbes ferment sugars to acids. Rancidity is the breakdown of lipids by lipolytic microbes, souring of milk is lactic acid fermentation, and spoilage can be anaerobic.

Paper II — marking points

1A
  1. Three major lipid types: fats/oils (triglycerides), phospholipids, steroids (also waxes)
  2. Phospholipids form the main lipid of the cell membrane (bilayer)
  3. Saturated fatty acids have only C–C single bonds (max H); unsaturated have one or more C=C double bonds (kinks)
  4. RER: synthesis of secretory/membrane proteins on ribosomes; glycoprotein formation (adding carbohydrates); membrane production; transport of proteins in transport vesicles to Golgi
  5. Vacuoles: central (sap) vacuole of plants, food vacuole, contractile vacuole (also gas vacuoles in some prokaryotes)
  6. Mitosis: growth of multicellular organisms; repair/replacement of cells; asexual reproduction; produces genetically identical cells (maintains chromosome number)
1B
  1. Calvin cycle occurs in the stroma of the chloroplast
  2. Three steps: carbon fixation (by Rubisco), reduction (to G3P), regeneration of RuBP
  3. Light reactions occur on the thylakoid membranes
  4. Products of light reaction: ATP, NADPH, O₂
  5. High O₂ makes Rubisco act as an oxygenase (photorespiration)
  6. RuBP is oxidised, CO₂ is released and ATP is consumed without sugar production, so photosynthetic productivity falls
1C
  1. Stages: abiotic synthesis of small organic molecules → joining into macromolecules (polymers) → packaging into protobionts (membrane-bound droplets) → origin of self-replicating molecules (RNA) giving inheritance
  2. Polyphyletic: a group whose members derive from more than one ancestor, the most recent common ancestor not being included
  3. Zygosporangium: thick-walled, resistant structure of zygomycete fungi (e.g. Mucor/Rhizopus) formed by fusion of hyphal gametangia; contains multiple diploid nuclei, survives harsh conditions and undergoes meiosis to form haploid spores
  4. Seeds + flagellated sperm: Cycadophyta (also Ginkgophyta)
  5. No vascular system + flagellated sperm: Hepatophyta / Bryophyta / Anthocerophyta
  6. Flukes maintain osmotic balance with flame cells (protonephridia)
  7. Nematode body cavity: pseudocoelom
2A
  1. Epithelial functions: protection, absorption, secretion (also excretion, sensory reception)
  2. Meristematic cells: small, thin primary cell walls, dense cytoplasm with large nucleus, small/no vacuoles, no intercellular spaces, isodiametric
  3. Specialised epidermal cells: guard cells, trichomes, root hairs
  4. Blot strips and measure initial length of each strip accurately on graph paper
  5. Place two strips in each sucrose solution (0.15–0.40 M), cover and leave for a fixed time (e.g. 30–60 min)
  6. Measure final length; calculate change/percentage change in length
  7. Plot change in length against sucrose concentration
  8. Find the concentration where length change is zero; its solute potential (= water potential of solution) equals tissue water potential
  9. Calcium: component of middle lamella (calcium pectate); maintains membrane structure/permeability; enzyme activation/cofactor; second messenger in signalling; required for cell division (spindle)
2B
  1. Genera with photosynthetic gametophytes: e.g. Marchantia, Pogonatum, Nephrolepis, Lycopodium (any two)
  2. Least developed (most reduced) gametophytes: angiosperms (flowering plants)
  3. Sori: clusters of sporangia on the underside of fern leaves (sporophylls), often covered by an indusium
  4. Pollination: transfer of pollen from anther (microsporangium) to stigma (angiosperms) or to the ovule/micropyle (gymnosperms)
  5. Cytokinins: stimulate cell division (cytokinesis); promote lateral bud growth (counter apical dominance); delay leaf senescence; promote shoot formation/differentiation in tissue culture with auxin; stimulate seed germination
2C
  1. Caecum: at the junction of the ileum and the colon (start of large intestine), with appendix attached
  2. Pepsinogen secreted by chief cells (zymogen/peptic cells)
  3. Salivary buffers (bicarbonate) neutralise acids, keep pH near neutral for salivary amylase and protect teeth from decay
  4. Amino acids: active transport; fructose: passive (facilitated diffusion); (glucose: active)
  5. Capillaries of villi converge into the hepatic portal vein
  6. Double circulation: blood returns to heart after lungs and is pumped again at high pressure, so systemic blood flows fast and efficiently; oxygenated and deoxygenated blood do not mix
  7. Hypertension: persistently high arterial blood pressure (≥140/90 mmHg)
  8. Consequences: heart attack/heart failure, stroke, kidney damage (renal failure), atherosclerosis, retinal damage/blindness, aneurysm
3A
  1. Active: own body produces antibodies; passive: antibodies received from outside (mother, injection)
  2. Active: develops slowly; passive: immediate
  3. Active: long-lasting with memory cells; passive: short-lived, no memory
  4. Nephron types: cortical nephrons and juxtamedullary nephrons
  5. Creatinine: Bowman's capsule → PCT → descending limb of loop of Henle → ascending limb → DCT → collecting duct → renal pelvis → ureter
  6. Urinary disorders: kidney stones (renal calculi), urinary tract infection, chronic kidney disease/renal failure, nephritis
  7. Parts: P hypothalamus, Q pons Varolii, R medulla oblongata, S cerebrum (cerebral cortex), T cerebellum
  8. Maintaining posture: cerebellum; coordination of running: cerebellum; regulation of thirst: hypothalamus
3B
  1. Sensory receptor: a specialised cell/structure (or sensory neuron ending) that detects a stimulus and converts it into nerve impulses (transduction)
  2. Sound receptors: hair cells of the organ of Corti in the cochlea (inner ear)
  3. Tropic hormones: FSH, LH, TSH, ACTH (any two)
  4. Positive feedback: oxytocin release during childbirth increasing uterine contractions; or oxytocin in milk ejection; or estradiol-triggered LH surge before ovulation
  5. Type 2 diabetes: target cells lose responsiveness to insulin (insulin resistance) and/or insulin secretion is reduced
  6. So glucose uptake by cells and conversion to glycogen fall, keeping blood glucose high
3C
  1. Testes in scrotum keep temperature ~2–3 °C below body temperature, required for spermatogenesis
  2. Sperm path: seminiferous tubules → rete testis → epididymis → vas deferens → ejaculatory duct → urethra
  3. Prostate secretion provides citrate (citric acid) as nutrient
  4. Hormone-producing structures in ovary: follicles (granulosa/theca cells) and corpus luteum
  5. Fertilization: fusion of haploid sperm nucleus with haploid ovum nucleus to form a diploid zygote
  6. Implantation occurs in the secretory phase of the uterine cycle
  7. Early pregnancy tests detect hCG in urine/blood using antibodies
  8. ART: IVF, ICSI, IUI (artificial insemination), GIFT
  9. Other skeletal functions: blood cell formation (haemopoiesis in red marrow), mineral (Ca, P) storage, fat storage, hearing (ear ossicles)
  10. Nodding: occipital condyles articulating with the atlas (atlanto-occipital joint)
  11. Bifid spinous process: cervical vertebrae (C3–C6)
  12. Sarcomere: the contractile unit of a myofibril between two adjacent Z lines
  13. Sliding filament theory
4A
  1. Pedigree chart: a diagram showing the occurrence of a trait across generations of a family and the relationships among members
  2. Data: family members across several generations, their sex, relationships (parents, offspring, siblings, marriages) and whether each shows the trait
  3. Filled square: male showing (affected by) the trait
  4. Open circle: female not showing the trait (unaffected)
  5. p: frequency of the dominant allele in the population
  6. p²: frequency of homozygous dominant genotype
  7. q² = 9,000/100,000 = 0.09, so q = 0.3 and p = 0.7
  8. 2pq = 2 × 0.7 × 0.3 = 0.42 → about 42,000 heterozygous persons
4B
  1. RNA polymerase (primase) synthesises a short RNA primer complementary to the template
  2. DNA polymerase III can add nucleotides only to a free 3′-OH end, so the primer is essential to start DNA synthesis (leading strand and each Okazaki fragment)
  3. Non-polypeptide gene products: rRNA, tRNA (also snRNA, miRNA)
  4. Ultimate source of genetic variation: mutation (plus recombination during sexual reproduction)
  5. Restriction map: positions of restriction enzyme sites on a DNA molecule, number of sites, distances between them and sizes of fragments
  6. DNA fingerprinting: forensic identification of criminals, paternity/parentage testing, identifying human remains, studying evolutionary relationships
  7. Plant DNA delivery: Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens
4C
  1. Habitat: the place/environment where an organism or population naturally lives
  2. Abiotic → biotic: e.g. light affecting plant growth / temperature on animal distribution
  3. Biotic → abiotic: e.g. plant roots/decomposers forming soil, transpiration raising humidity
  4. Biotic ↔ biotic: e.g. predation, competition, mutualism (bees and flowers)
  5. Ecosystem diversity: variety of ecosystems (habitats, communities and processes) in a region/biosphere
  6. Flagship species: a charismatic species used to attract public support for conservation of a habitat
  7. Sri Lankan flagship species: Asian elephant, Sri Lankan leopard, purple-faced leaf monkey, Sri Lanka junglefowl
  8. Open dumping: bad odour, breeding of vectors (flies, mosquitoes, rats) and spread of disease, leachate contaminating ground/surface water, emission of methane and other gases, fire hazards, aesthetic loss, soil pollution
  9. Sanitary landfill: engineered site where waste is spread in layers, compacted and covered daily with soil, with impermeable liner, leachate collection/treatment and gas venting/collection
5a
  1. Enzymes are biological catalysts, mostly globular proteins (some RNA – ribozymes)
  2. Speed up reactions by lowering activation energy
  3. Not used up or changed at the end of the reaction; needed in small amounts
  4. Do not alter the equilibrium/end products of a reaction; catalyse reversible reactions in either direction
  5. Highly specific to substrate and reaction due to the shape of the active site
  6. Form enzyme–substrate complex (lock-and-key / induced fit)
  7. Sensitive to temperature; denatured at high temperature, inactive at low
  8. Each has an optimum pH
  9. Some require cofactors (metal ions) or coenzymes (e.g. NAD⁺, vitamins)
  10. Activity affected by inhibitors and activators; can be regulated (allosteric, feedback)
  11. High turnover number
  12. Rate depends on enzyme and substrate concentration
5b
  1. Each enzyme has an optimum pH at which activity is maximum (e.g. pepsin ~2, trypsin ~8)
  2. pH changes alter ionisation of R groups, breaking ionic/hydrogen bonds and changing active site shape
  3. Extreme pH denatures the enzyme; rate drops either side of optimum
  4. Rising temperature increases kinetic energy and collisions, so rate increases up to the optimum (~35–40 °C for human enzymes)
  5. Above optimum, bonds break, protein denatures and the rate drops sharply; denaturation is irreversible
  6. Low temperatures inactivate enzymes reversibly
  7. Competitive inhibitors resemble the substrate and bind to the active site, blocking substrate entry
  8. Competitive inhibition can be overcome by increasing substrate concentration (e.g. malonate inhibiting succinate dehydrogenase)
  9. Non-competitive inhibitors bind elsewhere (allosteric site) and change the active site shape
  10. Non-competitive inhibition is not overcome by raising substrate concentration; e.g. heavy metal ions, cyanide
  11. Inhibitors may be reversible or irreversible; inhibition is used in metabolic regulation (feedback inhibition)
6a
  1. Upper epidermis: single layer, no chloroplasts, covered by waxy cuticle — protection, reduces water loss, transmits light
  2. Lower epidermis: single layer with many stomata (guard cells with chloroplasts) — gaseous exchange and transpiration
  3. Trichomes may be present — reduce water loss/protection
  4. Palisade mesophyll: elongated columnar cells beneath upper epidermis, packed with chloroplasts — main site of photosynthesis
  5. Spongy mesophyll: irregular cells with large air spaces — gas diffusion, some photosynthesis
  6. Substomatal air chamber connects to air spaces
  7. Midrib vascular bundle: xylem towards upper side, phloem towards lower side
  8. Xylem transports water and minerals and gives support; phloem transports sugars
  9. Bundle sheath cells around veins — regulate movement between vascular tissue and mesophyll
  10. Collenchyma beneath epidermis of midrib and parenchyma ground tissue — mechanical support / storage
  11. Leaf veins (lateral bundles) distribute water and collect photosynthates; labelled diagram expected
6b
  1. Translocation: transport of organic solutes (mainly sucrose) in sieve tubes from source to sink
  2. Explained by the pressure-flow (mass-flow) hypothesis
  3. At source (leaf), sucrose is actively loaded into sieve tubes (via companion cells, H⁺–sucrose cotransport using ATP)
  4. Solute potential falls, water potential of sieve tube decreases
  5. Water enters sieve tube from adjacent xylem by osmosis
  6. Hydrostatic (turgor) pressure builds up at the source end
  7. At sink (roots, fruits, storage organs), sucrose is unloaded/used
  8. Water potential at sink rises, water leaves to xylem, lowering pressure
  9. Pressure gradient pushes phloem sap by bulk flow from source to sink
  10. Flow can be in either direction, depending on source–sink positions
  11. Xylem recycles water from sink back to source
7a
  1. Ventilation is by negative-pressure breathing, changing thoracic volume
  2. Inspiration: external intercostal muscles contract, ribs and sternum move up and outward
  3. Diaphragm contracts and flattens (moves down)
  4. Thoracic cavity volume increases; pleural pressure drops, lungs expand
  5. Alveolar/intrapulmonary pressure falls below atmospheric
  6. Air flows in through nose → pharynx → larynx → trachea → bronchi → bronchioles → alveoli
  7. Quiet expiration is passive: external intercostals and diaphragm relax
  8. Elastic recoil of lungs; ribs move down and inward, diaphragm domes up
  9. Thoracic volume decreases, alveolar pressure rises above atmospheric, air expelled
  10. Forced expiration: internal intercostals and abdominal muscles contract
  11. Pleural membranes/fluid reduce friction and keep lungs attached to chest wall
7b
  1. Breathing centres in the medulla oblongata (and pons) set rhythm by sending impulses to intercostal muscles and diaphragm
  2. Pons regulates/smooths the rhythm with the medulla
  3. Main controlled variable: CO₂ (via blood/CSF pH)
  4. Increase in CO₂ (e.g. exercise) → CO₂ forms carbonic acid → H⁺ increases → pH of CSF and blood falls
  5. Central chemoreceptors in medulla detect the pH drop
  6. Peripheral chemoreceptors in aortic and carotid bodies detect CO₂/H⁺ and (very low) O₂ and send impulses to medulla
  7. Medulla increases rate and depth of breathing
  8. More CO₂ is expelled, pH returns to normal — negative feedback
  9. When CO₂ falls, breathing rate decreases
  10. Stretch receptors in lungs prevent over-inflation (Hering–Breuer reflex)
  11. Higher brain centres (cerebrum) allow voluntary control for a short time
8a
  1. Polyploids have more than two complete chromosome sets (autopolyploids, allopolyploids)
  2. Larger cells → larger plants, leaves, flowers, fruits (gigas effect), higher yield
  3. Higher content of useful products (sugars, vitamins, proteins)
  4. Triploids are sterile → seedless fruits (banana, seedless watermelon)
  5. Allopolyploidy produces new species combining desirable traits of two species (e.g. bread wheat – hexaploid, Triticale, cotton)
  6. Restores fertility of sterile interspecific hybrids by chromosome doubling
  7. Increased vigour and tolerance to pests, diseases and environmental stress
  8. Longer flowering/better quality ornamental flowers
  9. Induced artificially using colchicine
  10. Examples: potato, sugarcane, strawberry, coffee, apple, tobacco
8b
  1. Gene flow: transgenes transfer to wild relatives via pollen, creating 'superweeds' (e.g. herbicide-resistant weeds)
  2. Herbicide-tolerant crops encourage heavy herbicide use, polluting soil and water
  3. Pests evolve resistance to Bt toxin, reducing effectiveness
  4. Harm to non-target organisms (e.g. beneficial insects, pollinators, soil organisms)
  5. Loss of biodiversity as GM monocultures replace traditional varieties (genetic erosion)
  6. GM organisms may become invasive and outcompete native species
  7. Disruption of food chains/ecological balance
  8. Changes in soil microbial communities from root exudates/residues
  9. Possible horizontal gene transfer (e.g. antibiotic-resistance marker genes to microbes)
  10. Unpredictable long-term effects and difficulty recalling released GMOs
  11. Contamination of organic/non-GM crops
9a
  1. Inland wetlands: freshwater areas where land is permanently/seasonally covered by water — e.g. rivers/streams, flood plains, villus, marshes, swamp forests, tanks (reservoirs)
  2. Mostly freshwater with low salinity; water may be still or flowing
  3. Soils are waterlogged, anaerobic and rich in organic matter
  4. Flood plains and villus (e.g. Mahaweli flood plains) seasonally inundated, grassy
  5. Marshes dominated by herbaceous plants, sedges and grasses
  6. Freshwater swamp forests with woody trees (e.g. Walidda / Mitragyna, Kaduru/Barringtonia) e.g. Bellanwila–Attidiya, Muthurajawela parts
  7. Tanks/reservoirs are man-made (ancient irrigation tanks)
  8. Aquatic plants: submerged, floating and emergent (Nymphaea, Hydrilla, Aponogeton)
  9. Rich fauna: fish, amphibians, aquatic birds (migratory), crocodiles, invertebrates
  10. Functions: flood control, groundwater recharge, water purification, sediment trapping, habitat and breeding grounds
  11. Support livelihoods: fisheries, irrigation, drinking water, recreation
  12. Threats: filling, pollution, invasive species (e.g. water hyacinth, Salvinia)
9b
  1. Wastewater: domestic sewage, industrial effluent, agricultural runoff
  2. Organic matter increases BOD; decomposition depletes dissolved O₂ → death of fish and aquatic organisms
  3. Nitrates and phosphates cause eutrophication: algal blooms, reduced light, O₂ depletion
  4. Toxic algal blooms (cyanobacteria) harm humans and animals
  5. Pathogens spread waterborne diseases (cholera, typhoid, dysentery, hepatitis A)
  6. Heavy metals (Hg, Cd, Pb, As) are toxic and biomagnify through food chains
  7. Pesticides/chemicals poison aquatic life and bioaccumulate
  8. Oil and grease form surface films reducing gas exchange
  9. Thermal pollution lowers O₂ solubility and stresses organisms
  10. Suspended solids increase turbidity, reduce photosynthesis and smother benthic habitats
  11. Changes pH and causes bad odour (H₂S), aesthetic loss
  12. Loss of biodiversity; contaminated drinking water and groundwater; economic loss (fisheries, tourism)
10a
  1. Proposed by Charles Darwin and Alfred Russel Wallace (Origin of Species, 1859)
  2. Organisms produce more offspring than can survive (overproduction)
  3. Population size remains relatively constant due to limited resources
  4. Struggle for existence / competition among individuals
  5. Individuals of a population vary in their traits
  6. Many variations are heritable
  7. Individuals with traits better suited to the environment survive and reproduce more (survival of the fittest)
  8. Favourable heritable traits accumulate in the population over generations
  9. Leads to adaptation and, over long periods, origin of new species
  10. Examples: industrial melanism of peppered moth, antibiotic resistance in bacteria
10b
  1. Energy budget: how an animal allocates energy obtained from food
  2. Energy taken in as food; part lost in faeces (and urine) as undigested/unabsorbed material
  3. Remaining energy is absorbed/assimilated
  4. Assimilated energy is used first for basal (BMR) or standard metabolic rate (SMR) — maintenance
  5. Also for activity, temperature regulation (in endotherms) and digestion
  6. Surplus used for growth, reproduction and storage (fat, glycogen)
  7. Endotherms spend more on thermoregulation than ectotherms
  8. Small animals have higher metabolic rate per unit mass
  9. Budget varies with size, activity, environment, age and reproductive state
10c
  1. Four extra-embryonic membranes in amniotes: amnion, chorion, yolk sac, allantois
  2. Amnion: encloses embryo in amniotic fluid — protects against shock and dehydration
  3. Chorion: outermost membrane; with allantois contributes to placenta; secretes hCG; gas exchange
  4. Chorionic villi invade endometrium to form the placenta
  5. Yolk sac: early site of blood cell formation and primordial germ cells in mammals; stores yolk in birds/reptiles
  6. Allantois: in mammals forms umbilical blood vessels and part of urinary bladder; in birds/reptiles stores nitrogenous wastes and gas exchange
  7. Derived from trophoblast/embryonic tissues
  8. Adaptation for development on land (amniotic egg)

Scan notes: All 50 MCQs and all Paper II questions present; OCR clean. Figures for MCQ 28 (hormone graph), P2 3A(v) (brain labels) and 4A(iii) (pedigree symbols) were read from page images. Brain label P read as hypothalamus (arrow ends near hypothalamus/pituitary stalk). Lower-confidence keys: Q8, Q10, Q11, Q12, Q36, Q37, Q38, Q43, Q48.

2020

G.C.E. (Advanced Level) — Biology

Current syllabus (2019 onward) · Re-set practice paper

Paper I50 MCQs · 2 hoursAnswer all. Choose the one correct or most suitable option.
Paper II23 parts in this booklet · 3 hoursPart A: answer all structured questions. Part B: answer four essays.

Every question tests the same concept as question of the same number in the 2020 paper, re-written by MEDVision. Source coverage: Paper I + full Paper II.

2020 · Paper IMultiple choice
1.

Conditions on the primitive Earth included an atmosphere with no free oxygen and shallow seas rich in abiotically formed organic compounds. The earliest living cells that arose under these conditions were most probably

  1. 1autotrophic, aerobic eukaryotes.
  2. 2heterotrophic, anaerobic prokaryotes.
  3. 3autotrophic, anaerobic prokaryotes.
  4. 4heterotrophic, aerobic eukaryotes.
  5. 5photoautotrophic, aerobic prokaryotes.
U3 · Origin of life & evolution
2.

Which one of the following statements about proteins is correct?

  1. 1Their α-helix and β-pleated sheet are maintained mainly by disulphide bridges.
  2. 2They are assembled from about thirty different kinds of amino acids.
  3. 3Phosphorus is a constituent element of every amino acid.
  4. 4Some of them act as carriers that move substances across membranes or in the blood.
  5. 5Treatment with a detergent does not alter their three-dimensional shape.
U2 · Biomolecules & water
3.

A student wants to observe a stained cheek-cell preparation under a compound light microscope. The steps are: P – sharpening the image with the fine adjustment knob; Q – bringing the cells into view with the coarse adjustment knob; R – tilting the mirror to illuminate the field. The correct order of these steps is

  1. 1P, Q, R
  2. 2R, P, Q
  3. 3R, Q, P
  4. 4Q, R, P
  5. 5Q, P, R
U2 · Microscopy
4.

Consider the following cell features: A – a cell surface (plasma) membrane; B – a nuclear envelope; C – 70S ribosomes; D – cytosol in which subcellular components are suspended; E – formation of a spindle during cell division. Which of these are found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

  1. 1A and C only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3B, C and D only
  4. 4A, D and E only
  5. 5A, B, C and D only
U2 · Cell organelles & structure
5.

Which one of the following statements about the eukaryotic cell cycle is correct?

  1. 1Chiasmata are first formed during anaphase I of meiosis.
  2. 2DNA is replicated during the G₂ phase.
  3. 3The nuclear envelope is reassembled during cytokinesis.
  4. 4Assembly of the mitotic spindle starts in prophase.
  5. 5Sister chromatids separate during metaphase of mitosis.
U2 · Cell cycle, mitosis & meiosis
6.

Which one of the following statements about adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is correct?

  1. 1It is a nucleoside made of adenine, ribose and three phosphate groups.
  2. 2Its sugar component is deoxyribose.
  3. 3Removal of its terminal phosphate to give ADP and Pi releases about 30.5 kJ mol⁻¹.
  4. 4ATP made in chloroplasts using light energy is formed by oxidative phosphorylation.
  5. 5The link reaction (pyruvate oxidation) produces ATP by substrate-level phosphorylation.
U2 · Biomolecules & water
7.

Which one of the following is a general property of enzymes?

  1. 1They raise the activation energy needed to start a reaction.
  2. 2The products they form are the same as those of the uncatalysed reaction.
  3. 3Each enzyme acts on a wide range of unrelated substrates.
  4. 4A small fraction of the enzyme is consumed in every reaction.
  5. 5Any region on the surface of the enzyme can catalyse the reaction.
U2 · Enzymes
8.

Three statements on chemical evolution are given: X – simple organic compounds such as amino acids and sugars formed abiotically and accumulated in the early seas; Y – these monomers later joined together to form macromolecules such as polypeptides and nucleic acids; Z – all protocells possessed DNA as their hereditary material enclosed by a lipid bilayer. Which of these is/are correct?

  1. 1X only
  2. 2Y only
  3. 3X and Y only
  4. 4Y and Z only
  5. 5X, Y and Z
U3 · Origin of life & evolution
9.

Four features are coded as follows. Cell organisation: P = prokaryotic, E = eukaryotic. Peptidoglycan in the wall: + = present, − = absent. RNA polymerase: 1 = one kind, M = several kinds. Effect of streptomycin: I = growth inhibited, N = growth not inhibited. Which organism is matched with the correct combination?

  1. 1Anabaena — P, +, M, I
  2. 2Methanococcus — P, +, 1, N
  3. 3Chlamydomonas — E, +, M, I
  4. 4Aspergillus — E, −, M, N
  5. 5Hydra — E, −, 1, N
U3 · Prokaryotes, protists & fungi
10.

Which option lists, in the correct order, an animal with flame-cell protonephridia, an animal with a mantle, and an animal with cnidocytes (stinging cells)?

  1. 1Taenia, octopus and sea anemone
  2. 2Ascaris, snail and Hydra
  3. 3Fasciola, earthworm and Obelia
  4. 4Starfish, mussel and Physalia
  5. 5Hydra, squid and Planaria
U3 · Animal diversity
11.

Selaginella is regarded as closer to seed plants than Lycopodium is. Which feature of Selaginella, absent in Lycopodium, supports this view?

  1. 1Presence of true roots
  2. 2Presence of microphylls
  3. 3Production of two kinds of spores
  4. 4Spore-bearing cones
  5. 5A dominant sporophyte
U3 · Plant diversity
12.

Consider these features: P – epidermal structures made of keratin; Q – fertilisation inside the body of the female; R – some members produce offspring from unfertilised eggs; S – some members live in the sea; T – a placenta nourishes the embryo. Which features occur in members of all three classes Reptilia, Aves and Mammalia?

  1. 1P and Q only
  2. 2P, Q and R only
  3. 3P, Q and S only
  4. 4Q, S and T only
  5. 5P, R and S only
U3 · Animal diversity
13.

Which feature distinguishes collenchyma cells from parenchyma cells?

  1. 1Collenchyma cells are dead at maturity.
  2. 2Collenchyma walls are impregnated with lignin.
  3. 3Collenchyma cells have primary walls unevenly thickened with cellulose and pectin.
  4. 4Collenchyma is located mainly within xylem and phloem.
  5. 5Collenchyma cells have a large central vacuole.
U4 · Plant tissues & anatomy
14.

Which one of the following statements about the shoot apical meristem is correct?

  1. 1It is responsible for the increase in girth of the stem.
  2. 2It adds secondary xylem inwards and secondary phloem outwards.
  3. 3It consists of small, undifferentiated cells capable of repeated division.
  4. 4It contributes to both primary and secondary growth.
  5. 5It is made up of mature sclerenchyma cells.
U4 · Plant form & growth
15.

Glucose is dissolved in a beaker of pure water at constant atmospheric pressure. How do the solute potential (Ψs) and water potential (Ψ) of the liquid change?

  1. 1Ψs rises and Ψ rises
  2. 2Ψs becomes more negative and Ψ falls
  3. 3Ψs becomes more negative and Ψ rises
  4. 4Ψs is unchanged and Ψ falls
  5. 5Ψs rises and Ψ falls
U4 · Water relations & transport
16.

Which one of the following statements about osmosis is correct?

  1. 1It is the net movement of water through a fully permeable membrane.
  2. 2Water moves from a region of lower to a region of higher water potential.
  3. 3It requires energy from ATP.
  4. 4It is the process by which water from the soil solution enters root hair cells.
  5. 5It lowers the turgor pressure in sieve tubes at the source.
U4 · Water relations & transport
17.

Deficiency of which pair of mineral elements first produces yellowing (chlorosis) in the older, mature leaves of a plant?

  1. 1N and Mg
  2. 2Fe and S
  3. 3Ca and B
  4. 4Mn and Fe
  5. 5Cu and Zn
U4 · Plant nutrition
18.

In a flowering plant, after double fertilisation, the seed develops from the

  1. 1zygote.
  2. 2primary endosperm nucleus.
  3. 3ovule.
  4. 4ovary wall.
  5. 5nucellus alone.
U4 · Plant reproduction & life cycles
19.

Four plant hormones are listed: P – auxin (IAA); Q – ethylene; R – cytokinin; S – abscisic acid. Which of them promote senescence of leaves?

  1. 1P and R only
  2. 2Q and S only
  3. 3R and S only
  4. 4P and Q only
  5. 5Q, R and S only
U4 · Plant hormones & responses
20.

Which of the following pairs consists only of homosporous plants?

  1. 1Selaginella and Pinus
  2. 2Marchantia and Lycopodium
  3. 3Cycas and Nephrolepis
  4. 4Selaginella and Lycopodium
  5. 5Gnetum and Pogonatum
U3 · Plant diversity
21.

Which option correctly gives, in order, the mineral elements mainly needed in man for (i) formation of bones and teeth as a phosphate salt, (ii) maintenance of acid–base balance, and (iii) transmission of nerve impulses and muscle contraction?

  1. 1Fe, Mg and P
  2. 2Na, K and I
  3. 3P, Cl and Ca
  4. 4K, Fe and Cl
  5. 5I, Na and Mg
U5 · Digestion & nutrition
22.

Consider these pairs: P – coagulation of blood; conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. Q – uptake of O₂ in the alveoli; active transport by alveolar cells. R – transport of CO₂ in the blood; carbonic anhydrase in erythrocytes. S – flow of lymph; contraction of the heart. In which pairs does the second contribute to the first?

  1. 1P and Q
  2. 2P and R
  3. 3Q and S
  4. 4R and S
  5. 5Q and R
U5 · Circulation & blood
23.

A resting adult has: inspiratory reserve volume 3000 ml, tidal volume 500 ml, expiratory reserve volume 1200 ml and residual volume 1200 ml. What are the inspiratory capacity, functional residual capacity and vital capacity, in that order?

  1. 13500 ml, 1700 ml and 4700 ml
  2. 24200 ml, 2400 ml and 5900 ml
  3. 33500 ml, 2400 ml and 5900 ml
  4. 43500 ml, 2400 ml and 4700 ml
  5. 51700 ml, 2400 ml and 4700 ml
U5 · Gas exchange
24.

Which of the following excretory structures discharges its contents into the alimentary canal?

  1. 1Antennal glands of a crayfish
  2. 2Contractile vacuole of Amoeba
  3. 3Malpighian tubules of a grasshopper
  4. 4Protonephridia of Planaria
  5. 5Nasal salt glands of a marine bird
U5 · Excretion & osmoregulation
25.

Which part of the human brain is correctly matched with one of its functions?

  1. 1Medulla oblongata — regulation of body temperature
  2. 2Cerebellum — regulation of hunger and thirst
  3. 3Midbrain — reflex turning of the eyes and head towards a sudden flash or sound
  4. 4Thalamus — maintenance of balance and posture
  5. 5Pons — secretion of releasing hormones
U5 · Nervous system
26.

Light entering the human eye passes through the layers of the retina from the vitreous humour towards the choroid. In which order does it meet them?

  1. 1Photoreceptors, bipolar cells, ganglion cells, pigmented epithelium
  2. 2Ganglion cells, bipolar cells, photoreceptors, pigmented epithelium
  3. 3Pigmented epithelium, photoreceptors, bipolar cells, ganglion cells
  4. 4Bipolar cells, ganglion cells, photoreceptors, pigmented epithelium
  5. 5Ganglion cells, photoreceptors, bipolar cells, pigmented epithelium
U5 · Sense organs
27.

Which of the following is brought about by stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system in man?

  1. 1Increased secretion of digestive juices
  2. 2Constriction of the pupil
  3. 3Ejaculation of semen
  4. 4Reduction of heart rate
  5. 5Contraction of the bladder wall to empty urine
U5 · Nervous system
28.

Which pituitary hormone acts directly on non-endocrine tissues and also stimulates another tissue to release hormones?

  1. 1Luteinising hormone
  2. 2Prolactin
  3. 3Adrenocorticotropic hormone
  4. 4Growth hormone (somatotropin)
  5. 5Thyroid-stimulating hormone
U5 · Endocrine system
29.

Which one of the following statements about asexual reproduction in animals is correct?

  1. 1The offspring differ genetically from the parent.
  2. 2New individuals are formed by meiosis.
  3. 3A single isolated individual can quickly produce many offspring.
  4. 4It speeds up adaptation in a fluctuating environment.
  5. 5In parthenogenesis an embryo develops from a sperm without an egg.
U5 · Reproduction & development
30.

Which one of the following statements about the human skull is correct?

  1. 1The sphenoid is one of the facial bones.
  2. 2The vomer forms part of the cranium.
  3. 3The zygomatic arch is formed by the zygomatic and parietal bones.
  4. 4The mastoid process is part of the occipital bone.
  5. 5Paranasal sinuses occur in the frontal and maxillary bones.
U5 · Skeleton, muscle & movement
31.

Which statement correctly describes hybrid vigour (heterosis)?

  1. 1It results from increased homozygosity.
  2. 2It arises from increased heterozygosity, which masks harmful recessive alleles, and is greatest in the F₁.
  3. 3It is increased by repeated self-pollination.
  4. 4It is maintained when F₁ hybrids are crossed among themselves.
  5. 5It is usually lower in the F₁ than in the parents.
U10 · Agriculture, soils & pest management
32.

During DNA replication, the enzyme topoisomerase

  1. 1joins Okazaki fragments together.
  2. 2breaks the hydrogen bonds between base pairs.
  3. 3relieves the torsional strain ahead of the replication fork by cutting and rejoining DNA strands.
  4. 4binds to the separated single strands to keep them apart.
  5. 5synthesises the RNA primer.
U7 · DNA structure & replication
33.

Translation in eukaryotic cells differs from that in prokaryotic cells because in eukaryotes

  1. 1it begins only after the mRNA has been processed and exported from the nucleus.
  2. 2it takes place inside the nucleus.
  3. 3different stop codons are used.
  4. 4it always starts at a GUG codon.
  5. 5polysomes are never formed.
U7 · Gene expression & regulation
34.

Which option lists biomes in increasing order of mean annual precipitation?

  1. 1Tropical rain forest, savanna, desert
  2. 2Desert, temperate grassland, tropical rain forest
  3. 3Temperate broadleaf forest, arctic tundra, savanna
  4. 4Savanna, desert, temperate broadleaf forest
  5. 5Tropical rain forest, desert, arctic tundra
U8 · Biomes & Sri Lankan ecosystems
35.

Which option consists only of organisms that are currently threatened with extinction?

  1. 1Dodo, Sri Lankan leopard and blue whale
  2. 2Tilapia, Lantana and purple-faced langur
  3. 3Sri Lankan leopard, purple-faced langur and Asian elephant
  4. 4Water hyacinth, giant panda and woolly mammoth
  5. 5Giant African land snail, Sri Lankan elephant and passenger pigeon
U8 · Biodiversity & conservation
36.

Consider these international agreements: P – Kyoto Protocol; Q – Ramsar Convention; R – Montreal Protocol; S – Stockholm Convention. Which of them help to reduce global warming?

  1. 1P only
  2. 2P and Q only
  3. 3P and R only
  4. 4P, R and S only
  5. 5Q and S only
U8 · Environmental issues & pollution
37.

Which one of the following statements about microorganisms is correct?

  1. 1All fungi obtain food either saprophytically or parasitically.
  2. 2Purple non-sulphur bacteria are photoautotrophs using CO₂ as their carbon source.
  3. 3Streptococci divide in several planes to form grape-like clusters.
  4. 4In cyanobacteria, nitrogenase is located in akinetes.
  5. 5Mycoplasmas lack cell walls and almost all are parasites of animals or plants.
U9 · Microbial diversity & structure
38.

Which one of the following statements about the virulence of bacterial pathogens is correct?

  1. 1Endotoxins are heat-labile proteins secreted by Gram-positive bacteria.
  2. 2Capsules and pili are used mainly to penetrate deep into host tissue.
  3. 3Lecithinase dissolves the hyaluronic acid that cements host cells together.
  4. 4Phospholipases produced by some pathogens damage host cell membranes and aid invasion.
  5. 5Pathogens obtain nutrients from host cells without altering host metabolism.
U9 · Microbes & disease
39.

Which one of the following statements about the role of microorganisms in nutrient cycling is correct?

  1. 1Mineralisation of organic matter by decomposers releases O₂.
  2. 2Methanotrophs produce methane in ocean sediments.
  3. 3In waterlogged, O₂-poor soil, Pseudomonas reduces nitrate to N₂ gas.
  4. 4Rhizobium fixes nitrogen only while free-living in soil.
  5. 5Every fungus in the rhizosphere benefits the plant.
U9 · Environmental microbiology & waste treatment
40.

Which disease is correctly paired with its causative microorganism?

  1. 1Typhoid — Vibrio sp.
  2. 2Cholera — Shigella sp.
  3. 3Botulism — Clostridium sp.
  4. 4Bacillary dysentery — Salmonella sp.
  5. 5Tetanus — Staphylococcus sp.
U9 · Microbes & disease
41.

Which of the following statements about tissues of the human respiratory system are correct? A – Alveolar walls are lined by a single layer of flat cells. B – The trachea is lined by a single layer of ciliated cells whose nuclei lie at different levels. C – The bronchi are lined by keratinised stratified squamous epithelium. D – The airways are supported by cartilage whose matrix contains chondroitin sulphate. E – Transitional epithelium lines the bronchioles.

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2A, B and D only
  3. 3B, C and D only
  4. 4A, D and E only
  5. 5C and E only
U5 · Animal tissues
42.

Ingested food meets substances in the mouth, stomach and small intestine. Which sequences are correct for these three regions in order? A – lysozyme, HCl, trypsin. B – salivary amylase, pepsin, bile salts. C – mucus, carboxypeptidase, lipase. D – IgA, pepsin, aminopeptidase. E – salivary amylase, trypsin, bile.

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2A, B and D only
  3. 3A, C and D only
  4. 4B and E only
  5. 5B, D and E only
U5 · Digestion & nutrition
43.

Which circulatory feature–animal pairings are correct? A – Haemolymph bathes the organs directly (open system) — grasshopper. B – Blood returns to the heart through ostia — spider. C – Two-chambered heart — shark. D – Pulmonary veins present — carp. E – No blood capillaries — earthworm.

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2A, B and C only
  3. 3A, C and D only
  4. 4B, C and E only
  5. 5C, D and E only
U5 · Circulation & blood
44.

Which of the following statements about antibodies are correct? A – They are immunoglobulins secreted by plasma cells. B – Each has antigen-binding sites that fit a specific epitope. C – They carry epitopes that trigger the immune response. D – They neutralise toxins and mark microbes for phagocytosis. E – They kill virus-infected cells using perforin.

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2A, B and D only
  3. 3A, C and D only
  4. 4B, D and E only
  5. 5C and E only
U5 · Immunity
45.

Which of the following cells in the human testis are haploid? A – Spermatogonia. B – Secondary spermatocytes. C – Spermatids. D – Sertoli cells. E – Primary spermatocytes.

  1. 1A and E only
  2. 2B and C only
  3. 3B, C and D only
  4. 4A, B and C only
  5. 5C and D only
U5 · Reproduction & development
46.

Which of the following statements about the adult human vertebral column are correct? A – It consists of 33 separate bones. B – The lumbar curvature develops when the child begins to stand and walk. C – Cervical vertebrae have transverse foramina through which the vertebral arteries pass. D – Twelve thoracic vertebrae articulate with the ribs. E – Lumbar vertebrae have bifid spinous processes.

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2B, C and D only
  3. 3A, C and D only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5B and E only
U5 · Skeleton, muscle & movement
47.

Which of the following are conclusions Mendel drew from his pea experiments? A – The F₂ of a monohybrid cross shows a 3:1 phenotypic ratio. B – Factors for two characters lie on the same chromosome. C – Each character is controlled by a pair of factors, one received from each parent. D – The F₂ of a dihybrid cross shows a 9:3:3:1 genotypic ratio. E – Factors are located on chromosomes, as he observed under the microscope.

  1. 1A and C only
  2. 2A, B and C only
  3. 3A, C and D only
  4. 4C and E only
  5. 5A, C and E only
U6 · Mendelian inheritance
48.

A single base in the coding sequence of a gene is replaced by another base. Which of the following could result? A – No change in the amino acid sequence. B – A shift in the reading frame. C – A shortened polypeptide. D – Replacement of one amino acid, as in sickle-cell anaemia. E – Loss of the whole gene.

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3B, C and D only
  4. 4B and E only
  5. 5A, B, C and D only
U6 · Mutations
49.

In a food web: grass is eaten by grasshoppers, rabbits and mice; frogs eat grasshoppers; snakes eat frogs and mice; foxes eat rabbits; hawks eat frogs, mice, rabbits and snakes. Which pairs can occupy the same trophic level? A – hawk and snake. B – fox and frog. C – mouse and frog. D – frog and hawk. E – grasshopper and fox.

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A and B only
  3. 3B, C and D only
  4. 4A, D and E only
  5. 5C and E only
U8 · Ecosystems & energy flow
50.

Which of the following statements about the treatment of water for drinking are correct? A – Aluminium sulphate makes suspended particles and microbes clump together and settle. B – Ozone or chlorine is used to kill microorganisms. C – In sand filters, microbes are removed by being absorbed into the sand grains. D – An activated sludge tank is used to remove microorganisms. E – Primary treatment removes about 90% of the organic matter.

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2A, B and C only
  3. 3A, B and D only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5B, D and E only
U9 · Environmental microbiology & waste treatment
2020 · Paper IIStructured & essay
1A
Part A · Structured

(i) Define irritability as a characteristic of living organisms.
(ii) Give the monomer units that make up (a) a protein and (b) hemicellulose.
(iii) State two functions shared by NAD⁺, NADP⁺ and FAD in cells.
(iv) Name the cellular structure responsible for cytoplasmic streaming and chromosome movement, and list its structural components.
(v) Where in a plant cell is the secondary wall deposited? Name one substance other than cellulose found in it.

1B
Part A · Structured

(i) Name three events that generate genetic variation during meiosis.
(ii) Which group of photosynthetic pigments protects plant cells from harmful reactive oxygen molecules?
(iii) Explain what is meant by the action spectrum of photosynthesis.
(iv) In a C4 plant, name the two cell types in which CO₂ is fixed, and for each give the CO₂ acceptor and the enzyme that fixes CO₂.
(v) How are these two cell types closely linked to each other?

1C
Part A · Structured

(i) Name the geological eon in which eukaryotic cells first appeared.
(ii) Arrange in chronological order: P – origin of mammals; Q – origin of seed plants; R – angiosperms becoming dominant.
(iii) Give three features of free-living flatworms that are absent in parasitic flatworms.
(iv) State where the male and the female gametophytes are located in seed plants.
(v) Construct a dichotomous key using cell wall, multicellularity, gas-filled floats, pellicle and cilia to separate Euglena, Paramecium, Amoeba, Ulva, Sargassum and diatoms.

2A
Part A · Structured

(i) Name the three processes that bring about growth in plants.
(ii) Give one function each of the vascular cambium and the cork cambium.
(iii) Name the structure through which (a) gas exchange occurs in woody stems and (b) guttation occurs.
(iv) Describe, step by step, the events in guard cells from the uptake of K⁺ ions to the opening of the stoma.
(v) Explain how chilling below a critical temperature affects plant cell membranes.

2B
Part A · Structured

(i) In a life-cycle diagram showing alternation of generations of a land plant (gametophyte → gametes → D → sporophyte → E → gametophyte), name processes A (gametophyte to gametes), B (gametes to D) and C (sporophyte to E), and structures D and E.
(ii) Name the type of symbiosis in which (a) both partners benefit and (b) one partner benefits while the other is unaffected.
(iii) A person is 153 cm tall and weighs 50 kg. (a) Calculate the body mass index. (b) Using the WHO cut-off, calculate to one decimal place the minimum weight at which this person would not be considered undernourished.
(iv) Name a fat-soluble vitamin with antioxidant activity.
(v) Name two hormones of the human digestive tract whose actions oppose each other.

2C
Part A · Structured

(i) (a) Give one function common to epithelial and connective tissues. (b) Give three features visible under the light microscope that identify dense connective tissue.
(ii) State the role of (a) the SA node and (b) the AV node of the human heart.
(iii) Sketch a normal ECG trace and label the waves.
(iv) What events do the first and last waves of the trace represent?
(v) Writing haemoglobin as Hb, give the equation for the reaction that takes place in red blood cells in the lung capillaries.

3A
Part A · Structured

(i) What are interferons?
(ii) Apart from the glomerulus, name two capillary networks associated with a nephron.
(iii) Explain why dialysis is used for patients with kidney failure.
(iv) Give one similarity between nervous and hormonal coordination.
(v) Name two animal phyla whose members have a brain, a ventral nerve cord and segmental ganglia.

3B
Part A · Structured

(i) (a) What are the ventricles of the human brain? (b) Name the three regions that make up the brain stem.
(ii) Give two functions of the spinal cord.
(iii) Why is the refractory period important in nerve impulse conduction?
(iv) Name the progressive disorder of the elderly that causes tremor and loss of control of muscle movement.
(v) Define a hormone.

3C
Part A · Structured

(i) (a) Give three functions of Sertoli cells. (b) What is the role of the acrosome? (c) Where in the male reproductive tract do sperm mature?
(ii) (a) Name two techniques used to detect genetic disorders in a foetus. (b) Trace the route by which deoxygenated foetal blood is oxygenated and returned to the foetus.
(iii) Name a phylum whose members have an endoskeleton of calcium carbonate plates.
(iv) (a) Explain why the first pair of ribs does not move during inspiration. (b) Give three features of the vertebral column that help maintain upright posture.
(v) (a) What is the function of the arches of the foot? (b) Name two sites of ball-and-socket joints in the body.

4A
Part A · Structured

(i) Give four features that made the garden pea suitable for Mendel's genetic experiments.
(ii) (a) Define pleiotropy. (b) Give two human examples.
(iii) Distinguish between intergenic DNA and introns.
(iv) State whether colour blindness, Down syndrome and Turner syndrome result from a gene mutation, trisomy or monosomy.
(v) (a) Explain why a chelating agent, proteolytic enzymes and cold ethanol are used in DNA isolation. (b) Give two essential features of a cloning vector.

4B
Part A · Structured

(i) Define primary production.
(ii) (a) A graph shows ellipses of rainfall (mm) against altitude (m) for four Sri Lankan ecosystems: savanna, tropical thorn scrub, wet patana and tropical dry mixed evergreen forest. State which ecosystem occupies (1) the lowest rainfall at low altitude, (2) higher rainfall at low altitude, (3) about 1000 m altitude with 1300–2000 mm rainfall, and (4) high altitude with high rainfall. (b) Which of these ecosystems occurs in both the dry and intermediate zones?
(iii) Name an endemic plant of Sri Lanka's lowland wet evergreen forests.
(iv) Name a Sri Lankan plant at very high risk of extinction in the wild.
(v) (a) Which group of organisms removes the most CO₂ from the atmosphere? (b) Name the main global environmental problem threatening them.

4C
Part A · Structured

(i) (a) Name a bacterium that is an obligate anaerobe. (b) How do akinetes benefit cyanobacteria?
(ii) (a) The SARS-CoV-2 virus is roughly spherical; to which morphological type of virus does it belong? (b) How does a viroid differ structurally from a virus?
(iii) Name two diseases prevented by subunit vaccines.
(iv) Name a microorganism used to produce (a) citric acid from sucrose, (b) invertase and (c) streptomycin.
(v) (a) Name two products of microbial putrefaction of food. (b) Explain why drinking water is tested for coliforms rather than for pathogens directly.

5
Part B · Essay150 marks

Describe how glucose is completely oxidised by aerobic respiration in human liver cells, including the location of each stage and the ATP yield.

6a
Part B · Essay75 marks

Describe the ways in which light influences the growth, development and physiology of plants.

6b
Part B · Essay75 marks

Explain the structural and physiological adaptations that allow plants to capture as much light as possible.

7a
Part B · Essay75 marks

Give a brief account, with a labelled diagram, of the structure of the human eye.

7b
Part B · Essay75 marks

Explain how the eye and the brain work together to produce vision.

8
Part B · Essay150 marks

Describe the human menstrual cycle and explain how it is regulated by hormones.

9a
Part B · Essay75 marks

Give a brief account of how microorganisms are used in agriculture.

9b
Part B · Essay75 marks

Explain the principle and the main applications of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR).

10a
Part B · Essay50 marks

Write a short note on: Salt marshes of Sri Lanka.

10b
Part B · Essay50 marks

Write a short note on: Epigenetics.

10c
Part B · Essay50 marks

Write a short note on: Reproduction in Ascomycota OR Biological control of the dengue vector.

2020 · Answers & reviewsMEDVision answers

Answer key — this booklet

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Answer key — original 2020 paper (MEDVision model answers)

For students working from the original paper. Shaded cells: check against the official marking scheme (amber = likely, red = disputed).

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Paper I — reviews

1
Answer 2 With no O₂ available and organic molecules already present in the 'soup', the first cells were anaerobic heterotrophs and prokaryotic. Autotrophy, aerobic respiration and eukaryotic cells all appeared later; a common trap is to pick autotrophs because they 'make their own food'.
2
Answer 4 Proteins such as haemoglobin and membrane carrier/channel proteins transport materials. Secondary structure is held by hydrogen bonds, there are 20 amino acids, P is not a normal amino-acid element, and detergents denature proteins.
3
Answer 3 Light must first be directed through the specimen with the mirror (R), then the coarse knob brings the object roughly into focus (Q), and finally the fine knob sharpens it (P). Using the fine knob before the coarse knob is the usual trap.
4
Answer 2 All cells have a plasma membrane and cytosol; 70S ribosomes occur in prokaryotes and inside eukaryotic mitochondria and chloroplasts. A nuclear envelope and a spindle (mitosis) are absent from prokaryotes, which divide by binary fission.
5
Answer 4 Spindle microtubules begin to assemble in prophase. Crossing over/chiasmata occur in prophase I, DNA replicates in S phase, the nuclear envelope reforms in telophase, and chromatids separate in anaphase.
6
Answer 3 ATP hydrolysis to ADP + Pi releases about 30.5 kJ/mol. ATP is a nucleotide (nucleoside + phosphates) containing ribose, light-driven synthesis is photophosphorylation, and the link reaction yields NADH and CO₂ but no ATP.
7
Answer 2 Enzymes only speed up a reaction by lowering activation energy; they do not change what is produced. They are substrate specific, are recovered unchanged, and catalysis occurs only at the active site.
8
Answer 3 Abiotic synthesis of monomers (X) was followed by polymerisation (Y). Protocells are defined as membrane-bound droplets with an internal chemistry; possession of nucleic acid (let alone DNA) is not part of the definition, so Z is not accepted.
9
Answer 4 Aspergillus is a fungus: eukaryotic, no peptidoglycan, several RNA polymerases and 80S cytoplasmic ribosomes, so streptomycin (which targets 70S ribosomes) does not stop its growth. Cyanobacteria have one RNA polymerase, archaea lack peptidoglycan, and protists/animals lack peptidoglycan and have several RNA polymerases.
10
Answer 1 Flame-cell protonephridia are a flatworm feature (Taenia), a mantle is molluscan (octopus) and cnidocytes/nematocysts are cnidarian (sea anemone). Nematodes, annelids and echinoderms lack the features they are paired with.
11
Answer 3 Selaginella is heterosporous (microspores and megaspores), the condition from which the seed habit evolved. Lycopodium is homosporous; roots, microphylls, strobili and a dominant sporophyte are shared by both genera.
12
Answer 3 Scales, feathers and hair are all keratinised; all three classes have internal fertilisation; and each has marine members (sea snakes/turtles, sea birds, whales). Parthenogenesis does not occur in mammals and a placenta is not found in birds.
13
Answer 3 Collenchyma is living tissue whose primary walls are unevenly thickened (often at the corners) with cellulose and pectin. Lignification belongs to sclerenchyma, and collenchyma lies mostly beneath the epidermis, not in vascular tissue.
14
Answer 3 Apical meristems are small, undifferentiated, actively dividing cells that bring about primary growth in length. Increase in girth and production of cells inwards and outwards are done by lateral meristems (vascular and cork cambium).
15
Answer 2 Pure water has Ψs = 0; adding solute makes Ψs negative. Since Ψ = Ψs + Ψp and Ψp is unchanged, Ψ falls by the same amount. The two cannot change independently.
16
Answer 4 Water enters root hairs from the soil by osmosis, down a water potential gradient. Osmosis is passive, across a selectively (partially) permeable membrane, from high to low Ψ; at the phloem source water entry raises, not lowers, turgor pressure.
17
Answer 1 N and Mg are mobile in the phloem, so they are moved from old to young leaves and deficiency shows first in older leaves; both are needed for chlorophyll. Fe, S, Ca and B are poorly mobile and affect young leaves first. (The original item's coded answer, N and P, is less certain because P deficiency usually gives dark/purplish leaves.)
18
Answer 3 The whole ovule becomes the seed and the ovary becomes the fruit. The zygote gives only the embryo, the primary endosperm nucleus gives the endosperm, and the ovary wall gives the pericarp.
19
Answer 2 Ethylene and abscisic acid promote leaf senescence and abscission. Cytokinins (and auxin in the leaf) delay senescence, so any option containing R or P is a trap.
20
Answer 2 Liverworts (Marchantia) and club mosses (Lycopodium) produce one kind of spore. Selaginella and all seed plants (Pinus, Cycas, Gnetum) are heterosporous.
21
Answer 3 Phosphorus forms calcium phosphate in bone, chloride helps maintain acid–base balance (e.g. the chloride shift), and calcium is required for neurotransmitter release and muscle contraction, as in the NIE mineral table.
22
Answer 2 Thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin during clotting, and carbonic anhydrase in RBCs forms HCO₃⁻ for CO₂ transport. Alveolar gas exchange is by diffusion, and lymph is moved by skeletal muscle contraction and valves, not by the heart.
23
Answer 4 IC = IRV + TV = 3500 ml; FRC = ERV + RV = 2400 ml; VC = IRV + TV + ERV = 4700 ml. Adding the residual volume gives total lung capacity (5900 ml), not vital capacity.
24
Answer 3 Insect Malpighian tubules open into the gut at the midgut–hindgut junction, so wastes leave with the faeces. Antennal (green) glands, protonephridia and salt glands open to the exterior, and a contractile vacuole empties at the cell surface.
25
Answer 3 The midbrain (corpora quadrigemina) coordinates visual and auditory reflexes. Temperature, hunger and releasing hormones are hypothalamic functions, and balance/posture is cerebellar.
26
Answer 2 Ganglion cells face the vitreous, then bipolar cells, then rods and cones, with the pigmented epithelium against the choroid. Light therefore crosses the neural layers before reaching the photoreceptors; the trap is to place photoreceptors first.
27
Answer 3 Sympathetic activity produces ejaculation (erection is parasympathetic). It increases heart rate, dilates the pupil, and inhibits digestion and urination; the other options are parasympathetic effects.
28
Answer 4 GH acts directly on body tissues (non-tropic: metabolism and growth) and also stimulates the liver to secrete IGFs (tropic). LH, ACTH and TSH are purely tropic, and prolactin is non-tropic.
29
Answer 3 Asexual reproduction allows one parent to multiply rapidly by mitosis, producing genetically identical offspring, which limits adaptation to change. Parthenogenesis is development of an unfertilised egg, not a sperm.
30
Answer 5 Air sinuses are present in the frontal, maxillary, ethmoid and sphenoid bones. The sphenoid is cranial, the vomer is facial, the zygomatic arch is zygomatic + temporal, and the mastoid process belongs to the temporal bone.
31
Answer 2 Heterosis comes from greater heterozygosity, which hides deleterious recessive alleles. Inbreeding (selfing) reduces it, and it declines in later generations when hybrids are bred among themselves.
32
Answer 3 Topoisomerase relieves over-winding ahead of the fork by breaking, swivelling and rejoining strands. Ligase joins fragments, helicase breaks H-bonds, single-strand binding proteins stabilise strands and primase makes primers.
33
Answer 1 Eukaryotic transcription and mRNA processing occur in the nucleus, so translation in the cytoplasm cannot start until the mRNA is exported. In prokaryotes transcription and translation are coupled; both use AUG starts, the same stop codons and polysomes.
34
Answer 2 Deserts receive under about 30 cm a year, temperate grasslands about 30–100 cm and tropical rain forests over 200 cm. The other sequences are reversed or out of order.
35
Answer 3 The Sri Lankan leopard, purple-faced langur and Asian elephant are threatened species. The other sets include extinct species (dodo, woolly mammoth, passenger pigeon) or invasive species (tilapia, Lantana, water hyacinth, giant African land snail).
36
Answer 3 The Kyoto Protocol limits greenhouse-gas emissions, and the Montreal Protocol phases out CFCs/HCFCs, which are also potent greenhouse gases. Ramsar protects wetlands and Stockholm deals with persistent organic pollutants.
37
Answer 5 Mycoplasmas are wall-less bacteria and nearly all are parasites. Fungi also form mutualisms (mycorrhizae, lichens), purple non-sulphur bacteria are photoheterotrophs, streptococci divide in one plane forming chains, and nitrogenase is in heterocysts.
38
Answer 4 Phospholipases such as lecithinase damage host membranes and increase invasiveness. Endotoxins are heat-stable lipopolysaccharides of Gram-negative walls, capsules and pili aid attachment and evasion, hyaluronidase breaks intercellular cement, and pathogens do alter host metabolism.
39
Answer 3 Denitrifiers such as Pseudomonas convert nitrate to N₂ when oxygen is limited. Mineralisation releases CO₂, water and inorganic ions (not O₂), methanotrophs oxidise methane, Rhizobium fixes N₂ symbiotically in nodules, and some rhizosphere fungi are pathogens.
40
Answer 3 Botulism is caused by Clostridium botulinum (tetanus by C. tetani). Typhoid is Salmonella typhi, cholera is Vibrio cholerae and bacillary dysentery is Shigella.
41
Answer 2 Simple squamous epithelium lines alveoli, pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium lines the trachea, and hyaline cartilage (chondroitin sulphate matrix) supports the airways. Keratinised and transitional epithelia are not found in the airways.
42
Answer 2 Saliva contains lysozyme, IgA, mucus and amylase; the stomach contains HCl and pepsin; the small intestine receives trypsin, bile and aminopeptidase. Carboxypeptidase and trypsin act in the small intestine, not the stomach, so C and E are wrong.
43
Answer 2 Arthropods such as grasshoppers and spiders have open circulation with ostia in the heart, and cartilaginous fish have a two-chambered heart. Fish have no pulmonary veins, and earthworms have a closed system with capillaries.
44
Answer 2 Antibodies are proteins from plasma cells that bind specific epitopes and neutralise/opsonise pathogens in body fluids. Epitopes are on antigens, and infected cells are killed by cytotoxic T cells, not antibodies.
45
Answer 2 Meiosis I produces haploid secondary spermatocytes, which give haploid spermatids. Spermatogonia, primary spermatocytes and somatic Sertoli (and Leydig) cells are diploid.
46
Answer 2 The adult column has 26 bones (sacrum and coccyx fused); the lumbar curve appears at about one year with walking; cervical vertebrae have transverse foramina; there are 12 thoracic vertebrae. Bifid spines are a cervical, not lumbar, feature.
47
Answer 1 Mendel found the 3:1 monohybrid phenotypic ratio and that each character is governed by paired factors. 9:3:3:1 is a phenotypic, not genotypic, ratio, and Mendel knew nothing of chromosomes or linkage.
48
Answer 2 A substitution can be silent, nonsense (premature stop, shorter peptide) or missense (one amino acid changed, e.g. HbS). Frameshifts come from insertions/deletions, and a substitution does not remove the gene.
49
Answer 1 Hawk and snake are both secondary (eating mice) or tertiary (eating frogs) consumers; fox and frog are both secondary consumers; hawk eating rabbit is secondary like the frog. Mouse and grasshopper are primary consumers while frog and fox are secondary.
50
Answer 1 Coagulation/flocculation with alum and disinfection with ozone or chlorine are drinking-water steps. Sand filters retain microbes by adsorption, not absorption, and activated sludge and primary treatment belong to sewage treatment.

Paper II — marking points

1A
  1. Irritability: the ability of an organism to sense changes (stimuli) in the internal or external environment and respond to them
  2. Monomer of protein: amino acids
  3. Monomer of hemicellulose: monosaccharides such as xylose, arabinose, glucose, mannose and galactose (pentoses/hexoses)
  4. Common functions of NAD⁺, NADP⁺, FAD: act as coenzymes; act as electron/hydrogen carriers (acceptors) in redox reactions
  5. Structure for cytoplasmic streaming and chromosome movement: cytoskeleton
  6. Its components: microtubules (tubulin), microfilaments (actin) and intermediate filaments
  7. Secondary wall is laid down between the plasma membrane and the primary cell wall
  8. Substance other than cellulose in secondary wall: lignin (also hemicellulose/suberin)
1B
  1. Variation in meiosis: crossing over (prophase I), independent assortment of homologous chromosomes (metaphase I/anaphase I), random fertilisation (also accepted: random orientation of chromatids in metaphase II)
  2. Pigment that prevents formation of harmful reactive oxygen species: carotenoids (photoprotection)
  3. Action spectrum: a graph or profile showing how effectively different wavelengths of light drive photosynthesis (rate plotted against wavelength)
  4. Mesophyll cells: CO₂ acceptor phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP); enzyme PEP carboxylase
  5. Bundle sheath cells: CO₂ acceptor RuBP; enzyme RuBisCO
  6. The two cell types are connected by many plasmodesmata
1C
  1. First eukaryotes appeared in the Proterozoic eon
  2. Chronological order: Q (seed plants) → P (mammals) → R (angiosperm dominance)
  3. Features of free-living flatworms (Turbellaria) absent in parasitic forms: ciliated epidermis; well-developed sense organs such as eyespots/ocelli and auricles; no thick tegument/cuticle; no hooks or suckers for attachment (simple life cycle without intermediate hosts)
  4. Male gametophyte: pollen grain, found in the microsporangium (pollen sac/anther) and later on the stigma or ovule
  5. Female gametophyte: embryo sac (or the female gametophyte inside the ovule in gymnosperms), within the megasporangium (nucellus) of the ovule
  6. Key: cell wall present → go to 2; cell wall absent → go to 4
  7. 2: multicellular → go to 3; unicellular → Diatoms
  8. 3: gas-filled floats present → Sargassum; absent → Ulva
  9. 4: pellicle present → go to 5; pellicle absent → Amoeba
  10. 5: cilia present → Paramecium; cilia absent → Euglena
2A
  1. Three processes of plant growth: cell division, cell enlargement (elongation), cell differentiation
  2. Vascular cambium: produces secondary xylem and secondary phloem, giving secondary growth (increase in girth)
  3. Cork cambium (phellogen): produces cork (phellem) and phelloderm, forming the protective periderm
  4. Gas exchange in woody stems happens through lenticels
  5. Guttation happens through hydathodes
  6. Stomatal opening: K⁺ accumulates in guard cells (driven by a proton pump) → water potential of guard cells falls → water enters by osmosis → guard cells become turgid → the unevenly thickened walls (radially oriented cellulose microfibrils) make them bow outward → pore opens
  7. Below the critical temperature, membrane lipids change from a fluid to a solid (gel/crystalline) state, so the membrane loses fluidity
  8. As a result membrane permeability and the function of transport proteins are altered, solutes leak out and the cell is damaged
2B
  1. A: mitosis (gamete formation)
  2. B: fertilisation
  3. C: meiosis
  4. D: zygote
  5. E: spores
  6. Beneficial to both partners: mutualism
  7. Beneficial to one with no effect on the other: commensalism
  8. BMI = mass/height² = 50 / (1.53)² = 50 / 2.3409 ≈ 21.4 kg m⁻²
  9. Minimum non-malnourished BMI = 18.5, so minimum weight = 18.5 × 2.3409 ≈ 43.3 kg
  10. Fat-soluble antioxidant vitamin: vitamin E (vitamin A/β-carotene also accepted)
  11. Antagonistic gut hormones: gastrin (stimulates gastric secretion and motility) and secretin or CCK (inhibit gastric activity); ghrelin and leptin/PYY are also an accepted pair
2C
  1. Common function of epithelial and connective tissue: protection (support/binding also accepted)
  2. Dense connective tissue features: densely packed collagen fibres; fibres arranged in parallel bundles (regular); fibroblasts arranged in rows between the fibres; little ground substance/matrix; few cells
  3. SA node: pacemaker that starts each cardiac impulse and sets the rate and timing of contraction, spreading excitation over both atria
  4. AV node: delays the impulse (~0.1 s) so the atria empty before the ventricles contract, then passes the impulse to the bundle of His and Purkinje fibres
  5. ECG drawing: P wave, QRS complex, T wave, labelled in order on a baseline
  6. P wave: atrial depolarisation
  7. T wave: ventricular repolarisation
  8. Equation in lung capillaries: Hb + 4O₂ → Hb(O₂)₄ (oxyhaemoglobin), or HHb + O₂ → HbO₂ + H⁺
3A
  1. Interferons: proteins secreted by virus-infected body cells that make neighbouring cells resistant to viral replication (part of innate defence; they also activate macrophages/NK cells)
  2. Capillary networks of the nephron besides the glomerulus: peritubular capillaries and the vasa recta
  3. Dialysis: artificial removal of nitrogenous wastes (urea), excess salts and water from the blood of patients whose kidneys have failed, by diffusion across a selectively permeable membrane against dialysis fluid
  4. Similarity of nervous and hormonal coordination: both use chemical signalling molecules (neurotransmitters/hormones) that bind specific receptors on target cells; both maintain homeostasis and coordinate body functions
  5. Phyla with a brain, ventral nerve cord and segmented ganglia: Annelida and Arthropoda
3B
  1. Ventricles: interconnected fluid-filled cavities inside the brain that contain cerebrospinal fluid and are continuous with the central canal of the spinal cord
  2. Brain stem: midbrain, pons Varolii, medulla oblongata
  3. Spinal cord functions: conducts impulses between the brain and the body (ascending and descending tracts); acts as a centre for spinal reflexes
  4. Refractory period: ensures one-way propagation of the impulse along the axon (no backward travel) and limits the maximum frequency of impulses
  5. Progressive motor disorder of the elderly: Parkinson's disease
  6. Hormone: a chemical messenger secreted by endocrine glands/cells into the blood, carried to target cells where it causes specific responses at low concentration
3C
  1. Sertoli cell functions: nourish developing sperm; support spermatogenesis; form the blood–testis barrier; secrete inhibin (and androgen-binding protein); phagocytose excess cytoplasm
  2. Acrosome: contains hydrolytic enzymes that digest the egg's protective layers (zona pellucida) so the sperm can penetrate it
  3. Sperm mature (gain motility) in the epididymis
  4. Prenatal diagnosis methods: amniocentesis, chorionic villus sampling (also ultrasound and fetal blood sampling)
  5. Fetal oxygenation pathway: umbilical arteries → placenta (gas exchange with maternal blood) → umbilical vein → back to the foetus (via the ductus venosus to the inferior vena cava)
  6. Phylum with an endoskeleton of CaCO₃ plates: Echinodermata
  7. First pair of ribs is firmly fixed to the manubrium and the first thoracic vertebra, so it does not move
  8. Features of the vertebral column that support upright posture: four curvatures (cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral); larger lumbar vertebral bodies that carry weight; intervertebral discs absorbing shock; ligaments and muscles attached to processes
  9. Foot arches: distribute body weight between heel and toes, absorb shock, and give a lever for walking (spring-like)
  10. Ball-and-socket joints: shoulder joint and hip joint
4A
  1. Pea features: many contrasting, easily distinguished characters; naturally self-pollinating but easy to cross-pollinate; short generation time; produces many seeds/offspring; easy to grow
  2. Pleiotropy: a single gene affecting several phenotypic characters
  3. Examples in man: sickle-cell anaemia; cystic fibrosis (also Marfan syndrome, phenylketonuria)
  4. Intergenic DNA: non-coding DNA lying between genes
  5. Introns: non-coding intervening sequences within a gene that are transcribed but removed from pre-mRNA by splicing
  6. Colour blindness: gene mutation (X-linked recessive)
  7. Down syndrome: trisomy (21)
  8. Turner syndrome: monosomy (45, XO)
  9. Chelating agent (EDTA): binds Mg²⁺/divalent ions so DNases cannot act, protecting the DNA
  10. Proteolytic enzymes: digest proteins, including histones bound to DNA
  11. Cold ethanol: precipitates DNA out of the aqueous solution
  12. Cloning vector features: an origin of replication; restriction sites for inserting DNA; selectable marker genes (e.g. antibiotic resistance)
4B
  1. Primary production: the amount of light (chemical) energy converted to chemical energy in organic compounds by autotrophs in a given area and time
  2. Diagram: lowest-rainfall, low-altitude ellipse = B (tropical thorn scrub); low-altitude ellipse with more rainfall = D (tropical dry mixed evergreen forest)
  3. Mid-altitude ellipse (~1000 m, 1300–2000 mm) = A (savanna); high-altitude, high-rainfall ellipse = C (wet patana)
  4. Ecosystem in both the dry and intermediate zones: savanna (A)
  5. Endemic plant of lowland rain forest: e.g. Hora / Dun / Na (Mesua) / Bu hora (Dipterocarpus spp.)
  6. Critically endangered plant in the wild: e.g. Wesak orchid or another listed species
  7. Group contributing most to CO₂ removal: phytoplankton (marine algae and cyanobacteria)
  8. Major global issue affecting them: global warming/climate change, through ocean warming and ocean acidification
4C
  1. Obligate anaerobe: Clostridium tetani / C. botulinum (or methanogens)
  2. Akinetes: thick-walled resting cells that help cyanobacteria survive unfavourable conditions and germinate when conditions improve
  3. Roughly spherical viruses such as SARS-CoV-2 belong to the enveloped morphological form (NIE forms: helical, polyhedral, enveloped, complex)
  4. Viroid: a naked, small circular single-stranded RNA molecule with no protein coat (capsid)
  5. Subunit vaccines: hepatitis B; human papilloma virus (also influenza, pertussis)
  6. Citric acid from sucrose: Aspergillus niger
  7. Invertase: Saccharomyces cerevisiae
  8. Streptomycin: Streptomyces griseus
  9. Putrefaction products: ammonia, hydrogen sulphide (also amines such as putrescine/cadaverine, indole, skatole)
  10. Coliforms are tested because pathogens are usually few, varied and hard or dangerous to detect directly, while coliforms are abundant in faeces, easy and cheap to detect, and their presence shows faecal contamination
5
  1. Takes place in four stages: glycolysis (cytosol), pyruvate oxidation and Krebs cycle (mitochondrial matrix), oxidative phosphorylation (inner mitochondrial membrane)
  2. Glycolysis: glucose is phosphorylated by ATP (hexokinase) → glucose-6-phosphate → fructose-1,6-bisphosphate (a second ATP is used)
  3. Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate splits into two 3C sugars (G3P), which are oxidised; NAD⁺ is reduced to NADH and ATP is formed by substrate-level phosphorylation
  4. Net result of glycolysis: 2 pyruvate, 2 ATP, 2 NADH per glucose
  5. In liver cells, cytosolic NADH electrons enter the mitochondria via the malate–aspartate shuttle (≈2.5 ATP each)
  6. Pyruvate enters the matrix by active transport and is oxidatively decarboxylated to acetyl CoA (CO₂ released, NADH formed) by the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex
  7. Krebs cycle: acetyl CoA (2C) + oxaloacetate (4C) → citrate (6C), which is decarboxylated and oxidised back to oxaloacetate
  8. Per turn: 2 CO₂, 3 NADH, 1 FADH₂, 1 ATP (via GTP, substrate-level); two turns per glucose
  9. Electron transport chain: NADH/FADH₂ pass electrons through protein complexes (via ubiquinone and cytochromes) on the inner membrane
  10. The energy released pumps H⁺ into the intermembrane space, building a proton gradient (proton-motive force)
  11. O₂ is the final electron acceptor and is reduced to water
  12. Chemiosmosis: H⁺ flows back through ATP synthase, which phosphorylates ADP → ATP (oxidative phosphorylation)
  13. Yield: ~2.5 ATP per NADH and ~1.5 ATP per FADH₂; total ≈ 32 ATP per glucose in liver (malate–aspartate shuttle), 30 ATP with the glycerol-phosphate shuttle
  14. Overall: C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ → 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + energy (ATP + heat)
6a
  1. Light is the energy source for photosynthesis (absorbed by chlorophylls and carotenoids); light intensity, quality and duration affect the rate
  2. Photomorphogenesis: light controls the development of form
  3. Etiolation in darkness (long internodes, pale leaves, unexpanded leaves); de-etiolation (greening) in light via phytochrome
  4. Phototropism: shoots bend towards unilateral light because auxin moves to the shaded side (blue light, phototropin receptors)
  5. Phytochrome (Pr ⇌ Pfr) responses to red/far-red light: seed germination of small seeds (e.g. lettuce), shade-avoidance responses
  6. Photoperiodism: flowering controlled by the length of the night — short-day, long-day and day-neutral plants
  7. Light sets circadian rhythms (e.g. sleep movements of leaves, stomatal rhythms)
  8. Blue light causes stomatal opening (activates the H⁺ pump in guard cells)
  9. Light affects chloroplast movement and the arrangement and size of leaves (sun vs shade leaves)
  10. Light stimulates chlorophyll synthesis and anthocyanin formation
  11. Very strong light causes photo-oxidation and photoinhibition; carotenoids protect against this
  12. Light intensity affects transpiration (by opening stomata and raising leaf temperature)
6b
  1. Leaves are broad and thin, giving a large surface area and short diffusion distance
  2. Phyllotaxy (spiral/alternate/opposite arrangement) and leaf mosaic reduce mutual shading
  3. Petioles of different lengths and leaves oriented perpendicular to the light
  4. Phototropic growth of shoots towards light; positioning by leaf movements (heliotropism)
  5. Tall stems, branching and crown shape; climbers and epiphytes reach the canopy
  6. Transparent epidermis with a thin cuticle lets light pass through
  7. Palisade mesophyll of elongated, tightly packed cells rich in chloroplasts sits just below the upper epidermis
  8. Chloroplasts move within cells to optimise light absorption
  9. Several pigments (chlorophyll a, b and carotenoids) widen the range of wavelengths absorbed
  10. Thylakoids stacked into grana, with photosystems containing antenna complexes that collect light
  11. Shade leaves are larger and thinner with more chlorophyll; sun leaves are thicker
  12. C4/CAM adaptations make use of high light intensity
7a
  1. Spherical eyeball in the orbit, moved by six extrinsic muscles; protected by eyelids, lashes and tear (lacrimal) glands
  2. Wall has three layers: sclera/cornea, choroid, retina
  3. Sclera: tough white fibrous outer layer; the front part is the transparent cornea, which refracts light
  4. Conjunctiva covers the front of the sclera and lines the eyelids
  5. Choroid: pigmented, vascular middle layer that nourishes the retina and absorbs stray light
  6. At the front, the choroid forms the ciliary body (ciliary muscles and suspensory ligaments) and the iris, with the pupil at its centre
  7. Iris has circular and radial muscles that control pupil size
  8. Biconvex, elastic, transparent lens held by suspensory ligaments
  9. Retina: innermost layer with pigmented epithelium, photoreceptors (rods and cones), bipolar cells and ganglion cells
  10. Fovea (in the macula lutea) has only cones and gives the sharpest vision; the blind spot is where the optic nerve leaves and has no photoreceptors
  11. Aqueous humour (anterior chamber) and vitreous humour (posterior chamber) keep the eye's shape and help refract light
  12. A labelled diagram is expected
7b
  1. Light is refracted by the cornea, aqueous humour, lens and vitreous humour to focus an inverted image on the retina
  2. Accommodation: for near objects the ciliary muscles contract, suspensory ligaments slacken and the lens becomes more convex; the reverse happens for distant objects
  3. The iris adjusts pupil size to the light intensity (pupillary reflex)
  4. Photoreceptors: rods (rhodopsin) for dim light and black-and-white vision; cones (photopsins, three types: red, green, blue) for colour and acuity
  5. Light changes retinal from cis to trans, activating rhodopsin; this closes Na⁺ channels, the rod hyperpolarises and releases less glutamate
  6. Signal passes to bipolar cells and then ganglion cells (with integration by horizontal and amacrine cells); ganglion cells fire action potentials
  7. Ganglion axons form the optic nerve
  8. At the optic chiasma, fibres from the nasal halves of the retinas cross over
  9. The impulses reach the lateral geniculate nuclei of the thalamus and then the primary visual cortex in the occipital lobe
  10. The brain interprets the image: corrects the inversion, perceives colour, shape and movement, and combines images from both eyes for binocular/stereoscopic depth perception
  11. The midbrain coordinates visual reflexes (eye movements, pupillary reflex)
8
  1. A ~28-day cycle made of the ovarian cycle (follicular phase, ovulation, luteal phase) and the uterine cycle (menstrual, proliferative, secretory phases)
  2. Hypothalamus releases GnRH, which stimulates the anterior pituitary to secrete FSH and LH
  3. Follicular phase: FSH and LH stimulate several follicles to grow; one becomes the dominant Graafian follicle
  4. Growing follicles secrete oestrogen; while levels are low it has negative feedback on GnRH/FSH/LH
  5. Menstrual phase (days 1–5): when oestrogen and progesterone fall, the functional layer of the endometrium is shed with blood
  6. Proliferative phase: rising oestrogen makes the endometrium regenerate and thicken
  7. High oestrogen near mid-cycle switches to positive feedback, causing an LH surge (and FSH rise)
  8. The LH surge triggers ovulation (~day 14): secondary oocyte released
  9. Luteal phase: LH converts the remaining follicle into the corpus luteum, which secretes progesterone and oestrogen
  10. Secretory phase: progesterone makes the endometrium more vascular and glandular, ready for implantation
  11. Progesterone and oestrogen exert negative feedback on the hypothalamus/pituitary, so FSH and LH fall (inhibin also suppresses FSH)
  12. If fertilisation does not occur, the corpus luteum degenerates into the corpus albicans, hormone levels drop and menstruation follows
  13. If pregnancy occurs, hCG from the embryo maintains the corpus luteum
  14. A graph of hormone levels against the follicle and endometrial changes is expected
9a
  1. Biological nitrogen fixation: symbiotic Rhizobium in legume root nodules, Frankia; free-living Azotobacter, cyanobacteria (Anabaena–Azolla in paddy)
  2. Biofertilisers: Rhizobium inoculants, Azolla, cyanobacteria, phosphate-solubilising bacteria
  3. Mycorrhizal fungi improve the uptake of P and water
  4. Decomposition and nutrient recycling; composting and making organic manure
  5. Biological control of pests and diseases: Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt toxin), Beauveria/Metarhizium (entomopathogenic fungi), NPV viruses, Trichoderma against fungal pathogens
  6. Production of plant growth hormones (gibberellins from Gibberella fujikuroi)
  7. Silage making through lactic acid bacteria fermentation for animal fodder
  8. Agrobacterium tumefaciens (Ti plasmid) as a vector for producing transgenic crops (e.g. Bt crops)
  9. Production of biogas from farm wastes by methanogens
  10. Single-cell protein and probiotics for animal feed; rumen microbes digest cellulose
  11. Vaccines and antibiotics for livestock
  12. Bioremediation of agrochemical-contaminated soils
9b
  1. PCR amplifies a specific DNA segment in vitro through cycles of denaturation, annealing with primers and extension by Taq polymerase, producing millions of copies
  2. Amplifying genes for cloning and genetic engineering
  3. Diagnosis of infectious diseases (e.g. RT-PCR for COVID-19, HIV, TB, dengue) even from very small samples
  4. Detection of genetic disorders and carrier screening (e.g. sickle cell, thalassaemia, cystic fibrosis), including prenatal diagnosis
  5. Forensic science: DNA fingerprinting/profiling from tiny samples of blood, hair or semen at crime scenes
  6. Paternity and relationship testing
  7. DNA sequencing and genome projects
  8. Studying ancient DNA (fossils, mummies) and evolutionary relationships
  9. Detection of GMOs and food authenticity testing
  10. Detecting cancer-related mutations and monitoring cancer
  11. Identification and classification of microbes and species (DNA barcoding), including environmental samples
  12. Site-directed mutagenesis and research on gene expression (quantitative PCR)
10a
  1. Coastal wetland ecosystems in intertidal areas, often behind mangroves or around lagoons and estuaries
  2. Found mainly in the dry zone, e.g. Mannar, Puttalam, Jaffna peninsula, Hambantota (Bundala)
  3. Soil is waterlogged, saline and often high in salt
  4. Vegetation is dominated by salt-tolerant halophytes: herbs, shrubs and grasses (e.g. Salicornia, Suaeda, Halosarcia)
  5. Plants show succulence and other adaptations for salt and water stress
  6. Habitat for crustaceans, molluscs, fish fry and migratory wading birds (important bird habitat)
  7. Functions: coastal protection, nutrient cycling, filtering pollutants, carbon storage, nursery grounds
  8. Threats: conversion to salterns and prawn farms, land filling, pollution, development
10b
  1. Study of heritable changes in gene expression that do not involve changes in DNA base sequence
  2. DNA methylation (methyl groups added to cytosine) usually silences genes
  3. Histone modification: acetylation loosens chromatin and promotes transcription; deacetylation/methylation can condense it and repress transcription
  4. Chromatin remodelling changes whether DNA can be reached by transcription machinery
  5. Non-coding RNAs (miRNA, siRNA) also regulate gene expression
  6. Epigenetic marks can pass through cell divisions and sometimes to offspring
  7. Examples: X-chromosome inactivation (Barr body), genomic imprinting, cell differentiation
  8. Influenced by environment (diet, stress, toxins); linked to cancer and other diseases
10c
  1. Ascomycota – asexual: conidia produced at the tips of conidiophores; budding in yeasts; fragmentation
  2. Ascomycota – sexual: hyphae of compatible mating types meet; plasmogamy forms a dikaryotic (n+n) stage of ascogenous hyphae
  3. Karyogamy in the ascus forms a diploid nucleus, which undergoes meiosis (usually followed by mitosis) to produce 8 ascospores in an ascus
  4. Asci are often borne in ascocarps (fruiting bodies, e.g. cup fungi); ascospores are released and germinate into new haploid mycelium
  5. OR Dengue vector control: the vector is Aedes aegypti / A. albopictus; biological control uses natural enemies to reduce mosquito populations
  6. Larvivorous fish (e.g. guppy, Gambusia) in water containers
  7. Bacillus thuringiensis israelensis (Bti) toxins kill larvae; copepods (Mesocyclops) eat larvae
  8. Wolbachia-infected mosquitoes reduce dengue virus transmission; sterile insect technique; predatory Toxorhynchites larvae

Scan notes: All 50 MCQs and all Paper II questions were legible. Figures (Q49 food web; P2 2B life-cycle sketch; P2 4B rainfall/altitude ellipse diagram) were read from the page images. The 'Maha madu' option in MCQ 35 was taken as given. Q17 (N and P vs Mg and S) is ambiguous by NIE deficiency tables.

2021 (2022)

G.C.E. (Advanced Level) — Biology

Current syllabus (2019 onward) · Re-set practice paper

Paper I50 MCQs · 2 hoursAnswer all. Choose the one correct or most suitable option.
Paper II23 parts in this booklet · 3 hoursPart A: answer all structured questions. Part B: answer four essays.

Every question tests the same concept as question of the same number in the 2021 (2022) paper, re-written by MEDVision. Source coverage: Paper I + full Paper II.

2021 (2022) · Paper IMultiple choice
1.

A student boils each of five sugar solutions with Benedict's reagent without first hydrolysing them. Which solution will remain blue, showing that the sugar is non-reducing?

  1. 1Fructose
  2. 2Lactose
  3. 3Sucrose
  4. 4Maltose
  5. 5Glucose
U2 · Biomolecules & water
2.

The fluid mosaic model describes the plasma membrane as a 'fluid'. Which statement best accounts for this property?

  1. 1The membrane is built mainly from carbohydrates with a few embedded proteins.
  2. 2Integral proteins are held only loosely on the membrane surface by ionic attractions.
  3. 3Individual phospholipid molecules can drift sideways within their own layer of the bilayer.
  4. 4Phospholipid heads bind directly to actin filaments to hold the cell in shape.
  5. 5Glycolipids form channels through which neighbouring cells exchange signals.
U2 · Membranes & transport
3.

Which of the following pairs an organelle with a role it actually performs in a plant cell?

  1. 1Glyoxysome - exocytosis of cellular waste
  2. 2Golgi apparatus - synthesis of ribosomal RNA
  3. 3Smooth endoplasmic reticulum - synthesis of secretory proteins
  4. 4Peroxisome - a step of photorespiration, together with chloroplasts and mitochondria
  5. 5Nucleolus - synthesis of steroid hormones
U2 · Cell organelles & structure
4.

The following events take place during meiosis I. P - Bivalents become aligned on the equatorial plate. Q - Homologous chromosomes pair closely through a synaptonemal complex. R - Centrosomes separate and the spindle forms. S - Segments are exchanged between non-sister chromatids. In which order do they occur?

  1. 1Q, R, S, P
  2. 2Q, S, R, P
  3. 3R, Q, S, P
  4. 4Q, S, P, R
  5. 5S, Q, R, P
U2 · Cell cycle, mitosis & meiosis
5.

Which statement about the photosynthetic pigments of a flowering plant is correct?

  1. 1Chlorophyll a absorbs mostly green light and reflects red light.
  2. 2Chlorophylls and carotenoids are held in protein complexes within the thylakoid membranes.
  3. 3Carotenoids are dissolved in the stroma of the chloroplast.
  4. 4Chlorophyll b is the pigment that protects the chloroplast from damage by excess light.
  5. 5Carotenoids absorb exactly the same wavelengths as chlorophyll a.
U2 · Photosynthesis
6.

Which statement about the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis is correct?

  1. 1Cyclic electron flow involves photosystem II only.
  2. 2Cyclic electron flow produces both ATP and NADPH.
  3. 3Photosystem I replaces its lost electrons directly by splitting water.
  4. 4Electrons travel from photosystem I to photosystem II through an electron transport chain.
  5. 5Electrons from the primary acceptor of photosystem I are used, via ferredoxin, to reduce NADP+ to NADPH.
U2 · Photosynthesis
7.

Which observation was a cornerstone of the explanation of evolution by natural selection put forward by Darwin and Wallace?

  1. 1Organs that are used more become better developed during an individual's life.
  2. 2Characteristics acquired during a lifetime are inherited by the offspring.
  3. 3Populations tend to produce far more young than the available resources can support.
  4. 4Mutations in DNA provide the new variation on which selection acts.
  5. 5Alleles separate during gamete formation.
U3 · Origin of life & evolution
8.

Consider three features: P - a circular chromosome; Q - DNA associated with histone proteins; R - more than one kind of RNA polymerase. Which list gives, in order, a genus showing P, a genus showing Q and a genus showing R?

  1. 1Paramecium, Nostoc and Halobacterium
  2. 2Halobacterium, Nostoc and Rhizobium
  3. 3Escherichia, Paramecium and Halobacterium
  4. 4Nostoc, Escherichia and Paramecium
  5. 5Rhizobium, Streptococcus and Paramecium
U3 · Prokaryotes, protists & fungi
9.

Statement A: Among the bryophytes, hornworts are the group most closely related to the vascular plants. Statement B: Lycophytes and ferns disperse by means of spores. Which of the following is correct?

  1. 1Only A is correct.
  2. 2Only B is correct.
  3. 3Both are correct and B explains A.
  4. 4Both are correct but B does not explain A.
  5. 5Both are incorrect.
U3 · Plant diversity
10.

Which list gives, in order, a protist with a contractile vacuole, a protist with a pellicle, a protist with a multicellular thallus and a protist with a cell wall?

  1. 1Ulva, Amoeba, Paramecium and Gelidium
  2. 2Paramecium, Amoeba, Ulva and diatoms
  3. 3Amoeba, Euglena, Sargassum and diatoms
  4. 4Euglena, Sargassum, Ulva and Amoeba
  5. 5Gelidium, Paramecium, Amoeba and Ulva
U3 · Prokaryotes, protists & fungi
11.

Which of the following pairs of features can both occur in members of one animal phylum? P - Water vascular system present; heart absent. Q - Jointed appendages present; heart absent. R - Digestive cavity with a single opening; tentacles around the mouth. S - Anus absent; reproduction by fission or budding.

  1. 1P and Q only
  2. 2P and R only
  3. 3P, R and S only
  4. 4Q, R and S only
  5. 5P, Q and R only
U3 · Animal diversity
12.

Which statement correctly describes companion cells in the phloem of flowering plants?

  1. 1They lose their nuclei as they mature.
  2. 2They have thick, lignified secondary walls.
  3. 3They lie beside the sieve cells of conifers.
  4. 4They are linked to sieve-tube elements by many plasmodesmata and help load and unload sugars.
  5. 5They are dead at maturity and give the phloem mechanical support.
U4 · Plant tissues & anatomy
13.

Which statement about the form and arrangement of leaves is correct?

  1. 1In a dim forest understorey, steeply vertical leaves capture light most efficiently.
  2. 2Plants of arctic, alpine and very dry habitats tend to bear the smallest leaves.
  3. 3The palisade and spongy mesophyll layers are clearly distinguishable in maize leaves.
  4. 4Net venation identifies every flowering plant.
  5. 5The pattern in which leaves are attached around a stem is called leaf orientation.
U4 · Plant form & growth
14.

The following events occur at a source according to the pressure-flow hypothesis. P - Water enters the sieve tube from neighbouring xylem by osmosis. Q - Sucrose is loaded into the sieve tube. R - Hydrostatic pressure inside the sieve tube rises. S - The water potential inside the sieve tube falls. In which order do they occur?

  1. 1Q, P, S, R
  2. 2Q, S, P, R
  3. 3S, Q, R, P
  4. 4P, Q, S, R
  5. 5Q, S, R, P
U4 · Water relations & transport
15.

A tomato plant is grown with its roots in a complete nutrient solution. For which of the following elements is the atmosphere its only source?

  1. 1Nitrogen
  2. 2Oxygen
  3. 3Carbon
  4. 4Hydrogen
  5. 5Sulphur
U4 · Plant nutrition
16.

Plant X: the sporophyte is dominant, and the tiny gametophytes develop inside the spores and depend partly on food reserves from the sporophyte. Plant Y: the sporophyte is dominant, but both generations are photosynthetic and live independently. X and Y are, respectively,

  1. 1Cycas sp. and Selaginella sp.
  2. 2Selaginella sp. and Pogonatum sp.
  3. 3Selaginella sp. and Nephrolepis sp.
  4. 4Nephrolepis sp. and Selaginella sp.
  5. 5Cycas sp. and Nephrolepis sp.
U3 · Plant diversity
17.

During a long drought, guard cells lose K+ and the stomata close. Which plant hormone, whose synthesis rises under water stress, brings this about?

  1. 1Ethylene
  2. 2Cytokinin
  3. 3Gibberellin
  4. 4Abscisic acid
  5. 5Indole-3-acetic acid
U4 · Plant hormones & responses
18.

Which tissue is correctly matched with a place where it is found in the human body?

  1. 1Dense regular connective tissue - lining of the trachea
  2. 2Simple squamous epithelium - lining of the oesophagus
  3. 3Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium - lining of the stomach
  4. 4Stratified squamous epithelium - lining of the oral cavity
  5. 5Simple cuboidal epithelium - lining of the small intestine
U5 · Animal tissues
19.

In which of the following does release of hormone (i) stimulate response (ii)? P - (i) Cholecystokinin, (ii) secretion of gastric juice. Q - (i) Gastrin, (ii) secretion of gastric juice. R - (i) Secretin, (ii) release of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas.

  1. 1Q only
  2. 2R only
  3. 3P and Q only
  4. 4Q and R only
  5. 5P, Q and R
U5 · Digestion & nutrition
20.

In a patient, the right atrioventricular valve fails to close completely. Which effect is most likely?

  1. 1Blood leaks from the left ventricle into the left atrium during ventricular systole.
  2. 2The volume of blood pumped to the lungs in each beat falls.
  3. 3Less blood enters the right atrium from the venae cavae.
  4. 4The bicuspid valve is forced open during atrial systole.
  5. 5Systolic pressure in the aorta rises.
U5 · Circulation & blood
21.

In which of the following is (ii) a direct result of (i) during the homeostatic control of breathing? P - (i) Arterial CO2 concentration rises; (ii) H+ concentration of the blood rises. Q - (i) Chemoreceptors in the carotid bodies detect raised CO2; (ii) impulses reach the medulla oblongata. R - (i) The medulla detects a fall in the pH of cerebrospinal fluid; (ii) breathing becomes slower and shallower.

  1. 1P only
  2. 2P and Q only
  3. 3P and R only
  4. 4Q and R only
  5. 5P, Q and R
U5 · Gas exchange
22.

Which statement about human B lymphocytes is correct?

  1. 1They complete their maturation in the thymus.
  2. 2They are the main effectors of cell-mediated immunity.
  3. 3Each B cell carries many identical antigen receptors on its plasma membrane.
  4. 4They can differentiate into cytotoxic T cells.
  5. 5They take no part in immunity that follows a natural infection.
U5 · Immunity
23.

The excretory structures of an earthworm, a crab and a planarian are, respectively,

  1. 1Malpighian tubules, green glands and nephridia
  2. 2nephridia, salt glands and body surface
  3. 3flame cells, Malpighian tubules and nephridia
  4. 4nephridia, green glands and flame cells
  5. 5body surface, green glands and flame cells
U5 · Excretion & osmoregulation
24.

Which statement about the human brain is correct?

  1. 1The primary visual cortex lies in the frontal lobes.
  2. 2The corpus callosum joins the left and right halves of the cerebellum.
  3. 3The fourth ventricle lies within the midbrain.
  4. 4The brainstem develops from the embryonic midbrain and hindbrain.
  5. 5The thalamus is the main centre controlling the sleep-wake cycle.
U5 · Nervous system
25.

After a neuron's membrane is depolarised beyond threshold, the following occur. P - The inside of the membrane becomes positive relative to the outside. Q - Voltage-gated K+ channels open and K+ diffuses out. R - Voltage-gated Na+ channels open and Na+ diffuses in. S - The membrane returns towards its resting polarity. In which order do they occur?

  1. 1P, R, Q, S
  2. 2R, P, Q, S
  3. 3R, Q, P, S
  4. 4Q, R, P, S
  5. 5R, S, Q, P
U5 · Nervous system
26.

Which hormone is correctly paired with its main function?

  1. 1Cortisol - immediate fight-or-flight response
  2. 2Oxytocin - stimulates milk synthesis in the alveoli
  3. 3Thyroxine - raises the basal metabolic rate
  4. 4Melatonin - stimulates antibody production
  5. 5LH - acts on Sertoli cells to support spermatogenesis
U5 · Endocrine system
27.

At which stage is the human oocyte released at ovulation arrested, completing its division only after a sperm enters it?

  1. 1Prophase I
  2. 2Metaphase I
  3. 3Anaphase II
  4. 4Metaphase II
  5. 5Telophase I
U5 · Reproduction & development
28.

Which statement about the amnion in human development is correct?

  1. 1It forms the main fetal contribution to the placenta.
  2. 2It secretes hCG, which maintains the corpus luteum.
  3. 3It forms a fluid-filled sac that completely encloses the embryo.
  4. 4It is the source of the primordial germ cells.
  5. 5It gives rise to the umbilical blood vessels.
U5 · Reproduction & development
29.

As an infant learns to hold up its head and later to sit and stand, two secondary curvatures develop in its vertebral column. These curvatures are convex anteriorly and are found in the

  1. 1thoracic and sacral regions.
  2. 2cervical and lumbar regions.
  3. 3thoracic and lumbar regions.
  4. 4cervical and thoracic regions.
  5. 5lumbar and sacral regions.
U5 · Skeleton, muscle & movement
30.

Which statement about the human skeleton is correct?

  1. 1Nodding of the head occurs at the joint between the axis and the occipital bone.
  2. 2All eight carpal bones articulate with the radius at the wrist joint.
  3. 3Osteoarthritis is defined by a loss of bone mineral density.
  4. 4The maxilla is the only movable bone of the skull.
  5. 5The patella articulates with the lower end of the femur.
U5 · Skeleton, muscle & movement
31.

In a plant species, some individuals have grey seed coats and others have white seed coats. To explain how this one character is inherited, which of the following would be sufficient?

  1. 1A dihybrid cross
  2. 2A monohybrid cross
  3. 3Both a monohybrid and a dihybrid cross
  4. 4Knowledge of codominance
  5. 5Knowledge of sex linkage
U6 · Mendelian inheritance
32.

In eukaryotic chromosomes, (i) non-coding sequences found inside genes and (ii) DNA lying between genes, much of which has no known function, are called, respectively,

  1. 1exons and heterochromatin
  2. 2euchromatin and introns
  3. 3introns and intergenic DNA
  4. 4heterochromatin and intergenic DNA
  5. 5introns and euchromatin
U7 · Gene expression & regulation
33.

Which statement about the synthesis of polypeptides is correct?

  1. 1The mRNA base sequence is identical to that of the DNA template strand, except that U replaces T.
  2. 2Sixty-two of the sixty-four codons specify amino acids.
  3. 3A eukaryotic ribosome cannot translate a bacterial mRNA because the genetic code differs.
  4. 4The codon AUG starts translation and also specifies methionine.
  5. 5The anticodon of every tRNA molecule is AUG.
U7 · Gene expression & regulation
34.

A molecular biologist prepares a diagram showing where several restriction enzymes cut a plasmid. Such a map is most useful for

  1. 1detecting tumours.
  2. 2settling disputed parentage.
  3. 3counting gene copy numbers in a genome.
  4. 4working out evolutionary relationships between species.
  5. 5designing a cloning vector with suitable insertion sites.
U7 · rDNA tools & techniques
35.

Which group consists entirely of animals typical of the arctic tundra?

  1. 1Moose, lynx and brown bear
  2. 2Musk ox, arctic fox and caribou
  3. 3Reindeer, Siberian tiger and wolf
  4. 4Polar bear, moose and arctic hare
  5. 5Siberian tiger, snowy owl and musk ox
U8 · Biomes & Sri Lankan ecosystems
36.

Which pair gives, in order, a relict species and a species endemic to Sri Lanka?

  1. 1Acanthus ilicifolius and Loris tardigradus
  2. 2Panicum maximum and Garcinia quaesita
  3. 3Eichhornia crassipes and Dipterocarpus zeylanicus
  4. 4Lingula sp. and Macaca sinica
  5. 5Lantana camara and Gallus lafayettii
U8 · Biodiversity & conservation
37.

Which set gives, in order, a gas that depletes stratospheric ozone, a gas that causes acid rain and a greenhouse gas?

  1. 1Carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide and sulphur dioxide
  2. 2Sulphur dioxide, methyl bromide and nitrogen
  3. 3Chlorofluorocarbon, sulphur dioxide and methane
  4. 4Sulphur hexafluoride, nitrogen dioxide and hydrofluorocarbon
  5. 5Carbon dioxide, halon and sulphur dioxide
U8 · Environmental issues & pollution
38.

An antibiotic binds to bacterial RNA polymerase and blocks transcription. Which antibiotic acts in this way?

  1. 1Tetracycline
  2. 2Penicillin
  3. 3Rifampicin
  4. 4Streptomycin
  5. 5Daptomycin
U9 · Microbes & disease
39.

Which statement about soil microorganisms is correct?

  1. 1Phosphate-solubilising bacteria release alkaline compounds to free phosphate.
  2. 2Actinomycetes decompose compost most efficiently in the absence of oxygen.
  3. 3The nitrogen-fixing partner of Azolla is a Rhizobium species.
  4. 4Rhizosphere microbes, including some plant-pathogenic fungi, use organic compounds exuded by roots.
  5. 5Azotobacter is used industrially to produce vitamin C.
U9 · Environmental microbiology & waste treatment
40.

Which process belongs to the primary treatment of industrial wastewater?

  1. 1Aeration of activated sludge
  2. 2Passing the effluent over a trickling filter
  3. 3Skimming off oil and grease
  4. 4Chlorination of the effluent
  5. 5Anaerobic digestion of sludge
U9 · Environmental microbiology & waste treatment
41.

Which of the following is/are common to both alcoholic fermentation and lactic acid fermentation? (A) A net gain of two ATP per glucose molecule from glycolysis. (B) Decarboxylation of pyruvate with release of CO2. (C) Regeneration of NAD+ by transfer of hydrogen from NADH to an organic molecule. (D) Formation of two pyruvate molecules from each glucose molecule. (E) Ethanal acting as the final hydrogen acceptor.

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5Any other response or combination
U2 · Cellular respiration & fermentation
42.

Which of the following occur(s) during primary growth of a root? (A) Cells of the root apical meristem divide, producing cells towards the tip and away from it. (B) Cells displaced towards the tip become part of the root cap. (C) A cork cambium forms periderm. (D) Cells left behind the meristem elongate and push the root tip through the soil. (E) An interfascicular cambium develops between the vascular bundles.

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5Any other response or combination
U4 · Plant form & growth
43.

Which of the following statements about vertebrate circulation is/are correct? (A) No vertebrate with a single circulation possesses lungs. (B) In a fish, blood leaving the gills reaches the body tissues at low pressure. (C) A three-chambered heart is typical of single circulation. (D) In double circulation, blood passes through the lungs twice in each complete circuit of the body. (E) Myoglobin is absent from the muscles of fishes.

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5Any other response or combination
U5 · Circulation & blood
44.

Which of the following is/are true of sensory receptors? (A) They are specialised cells or neuron endings linked to the nervous system. (B) They respond only to stimuli originating outside the body. (C) They can amplify the energy of a stimulus. (D) Their response may decline when a stimulus continues unchanged. (E) They are modified exocrine glands.

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5Any other response or combination
U5 · Sense organs
45.

Which of the following is/are true of Leydig cells? (A) They lie in the interstitial tissue between the seminiferous tubules. (B) They secrete testosterone in response to LH. (C) They secrete inhibin. (D) They form the blood-testis barrier. (E) They engulf the residual cytoplasm shed by developing sperm.

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5Any other response or combination
U5 · Reproduction & development
46.

Which of the following could explain the occurrence and the many symptoms of cystic fibrosis? (A) Y-linked inheritance. (B) X-linked recessive inheritance. (C) Inheritance of a recessive allele carried on an autosome. (D) A single defective gene affecting several organ systems (pleiotropy). (E) Autosomal dominant inheritance.

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5Any other response or combination
U6 · Human genetics & disorders
47.

Which of the following ecological pyramids could be inverted? (A) Pyramid of energy of any ecosystem. (B) Pyramid of numbers of an open-ocean plankton community. (C) Pyramid of biomass of an open-ocean plankton community. (D) Pyramid of numbers of a host and its parasites. (E) Pyramid of biomass of a tropical rain forest.

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5Any other response or combination
U8 · Ecosystems & energy flow
48.

Which feature is/are correctly matched with a microorganism? (A) Helical capsid symmetry - tobacco mosaic virus. (B) Obligate anaerobic respiration - Pseudomonas. (C) Transmitted by leafhoppers and multiplying in phloem - phytoplasma. (D) Lacking a cell wall and reproducing by budding and binary fission - Mycoplasma. (E) Photoheterotrophic nutrition - purple sulphur bacteria.

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5Any other response or combination
U9 · Microbial diversity & structure
49.

Which of the following is/are true of stem cells? (A) They are unspecialised cells. (B) They can renew themselves, producing more cells of the same type. (C) They always divide faster than other body cells. (D) They can give rise to specialised cell types. (E) They are found only in embryos.

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5Any other response or combination
U10 · Biotech in medicine & nanotechnology
50.

Which of the following measures would help control both the dengue vector and the filaria vector? (A) Clearing blocked roof gutters. (B) Cleaning drains holding stagnant, polluted water. (C) Eliminating places where mosquitoes can breed. (D) Introducing larva-eating fish such as guppies into water bodies. (E) Sealing cracked septic tanks.

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5Any other response or combination
U9 · Microbes & disease
2021 (2022) · Paper IIStructured & essay
1A
Part A · Structured

(i) Roughly how long ago did life first appear on Earth?
(ii) Briefly explain what biologists mean by (a) metabolism, (b) growth and (c) development as features of living organisms.
(iii) (a) Name three main sectors through which human food supply can be maintained sustainably. (b) What is the main driver of the excessive use of Earth's natural resources?
(iv) During which geological eon did oxygen first begin to build up in the atmosphere?
(v) Name the geological era in which each of the following occurred: (a) the first seed plants appeared; (b) plants first colonised land; (c) gymnosperms were the dominant plants.

1B
Part A · Structured

(i) Define the classification of organisms.
(ii) List the main kinds of evidence used in modern systematics to establish relationships among organisms.
(iii) Give four structural features found only in arthropods.
(iv) Give three structural features that are unique to mammals.
(v) Name the main physiological feature shared by birds and mammals.

1C
Part A · Structured

(i) Name the phylum of seedless plants that shares the most recent common ancestor with seed plants, and give one genus from it.
(ii) Give two features by which microphylls can be distinguished from megaphylls.
(iii) Name one structure found in the sporophytes of both bryophytes and angiosperms (do not give organelles, cells, stems or leaves).
(iv) Which structural feature is used to separate plants into two major groups?
(v) Describe the cell wall composition of members of (a) Bacteria, (b) Archaea and (c) Eukarya.

2A
Part A · Structured

(i) (a) Which property of water allows dissolved minerals to be carried up through the xylem? (b) Name one human protein with a protective (defensive) function. (c) Name the monomer of the structural polysaccharide found in fungal cell walls.
(ii) Name an event that takes place in mitosis and in meiosis II but not in meiosis I.
(iii) (a) In C4 plants, where is CO2 first fixed? (b) Give two reasons why PEP carboxylase fixes CO2 more efficiently than RuBP carboxylase.
(iv) (a) Define secondary growth in plants. (b) Apart from light, name two factors that cause stomata to open. (c) Describe the soil in which Nepenthes typically grows.
(v) (a) What is the fate of the triploid nucleus formed by double fertilisation in angiosperms? (b) Where exactly are statoliths located in a plant?

2B
Part A · Structured

(i) (a) Name the protein-carbohydrate complex found in the matrix of cartilage and the cells that secrete it. (b) Give one important function of cartilage other than support.
(ii) Explain the meaning of (a) protein sparing, (b) non-essential fatty acids and (c) a balanced diet.
(iii) Give two examples of non-essential amino acids.
(iv) State the normal value in a healthy adult of (a) blood pH, (b) the life span of red blood cells and (c) resting blood pressure.
(v) Explain the meaning of (a) the cardiac cycle and (b) hypertension.

2C
Part A · Structured

(i) (a) Define anatomical dead space. (b) Give its approximate volume in a healthy adult.
(ii) Explain why nervous coordination is faster than endocrine coordination.
(iii) (a) Name the three major functional areas of the human cerebral cortex. (b) Give two differences between the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system.
(iv) Name the disease that causes progressive mental decline with confusion and memory loss.
(v) (a) Give one advantage of binocular vision. (b) State the function of the Eustachian tube.

3A
Part A · Structured

(i) Name a phylum whose members have a hydrostatic skeleton.
(ii) (a) Give one function of the fontanelles and one function of the sutures of the human skull. (b) Which human vertebrae have a foramen in each transverse process? (c) Name two hinge joints of the human lower limb.
(iii) Name a group of animals that use salt glands for excretion.
(iv) (a) Name two substances secreted into the filtrate by the distal convoluted tubule. (b) Name the two sites in the kidney where ADH acts.
(v) Outline the roles of helper T cells in the immune response.

3B
Part A · Structured

(i) What causes Type 1 diabetes mellitus?
(ii) Draw a flow chart showing the feedback loop by which oxytocin acts on the mammary glands during breastfeeding.
(iii) Give two advantages of asexual reproduction in invertebrates.
(iv) (a) Starting from a spermatogonial stem cell, list in order the stages in the formation of human sperm. (b) Which part of the blastocyst gives rise to the fetal portion of the placenta?
(v) (a) Describe, in words or as a sketch graph, how the blood levels of oestrogen and progesterone change over a typical 28-day cycle. (b) Describe how a Depo-Provera injection prevents pregnancy.

3C
Part A · Structured

(i) (a) Define microaerophilic organisms. (b) Name one microaerophilic bacterium.
(ii) Explain why heterocysts have thick walls.
(iii) (a) Name two methods of sterilisation by dry heat used in a microbiology laboratory. (b) Name two methods used to disinfect drinking water.
(iv) Name one fungus and one bacterium that cause food intoxication.
(v) (a) Give two differences between subunit vaccines and live attenuated vaccines. (b) List, in order, the two stages in making vinegar from fruit juice, and name a microorganism used in each.

4A
Part A · Structured

(i) Name the two kinds of signals that bring about epigenetic changes.
(ii) Give the main function of a signal peptide in a polypeptide.
(iii) A small single-stranded RNA folds into a cloverleaf shape. One end carries the sequence CCA-3', and a loop on the opposite side carries three unpaired bases. Identify the molecule and name (a) the 3' CCA end and (b) the loop with three exposed bases.
(iv) Which property of the genetic code allows a gene taken from one organism to produce the same polypeptide in another organism?
(v) Give two methods of introducing foreign DNA into plant cells.

4B
Part A · Structured

(i) Name the three biomes that lie closest to the equator.
(ii) (a) Name the two dominant vegetation types of villus. (b) Name two places in Sri Lanka where villus are common.
(iii) Define (a) a population, (b) a trophic level and (c) a food chain.
(iv) (a) Name two invasive alien plants found in Sri Lankan reservoirs. (b) Name two seagrass genera common in Sri Lanka.
(v) Explain why coral reefs are described as the rain forests of the sea.

4C
Part A · Structured

(i) Give five important ecosystem services provided by biodiversity.
(ii) Give five human activities that lead to desertification.
(iii) (a) Distinguish between environmental legislation and environmental policy. (b) Name one key law for environmental conservation in Sri Lanka.
(iv) State the main principle on which plant tissue culture is based.
(v) Explain how adding sugar preserves food.

5a
Part B · Essay

Describe the components of a nucleotide, and explain how nucleotides are linked to form the sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA.

5b
Part B · Essay

Describe the structure of DNA as proposed in the Watson and Crick model, with a labelled diagram.

6
Part B · Essay150 marks

Give an account of the structure and functions of ground tissue in plants, with diagrams of its cell types.

7a
Part B · Essay

Describe the structure of the human pancreas, covering both its exocrine and endocrine parts.

7b
Part B · Essay

Explain how the human pancreas contributes to the digestion of food.

8
Part B · Essay150 marks

Describe the innate (non-specific) defences of the human body against invading pathogens.

9a
Part B · Essay

Explain the essential features of a cloning vector.

9b
Part B · Essay

Outline the chemical changes that take place in food when it is spoiled by microorganisms.

10a
Part B · Essay

Write a short note on the rules of binomial nomenclature.

10b
Part B · Essay

Write a short note on the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and its significance for evolution.

10c
Part B · Essay

Write a short note on the general characteristics of a fish species suitable for aquaculture.

2021 (2022) · Answers & reviewsMEDVision answers

Answer key — this booklet

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Answer key — original 2021 (2022) paper (MEDVision model answers)

For students working from the original paper. Shaded cells: check against the official marking scheme (amber = likely, red = disputed).

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Paper I — reviews

1
Answer 3 In sucrose the glycosidic bond links the anomeric carbons of both glucose and fructose, so no free aldehyde or ketone group remains to reduce Cu2+. Trap: fructose is a ketose but still reducing, and maltose and lactose keep one free anomeric carbon.
2
Answer 3 Lateral movement of phospholipids (and many proteins) within each monolayer makes the bilayer fluid. Trap: the membrane is mainly lipid and protein; loosely bound proteins are peripheral, not integral; cytoskeletal links and cell communication involve proteins.
3
Answer 4 Photorespiration needs chloroplasts, peroxisomes and mitochondria working in sequence. Trap: glyoxysomes convert stored fat to sugar, secretory proteins are made on rough ER, and rRNA is made in the nucleolus.
4
Answer 2 Synapsis (Q) comes first, crossing over (S) follows within the synapsed pairs, the spindle completes in late prophase I (R), and bivalents line up at metaphase I (P). Trap: crossing over cannot happen before homologues have paired.
5
Answer 2 Both pigment classes sit in light-harvesting complexes of the thylakoid membranes. Trap: photoprotection is a carotenoid role, not a chlorophyll b role, and carotenoids broaden the absorption range because they absorb different wavelengths from chlorophyll a.
6
Answer 5 In linear flow, electrons leave PS I's primary acceptor, pass to ferredoxin and NADP+ reductase, and reduce NADP+. Trap: cyclic flow uses PS I and makes ATP only, water splitting feeds PS II, and electrons move from PS II to PS I.
7
Answer 3 Overproduction leads to a struggle for existence in which favourable variants survive and reproduce more. Trap: options 1 and 2 are Lamarckian, and genes and mutations were unknown to Darwin and Wallace.
8
Answer 3 Bacteria such as Escherichia have a circular chromosome; eukaryotes such as Paramecium have histones; archaea such as Halobacterium have several RNA polymerases. Trap: bacteria (Nostoc, Rhizobium, Escherichia, Streptococcus) lack histones and have a single RNA polymerase type, and Paramecium's chromosomes are linear.
9
Answer 4 In the phylogeny used in the NIE syllabus, hornworts share the most recent common ancestor with vascular plants, and seedless vascular plants disperse by spores. Trap: spore dispersal is shared by all non-seed plants, so it does not explain the close relationship.
10
Answer 3 Amoeba has a contractile vacuole, Euglena a proteinaceous pellicle, Sargassum a multicellular thallus and diatoms a silica cell wall. Trap: Amoeba has no pellicle, Sargassum has no pellicle, and seaweeds such as Ulva and Gelidium lack contractile vacuoles.
11
Answer 3 Echinoderms have no heart and a water vascular system (P); cnidarians have a single-opening gut with oral tentacles (R); cnidarians and flatworms lack an anus and reproduce asexually (S). Trap: arthropods have jointed legs but also a dorsal tubular heart.
12
Answer 4 Companion cells are living, nucleated cells connected to sieve-tube elements by plasmodesmata, and they move sugars in and out. Trap: it is the sieve-tube element that loses its nucleus, and gymnosperms have albuminous cells instead.
13
Answer 2 The smallest leaves occur where liquid water is scarce, such as very cold or dry habitats, which reduces water loss. Trap: horizontal leaves suit low light, monocot mesophyll is undifferentiated, monocots have parallel venation, and leaf arrangement is phyllotaxy.
14
Answer 2 Loading sugar lowers the water potential, water then follows by osmosis, and this builds the pressure that drives bulk flow: Q, S, P, R. Trap: pressure is the result of water entry, not its cause.
15
Answer 3 All the plant's carbon comes from CO2 taken in through stomata and fixed in photosynthesis. Trap: oxygen and hydrogen also come from water, and nitrogen and sulphur are absorbed as ions from the solution or soil.
16
Answer 3 Selaginella has endosporic, partly dependent gametophytes, while in a fern such as Nephrolepis the prothallus is free-living. Trap: Pogonatum has a dominant gametophyte, and the gametophyte of Cycas is wholly dependent on the sporophyte.
17
Answer 4 Water deficit triggers the synthesis of abscisic acid, which makes guard cells lose K+ and turgor. Trap: cytokinins tend to keep stomata open, and the other hormones mainly regulate growth or ripening.
18
Answer 4 Stratified squamous epithelium lines surfaces exposed to abrasion, such as the mouth, oesophagus and anal canal. Trap: the stomach and intestine have simple columnar epithelium, pseudostratified epithelium lines the airways, and dense regular tissue forms tendons.
19
Answer 4 Gastrin stimulates the gastric glands, and secretin stimulates bicarbonate secretion by the pancreatic duct cells. Trap: CCK stimulates pancreatic enzyme secretion and gall-bladder contraction, and it inhibits rather than stimulates gastric secretion.
20
Answer 2 During ventricular systole some right-ventricular blood regurgitates into the right atrium, so less enters the pulmonary trunk. Trap: the tricuspid valve is on the right side, so options about the left atrium, left ventricle or bicuspid valve do not apply.
21
Answer 2 CO2 forms carbonic acid, which lowers pH (P), and peripheral chemoreceptors signal the medulla (Q). Trap: a fall in CSF pH makes breathing faster and deeper, not slower and shallower.
22
Answer 3 Each B cell displays membrane-bound antigen receptors (B cell receptors) of a single specificity. Trap: B cells mature in the bone marrow, mediate humoral immunity, contribute to naturally acquired active immunity, and become plasma and memory cells.
23
Answer 4 Annelids have nephridia, crustaceans have antennal (green) glands, and flatworms have protonephridia with flame cells. Trap: Malpighian tubules belong to insects, and salt glands to marine birds and reptiles.
24
Answer 4 The brainstem (midbrain, pons and medulla) arises from the embryonic mesencephalon and rhombencephalon. Trap: vision is in the occipital lobe, the corpus callosum links the cerebral hemispheres, the fourth ventricle is in the hindbrain, and sleep-wake control involves the reticular formation, hypothalamus and pineal gland.
25
Answer 2 Na+ influx (R) depolarises the membrane (P); then K+ efflux (Q) repolarises it (S). Trap: the K+ channels open after the Na+ channels, which is why the rising phase comes first.
26
Answer 3 Thyroxine increases the metabolic rate of most body cells. Trap: adrenaline drives the short-term stress response, prolactin drives milk synthesis (oxytocin drives ejection), melatonin controls biological rhythms, and FSH acts on Sertoli cells while LH acts on Leydig cells.
27
Answer 4 The ovulated secondary oocyte is held at metaphase II until fertilisation. Trap: prophase I is the arrest stage of primary oocytes, from fetal life until puberty.
28
Answer 3 The amnion encloses the embryo in amniotic fluid, which cushions it. Trap: the chorion (trophoblast) forms the fetal placenta and secretes hCG, the germ cells arise near the yolk sac, and the umbilical vessels come from the allantois region.
29
Answer 2 The cervical curve develops with head control and the lumbar curve with sitting and walking; both are secondary curves, convex forwards. Trap: the thoracic and sacral curves are primary, present at birth and concave anteriorly.
30
Answer 5 The patella articulates with the patellar surface at the distal end of the femur. Trap: nodding happens at the atlanto-occipital joint, only some carpals form the wrist joint, low bone density is osteoporosis, and the mandible is the only movable skull bone.
31
Answer 2 A single character with two contrasting forms is controlled by one gene, so a monohybrid cross (P, F1, F2) is enough. Trap: dihybrid crosses, linkage and dominance variants are only needed when two genes or non-Mendelian ratios are involved.
32
Answer 3 Introns are non-coding sequences within genes that are removed during RNA processing, and intergenic DNA lies between genes. Trap: heterochromatin and euchromatin describe how condensed the chromatin is, not whether it codes.
33
Answer 4 AUG is the start codon and codes for methionine. Trap: mRNA is complementary to the template strand, 61 codons code for amino acids, the code is nearly universal, and anticodons vary with the tRNA.
34
Answer 5 A restriction map shows the cut sites, so it is used to choose unique sites when building a cloning vector. Trap: paternity, diagnosis and phylogeny rely mainly on DNA profiling and sequencing.
35
Answer 2 Musk oxen, arctic foxes and caribou (reindeer) are characteristic tundra animals. Trap: moose, lynx and Siberian tigers belong to the taiga (boreal forest).
36
Answer 4 Lingula is a 'living fossil' brachiopod almost unchanged since the Palaeozoic, and the toque macaque Macaca sinica is endemic to Sri Lanka. Trap: in the other pairs the first species is a mangrove, a grass or an invasive plant, not a relict.
37
Answer 3 CFCs release chlorine that destroys ozone, SO2 forms sulphuric acid in rain, and methane is a greenhouse gas. Trap: CO2 and SF6 are greenhouse gases that do not deplete ozone, and CO2 is not the main acid-rain gas.
38
Answer 3 Rifampicin (rifampin) inhibits bacterial RNA polymerase, so it blocks nucleic acid synthesis. Trap: tetracycline and streptomycin act on ribosomes, penicillin on the cell wall and daptomycin on the cell membrane.
39
Answer 4 Root exudates (sugars, amino acids and organic acids) feed rhizosphere microbes, pathogens included. Trap: phosphate solubilisers secrete acids, composting is aerobic, Azolla's partner is Anabaena, and vitamin C production uses Acetobacter or Gluconobacter.
40
Answer 3 Primary treatment is physical: screening, grit removal, removal of oil and grease, and sedimentation. Trap: activated sludge and trickling filters are secondary (biological) treatment, sludge digestion is separate, and chlorination is the final disinfection step.
41
Answer 2 Both pathways begin with glycolysis (2 pyruvate, net 2 ATP) and reoxidise NADH by reducing an organic acceptor, so A, C and D apply. Trap: CO2 release and ethanal as acceptor happen only in alcoholic fermentation.
42
Answer 1 The apical meristem adds cells in two directions: those towards the tip form the root cap, while those left behind elongate and drive the tip forward. Trap: cork cambium and any vascular cambium belong to secondary growth.
43
Answer 5 Only B is correct: blood loses pressure in the gill capillaries before reaching the body. Trap: lungfish have lungs, three-chambered hearts belong to amphibians with double circulation, blood passes through the heart (not the lungs) twice, and fish muscle contains myoglobin.
44
Answer 2 Receptors connect to the nervous system, can amplify stimulus energy and show sensory adaptation, so A, C and D are true. Trap: many receptors detect internal stimuli such as blood pressure or pH, and receptors are not glands.
45
Answer 3 Leydig (interstitial) cells sit between the tubules and secrete testosterone under LH stimulation. Trap: inhibin secretion, the blood-testis barrier and nursing or phagocytic roles are all Sertoli-cell functions.
46
Answer 4 CF results from a recessive allele of the CFTR gene on chromosome 7 (C), and one gene causing lung, pancreatic and reproductive effects is pleiotropy (D). Trap: it affects both sexes equally and carriers are unaffected, which rules out sex linkage and dominance. The official key may credit only autosomal recessive inheritance.
47
Answer 4 The standing biomass of fast-turnover phytoplankton can be less than that of zooplankton (C), and a single host can support many parasites (D). Trap: energy pyramids can never be inverted, and forest biomass and plankton numbers are upright.
48
Answer 2 TMV has a helical capsid, phytoplasmas multiply in leafhoppers and in plant phloem, and mycoplasmas are wall-less and multiply by budding and binary fission, so A, C and D match. Trap: Pseudomonas is aerobic, and purple sulphur bacteria are photoautotrophs (the non-sulphur forms are photoheterotrophs).
49
Answer 1 Stem cells are undifferentiated, self-renewing and able to differentiate, so A, B and D are true. Trap: rapid division is not a defining property, and adult stem cells occur in tissues such as bone marrow.
50
Answer 4 Removing breeding sites and using larvivorous fish work against both Aedes and Culex larvae. Trap: roof gutters are mainly Aedes (clean-water) habitats, while polluted drains and septic tanks are mainly Culex habitats, so official keys may vary.

Paper II — marking points

1A
  1. Life originated about 3.5–4.0 billion years ago (accept ~3.5 bya)
  2. Metabolism: the sum of all chemical reactions (anabolic and catabolic) in an organism
  3. Growth: an irreversible increase in dry mass/size, usually through cell division and enlargement
  4. Development: the progressive changes in form and function during an organism's life cycle (incl. differentiation)
  5. Sustainable food production: agriculture, animal husbandry/livestock, fisheries/aquaculture (sustainably managed)
  6. Overuse of resources is driven mainly by the rapidly growing human population and its rising consumption/demand
  7. Atmospheric O₂ started to rise in the Proterozoic eon (~2.7–2.4 bya, oxygen revolution by cyanobacteria)
  8. Colonisation of land by plants: Palaeozoic era
  9. Dominance of gymnosperms: Mesozoic era
  10. Appearance of first seed plants: Palaeozoic era (late Devonian)
1B
  1. Classification: grouping organisms into categories/taxa in a hierarchy based on similarities and differences (relationships)
  2. Modern systematics uses evolutionary (phylogenetic) relationships based on morphology/anatomy, embryology, cytology, biochemistry and molecular data (DNA/RNA/protein sequences)
  3. Arthropod-only features: chitinous exoskeleton, jointed appendages, haemocoel/open circulation with dorsal heart, compound eyes, segmented body in tagmata
  4. (Any four) e.g. jointed legs; chitinous cuticle exoskeleton moulted (ecdysis); compound eyes; tagmatisation
  5. Unique mammalian features: hair/fur, mammary glands, external ear pinna, diaphragm, three middle-ear ossicles, sweat/sebaceous glands, single dentary bone in lower jaw (any three)
  6. Common physiological feature of birds and mammals: endothermy/homeothermy (constant body temperature)
1C
  1. Phylum Pterophyta (ferns and allies, Monilophyta) – e.g. Nephrolepis / Pteris / Adiantum
  2. Microphylls are small, spine- or scale-like leaves
  3. Microphylls have a single unbranched vein (vascular strand); no leaf gap in the stele
  4. Common structure to bryophyte and angiosperm sporophytes: sporangium / spore-producing structure (or foot / embryo-derived tissue – accept tissue such as epidermis or stomata as per key)
  5. Plants are divided into two major groups by presence or absence of vascular tissue (vascular vs non-vascular plants)
  6. Bacteria: cell wall of peptidoglycan (murein)
  7. Archaea: no peptidoglycan; polysaccharides/proteins (pseudopeptidoglycan in some)
  8. Eukarya: cellulose (plants/algae), chitin (fungi); animals lack a cell wall
2A
  1. Cohesion (and adhesion) of water molecules via hydrogen bonds allows mineral transport in xylem
  2. Defensive protein: antibody/immunoglobulin (or fibrinogen, thrombin, interferon)
  3. Monomer of chitin: N-acetylglucosamine
  4. Separation of sister chromatids (centromere splitting) happens in mitosis and meiosis II but not meiosis I
  5. In C4 plants CO₂ is first fixed in mesophyll cells (cytoplasm) by PEP carboxylase
  6. PEP carboxylase has a higher affinity for CO₂ than RuBisCO and no affinity for O₂, so it does not cause photorespiration and works at low CO₂
  7. Secondary growth: increase in girth/thickness of stems and roots produced by lateral meristems (vascular cambium and cork cambium)
  8. Factors opening stomata apart from light: low internal CO₂ concentration in leaf; circadian rhythm (internal clock); adequate water/turgor; K⁺ uptake by guard cells
  9. Nepenthes grows in nitrogen-poor (nutrient-deficient, often acidic/boggy) soil
  10. Triploid nucleus divides to form endosperm, which nourishes the embryo
  11. Statoliths (amyloplasts) are located in root cap columella cells (and endodermis of shoots)
2B
  1. Matrix of cartilage contains chondroitin sulphate (protein–carbohydrate complex), secreted by chondroblasts/chondrocytes
  2. Other function of cartilage: reduces friction / absorbs shock at joints (smooth articular surfaces), and growth in length of long bones
  3. Protein sparing: use of carbohydrates and fats as energy sources so that proteins are reserved for growth and repair
  4. Non-essential fatty acids: fatty acids the body can synthesise, so they need not be supplied in the diet
  5. Balanced diet: a diet containing all nutrients in correct proportions and amounts to meet the body's needs
  6. Non-essential amino acids: e.g. alanine, glycine, glutamic acid, aspartic acid, serine, proline (any two)
  7. Normal blood pH: 7.35–7.45 (≈7.4)
  8. Life span of erythrocytes: about 120 days
  9. Resting blood pressure: about 120/80 mmHg
  10. Cardiac cycle: the sequence of events (contraction and relaxation of atria and ventricles) in one heartbeat, ~0.8 s
  11. Hypertension: persistently high arterial blood pressure at rest (about 140/90 mmHg or above)
2C
  1. Anatomical dead space: volume of air in the conducting airways (nose to terminal bronchioles) not involved in gas exchange
  2. Volume: about 150 ml
  3. Nervous coordination is faster because impulses travel rapidly along neurons as electrical signals directly to target cells, whereas hormones travel slowly in the blood
  4. Three functional areas of cerebral cortex: sensory areas, motor areas, association areas
  5. Sympathetic: thoracolumbar origin; short preganglionic, long postganglionic fibres; noradrenaline at effector; prepares for 'fight or flight'
  6. Parasympathetic: craniosacral origin; long preganglionic, short postganglionic fibres; acetylcholine at effector; 'rest and digest'
  7. Disease: Alzheimer's disease
  8. Binocular vision gives depth perception (3-D vision) and accurate distance judgement
  9. Eustachian tube equalises air pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane (connects middle ear to pharynx)
3A
  1. Phylum with hydrostatic skeleton: Annelida (or Cnidaria / Nematoda)
  2. Fontanelles: allow skull to compress/mould during birth and allow brain growth after birth
  3. Sutures: immovable joints that firmly unite skull bones (and allow growth at edges in young)
  4. Vertebrae with a foramen in each transverse process: cervical vertebrae
  5. Hinge joints in lower limb: knee joint, ankle joint, interphalangeal joints of toes (any two)
  6. Animals with salt glands: marine birds and marine reptiles (e.g. sea turtles)
  7. Substances secreted by DCT: H⁺, K⁺ (also NH₄⁺, drugs)
  8. ADH acts on distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct, increasing water permeability (aquaporins)
  9. Helper T cells: recognise antigens presented on class II MHC by antigen-presenting cells
  10. They secrete cytokines that activate B cells (humoral response) and cytotoxic T cells (cell-mediated response)
  11. They stimulate clonal proliferation and memory-cell formation
3B
  1. Type 1 diabetes: autoimmune destruction of insulin-secreting β-cells of the pancreatic islets, so no insulin is produced
  2. Oxytocin flow chart (positive feedback): suckling stimulates nipple sensory receptors → impulses to hypothalamus → posterior pituitary releases oxytocin → contraction of myoepithelial cells around alveoli → milk ejection → continued suckling → more oxytocin
  3. Advantages of asexual reproduction: no mate required; rapid production of many offspring; well-adapted genotype preserved in a stable environment; less energy used (any two)
  4. Spermatogenesis sequence: spermatogonial stem cell → spermatogonium → (mitosis) primary spermatocyte → (meiosis I) secondary spermatocytes → (meiosis II) spermatids → (spermiogenesis/differentiation) spermatozoa
  5. Fetal portion of placenta develops from the trophoblast (chorion) of the blastocyst
  6. Oestrogen: low early, rises to a peak just before ovulation (~day 12–13), falls, then a second smaller rise in luteal phase (~day 21), falls before menstruation
  7. Progesterone: low in follicular phase, rises after ovulation to peak around day 21, falls by day 28 as corpus luteum degenerates
  8. Depo-Provera (medroxyprogesterone injection): inhibits ovulation by suppressing GnRH/FSH/LH secretion
  9. It thickens cervical mucus (blocking sperm) and thins the endometrium (preventing implantation)
3C
  1. Microaerophiles: organisms that need oxygen but only at concentrations lower than in air (about 2–10%), since normal O₂ levels are toxic
  2. Example: Campylobacter jejuni (or Helicobacter pylori)
  3. Heterocysts have thick walls to keep out O₂, protecting the O₂-sensitive nitrogenase enzyme
  4. Dry-heat sterilisation: hot-air oven; flaming/red heating (incineration) of loops (any two)
  5. Disinfection of drinking water: chlorination; UV irradiation; ozonation (any two)
  6. Food intoxication: fungal – Aspergillus flavus (aflatoxin); bacterial – Clostridium botulinum or Staphylococcus aureus
  7. Subunit vaccines contain only antigenic parts of the pathogen and cannot replicate; live attenuated vaccines contain whole, weakened, living pathogens that multiply
  8. Subunit vaccines are safer (no reversion to virulence) but less immunogenic and usually need adjuvants/boosters; live attenuated give strong, long-lasting immunity
  9. Vinegar step 1: alcoholic fermentation of fruit-juice sugars to ethanol – Saccharomyces cerevisiae
  10. Vinegar step 2: oxidation of ethanol to acetic acid – Acetobacter aceti (or Gluconobacter)
4A
  1. Signals for epigenetics: environmental signals and developmental (internal) signals
  2. Signal peptide directs the polypeptide to a destination – e.g. to the ER for secretion/membrane insertion or to a specific organelle
  3. Molecule described: transfer RNA (tRNA)
  4. (a) amino-acid attachment site (3′ CCA end / acceptor stem)
  5. (b) anticodon (anticodon loop)
  6. Property: the genetic code is universal (nearly the same in all organisms)
  7. Methods of introducing DNA into plant cells: Agrobacterium tumefaciens Ti-plasmid mediated transfer; gene gun (biolistics/microprojectile bombardment); electroporation of protoplasts; microinjection (any two)
4B
  1. Biomes nearest the equator: tropical forest (rain forest), savanna, desert
  2. Villus dominant vegetation: grasses/sedges (herbaceous marsh vegetation) and aquatic plants (floating/submerged hydrophytes)
  3. Villus locations: Mahaweli flood plains, e.g. Somawathiya, Wasgamuwa, Trikonamadu / Polonnaruwa–Manampitiya area (any two)
  4. Population: a group of individuals of the same species living in a particular area at the same time and interbreeding
  5. Trophic level: the position an organism occupies in a food chain based on how it obtains energy
  6. Food chain: a linear sequence of organisms through which energy and nutrients pass by feeding
  7. Invasive aquatic plants in reservoirs: Eichhornia crassipes (water hyacinth), Salvinia molesta, Pistia stratiotes (any two)
  8. Seagrass genera: Halophila, Enhalus, Thalassia, Cymodocea, Halodule (any two)
  9. Coral reefs are called rain forests of the sea because they have very high biodiversity and very high productivity, with complex habitats and food webs
4C
  1. Services of biodiversity: purification of air and water; soil formation and fertility (nutrient cycling); pollination; climate regulation; flood/erosion control; decomposition of wastes; pest control (any five)
  2. Human activities causing desertification: deforestation; overgrazing; over-cultivation/poor farming practices; improper irrigation causing salinisation; mining; overuse of groundwater; urbanisation (any five)
  3. Legislation: a law enacted by Parliament that is legally binding and enforceable
  4. Policy: a set of principles/guidelines adopted by government to direct decisions and actions towards goals
  5. Key legislation: National Environmental Act (No. 47 of 1980) (or Fauna and Flora Protection Ordinance, Forest Ordinance)
  6. Tissue culture is based on totipotency – any living plant cell can regenerate into a whole plant
  7. Sugar preserves food by creating a high osmotic pressure (low water activity), drawing water out of microbial cells by osmosis (plasmolysis) and preventing their growth
5a
  1. A nucleotide has three parts: a pentose sugar, a nitrogenous base and a phosphate group
  2. In DNA the sugar is deoxyribose (lacks –OH at C2′); in RNA it is ribose
  3. Nitrogenous bases: purines (adenine, guanine – double ring) and pyrimidines (cytosine, thymine – single ring; uracil in RNA)
  4. The base attaches to C1′ of the sugar by an N-glycosidic bond (nucleoside)
  5. The phosphate attaches to C5′ of the sugar (nucleoside monophosphate = nucleotide)
  6. Nucleotides join by condensation (dehydration) reactions
  7. Phosphate on the 5′ carbon of one nucleotide bonds to the 3′–OH of the next forming a phosphodiester linkage
  8. Repeating sugar–phosphate units form the sugar–phosphate backbone, with bases projecting as side groups
  9. The strand has polarity: a free 5′ phosphate end and a free 3′ hydroxyl end
  10. Base sequence along the backbone carries the genetic information
5b
  1. DNA consists of two polynucleotide strands wound around a common axis forming a right-handed double helix
  2. The two strands are antiparallel (5′→3′ and 3′→5′)
  3. Sugar–phosphate backbones are on the outside; bases are on the inside
  4. Bases pair by hydrogen bonds: A with T (2 H bonds), G with C (3 H bonds) – complementary base pairing
  5. A purine always pairs with a pyrimidine, giving a uniform helix width of about 2 nm
  6. Base pairs are stacked about 0.34 nm apart; one complete turn is 3.4 nm and contains 10 base pairs
  7. The helix has alternating major and minor grooves
  8. Complementarity means the sequence of one strand determines the other – the basis of semi-conservative replication
  9. Model built from Chargaff's rules (A=T, G=C) and Franklin/Wilkins X-ray diffraction data
  10. Hydrophobic stacking interactions between bases and van der Waals forces stabilise the helix
  11. Labelled diagram of double helix and base pairing expected
6
  1. Ground tissue is all tissue that is neither dermal nor vascular; it forms cortex, pith and mesophyll; derived from ground meristem
  2. Three types: parenchyma, collenchyma and sclerenchyma
  3. Parenchyma: living, thin primary walls, large central vacuole, isodiametric, loosely packed with intercellular spaces, can divide (totipotent)
  4. Parenchyma functions: photosynthesis (chlorenchyma in mesophyll), storage of starch/water/oil, secretion, gas exchange (aerenchyma), wound healing and regeneration
  5. Collenchyma: living, elongated cells with unevenly thickened primary walls (cellulose and pectin, thickened at corners); found below epidermis of young stems and petioles
  6. Collenchyma function: flexible mechanical support for growing parts without restricting growth
  7. Sclerenchyma: thick secondary walls impregnated with lignin; usually dead at maturity, no protoplast
  8. Sclerenchyma types: fibres (long, tapering, in bundles) and sclereids (stone cells, variable shapes, e.g. in nut shells and pear flesh)
  9. Sclerenchyma function: rigid mechanical support and strength in non-growing parts; protection (seed coats, shells)
  10. Ground tissue also helps lateral transport of water/solutes and provides buoyancy in aquatic plants (aerenchyma)
  11. Diagrams of the three cell types expected
7a
  1. Elongated, soft, lobulated gland lying behind the stomach in the curve of the duodenum, retroperitoneal
  2. Divided into head (in C-loop of duodenum), neck, body and tail (reaching the spleen)
  3. Mixed gland – both exocrine and endocrine
  4. Exocrine part: acini made of secretory cells producing digestive enzymes, plus duct cells secreting bicarbonate-rich fluid
  5. Acini drain into small ducts that join the main pancreatic duct running through the gland
  6. Main pancreatic duct joins the common bile duct to form the hepatopancreatic ampulla, opening into the duodenum via the sphincter of Oddi (accessory duct may be present)
  7. Endocrine part: islets of Langerhans scattered among the acini
  8. Islets contain α cells (glucagon), β cells (insulin) and δ cells (somatostatin); richly supplied with blood capillaries
  9. Covered by thin connective tissue capsule with septa dividing it into lobules
7b
  1. Secretes pancreatic juice (~1.2–1.5 L/day) into the duodenum
  2. Bicarbonate ions neutralise acidic chyme, giving the alkaline pH needed by pancreatic and intestinal enzymes and protecting the duodenal mucosa
  3. Pancreatic amylase hydrolyses starch/glycogen to maltose (and other disaccharides)
  4. Proteases secreted as inactive forms: trypsinogen activated by enterokinase (enteropeptidase) to trypsin; trypsin activates chymotrypsinogen and procarboxypeptidase
  5. Trypsin and chymotrypsin break proteins into smaller polypeptides; carboxypeptidase removes amino acids from the carboxyl end
  6. Pancreatic lipase hydrolyses emulsified fats into fatty acids and monoglycerides (with bile salts)
  7. Nucleases (DNase, RNase) hydrolyse nucleic acids to nucleotides
  8. Inactive secretion of proteases protects the pancreas from self-digestion
  9. Secretion controlled by hormones: secretin (bicarbonate-rich juice) and CCK (enzyme-rich juice), plus vagal stimulation
8
  1. Innate immunity is present from birth, non-specific, acts rapidly, has no memory, and is the same with repeated exposure
  2. First line – physical barriers: intact skin (keratinised epidermis), mucous membranes, mucus trapping microbes, cilia sweeping mucus out of airways
  3. Chemical barriers: lysozyme in tears, saliva and mucus; acidic pH of skin, stomach HCl; sebum/fatty acids; vaginal acidity
  4. Normal microbiota competing with pathogens
  5. Second line – internal defences: phagocytic cells – neutrophils, macrophages, eosinophils (attack parasites), dendritic cells
  6. Phagocytes recognise pathogen molecules via Toll-like receptors, then engulf and digest them in lysosomes
  7. Natural killer cells detect and kill virus-infected and cancer cells by releasing chemicals that cause apoptosis
  8. Antimicrobial proteins: interferons (inhibit viral replication in neighbouring cells), complement system (lysis, opsonisation, inflammation)
  9. Inflammatory response: mast cells release histamine → vasodilation and increased permeability → redness, heat, swelling, pain; phagocytes and fluid migrate into tissue; pus formation
  10. Fever: pyrogens reset hypothalamic set-point, inhibiting microbial growth and boosting phagocytosis
  11. Septic shock as an overwhelming systemic inflammatory response
  12. Innate responses also activate adaptive immunity (antigen presentation by dendritic cells/macrophages)
9a
  1. A cloning vector is a DNA molecule that carries foreign DNA into a host cell and replicates there (e.g. plasmids, bacteriophages, cosmids, BACs, YACs)
  2. Origin of replication (ori) so it can replicate independently in the host
  3. High copy number for producing many copies of the inserted gene
  4. Unique restriction sites (multiple cloning site/polylinker) where foreign DNA can be inserted, each site occurring once
  5. Selectable marker genes, e.g. antibiotic-resistance genes (ampR, tetR), to identify transformed cells
  6. Screening marker for recombinants, e.g. lacZ gene (blue–white screening) or insertional inactivation
  7. Small size for easy isolation and transfer into host cells
  8. Ability to accommodate an insert of suitable size
  9. Expression vectors also carry promoter, ribosome-binding site and terminator to express the inserted gene
  10. Should be stable in the host and non-pathogenic
9b
  1. Spoilage is any change making food unacceptable, caused by microbes using food nutrients and releasing metabolic products
  2. Carbohydrates: fermented to acids (lactic, acetic), alcohol and CO₂ – souring, gas production, sliminess (dextran/capsule polysaccharides)
  3. Proteins: proteolysis to peptides and amino acids, then deamination/decarboxylation producing ammonia, amines (putrescine, cadaverine), H₂S, indole and mercaptans – putrefaction with foul odour
  4. Lipids: lipases hydrolyse fats to fatty acids and glycerol; oxidation of fatty acids gives aldehydes and ketones – rancidity
  5. Pectin breakdown by pectinases causes softening/soft rot of fruits and vegetables
  6. Production of pigments causes discolouration; production of toxins (e.g. mycotoxins) may occur
  7. Changes in pH (acidification or alkalinisation from ammonia) and texture (slime, softening)
  8. Examples: souring of milk (lactic acid from lactose), rotting of meat/fish, rancid butter
10a
  1. Each organism has a scientific name of two parts – genus name and specific epithet (binomial system by Linnaeus)
  2. Genus name begins with a capital letter; specific epithet begins with a simple letter
  3. Names are in Latin or Latinised form
  4. Name is italicised when printed, or each word underlined separately when handwritten
  5. Genus name can be abbreviated to its initial once written in full (e.g. H. sapiens)
  6. The author's name (who first described the species) may follow, not italicised
  7. Each species has only one valid scientific name; the earliest validly published name has priority
  8. Names are governed by international codes (ICN for plants/algae/fungi, ICZN for animals, ICNB for bacteria)
10b
  1. States that allele and genotype frequencies in a population remain constant from generation to generation unless disturbed
  2. p + q = 1 (allele frequencies); p² + 2pq + q² = 1 (genotype frequencies)
  3. Conditions: very large population; random mating; no mutation; no gene flow (migration); no natural selection
  4. Such a population is not evolving – it acts as a null model
  5. Evolution = change in allele frequencies; departure from H–W shows microevolution is occurring
  6. Causes of change: natural selection, genetic drift (bottleneck, founder effect), gene flow, mutation, non-random mating
  7. Used to calculate carrier frequency of recessive alleles (e.g. heterozygotes for genetic diseases)
10c
  1. Fast growth rate, reaching marketable size quickly
  2. Able to tolerate a wide range of environmental conditions (temperature, salinity, oxygen, crowding)
  3. Accepts artificial/supplementary feed and has efficient food conversion; preferably feeds low on the food chain (herbivore/omnivore)
  4. Easily bred in captivity; high fecundity; seed (fingerlings) readily available
  5. Resistant to diseases and parasites
  6. Can be stocked at high density; non-cannibalistic and compatible with other species (polyculture)
  7. High consumer acceptance and market value; good taste and nutritive value
  8. Hardy, withstands handling and transport
  9. Examples: tilapia, carps (common, Indian major), milkfish, sea bass

Scan notes: All 50 MCQs and all Paper II questions were present. The OCR dropped options C and D of MCQ 10, so they were read from page image p-02. The 4A(iii) tRNA diagram was read from p-16, and 2B(v) from p-13. MCQs 46 and 50 depend on how the examiners' key treats pleiotropy and vector habitats, so they are flagged low confidence.

2022 (2023)

G.C.E. (Advanced Level) — Biology

Current syllabus (2019 onward) · Re-set practice paper

Paper I50 MCQs · 2 hoursAnswer all. Choose the one correct or most suitable option.
Paper II11 parts in this booklet · 3 hoursPart A: answer all structured questions. Part B: answer four essays.

Every question tests the same concept as question of the same number in the 2022 (2023) paper, re-written by MEDVision. Source coverage: Paper I + Paper II essays only (Part A not in file; one essay unreadable).

2022 (2023) · Paper IMultiple choice
1.

Which statement about lipids such as triglycerides is correct?

  1. 1Triglycerides are polymers made of repeating glycerol monomers.
  2. 2An unsaturated fatty acid has no carbon–carbon double bonds in its chain.
  3. 3Compared with a carbohydrate, a lipid contains proportionally much less oxygen, so its H:O ratio exceeds 2:1.
  4. 4Fatty acids are linked to glycerol by glycosidic bonds.
  5. 5A phospholipid molecule carries three fatty acid chains and one phosphate group.
U2 · Biomolecules & water
2.

Which statement about the compound light microscope is correct?

  1. 1Using light of a shorter wavelength improves its resolving power.
  2. 2The objective lens further magnifies the image formed by the eyepiece.
  3. 3Its limit of resolution is about 0.2 mm.
  4. 4Its lenses form the image mainly by reflecting light.
  5. 5Its maximum useful magnification is about 5000 times.
U2 · Microscopy
3.

Which of the following is carried out by both the rough and the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

  1. 1Storage of Ca²⁺ in muscle cells
  2. 2Detoxification of drugs in liver cells
  3. 3Adding carbohydrate chains to newly made secretory proteins
  4. 4Budding off vesicles that carry their products to the Golgi apparatus
  5. 5Synthesis of steroid hormones
U2 · Cell organelles & structure
4.

Which statement about organelles of a eukaryotic cell is correct?

  1. 1Stalked particles (ATP synthase) are located on the outer mitochondrial membrane.
  2. 2The nuclear lamina is a protein meshwork lining the inner nuclear membrane, to which chromatin is attached.
  3. 3Chloroplast ribosomes are found inside the thylakoid lumen.
  4. 4Cellulose microfibrils are assembled inside Golgi cisternae.
  5. 5Glyoxysomes convert fatty acids into glycolipids.
U2 · Cell organelles & structure
5.

Which statement about factors affecting enzyme activity is correct?

  1. 1Most competitive inhibitors bind covalently and irreversibly to the active site.
  2. 2Coenzymes are small protein molecules bound to the enzyme.
  3. 3Non-competitive inhibitors compete with the substrate for the active site.
  4. 4Cooling an enzyme below its optimum temperature permanently denatures it.
  5. 5Heating an enzyme well above its optimum breaks weak bonds, so the active site loses its shape.
U2 · Enzymes
6.

Which statement about the mitochondrial electron transport chain is correct?

  1. 1It is located in the mitochondrial matrix.
  2. 2Oxygen is the first carrier to accept electrons from NADH.
  3. 3Oxidation of one FADH₂ yields about 3 ATP.
  4. 4It consists of protein complexes together with non-protein carriers such as ubiquinone.
  5. 5Oxidation of one NADH yields about 1.5 ATP.
U2 · Cellular respiration & fermentation
7.

Consider four events in the aerobic breakdown of one glucose molecule.
P – Electrons are passed from reduced coenzymes to carriers in the inner mitochondrial membrane
Q – ATP is made by ATP synthase using the proton gradient
R – CO₂ is removed as pyruvate is converted to acetyl CoA
S – ATP (or GTP) is formed directly from succinyl CoA in the Krebs cycle
Which is the correct order of these events?

  1. 1P, Q, R, S
  2. 2R, P, S, Q
  3. 3R, S, P, Q
  4. 4S, R, Q, P
  5. 5R, S, Q, P
U2 · Cellular respiration & fermentation
8.

Three eras are X – Palaeozoic, Y – Mesozoic, Z – Cenozoic. Five events are P – dominance of dinosaurs, Q – colonisation of land by plants, R – appearance of humans, S – appearance of the first flowering plants, T – origin of amphibians. Which gives the correct era–event combinations?

  1. 1X-P, Y-Q, Z-R, X-S, Y-T
  2. 2X-Q, Y-P, Z-R, Y-S, X-T
  3. 3X-Q, Y-P, Z-S, Y-R, X-T
  4. 4X-T, Z-P, Y-R, X-S, Y-Q
  5. 5X-Q, Y-T, Z-R, Y-S, X-P
U3 · Origin of life & evolution
9.

Which of the following is regarded as an artificial group of convenience rather than a natural group of organisms?

  1. 1Animalia
  2. 2Fungi
  3. 3Archaea
  4. 4Chordata
  5. 5Protista
U3 · Classification & taxonomy
10.

Which pair is expected to share the greatest number of characteristics?

  1. 1Domain Archaea and Domain Bacteria
  2. 2Platyhelminthes and Mollusca
  3. 3Sharks and frogs
  4. 4Dolphins and elephants
  5. 5Bryophyta and Lycophyta
U3 · Classification & taxonomy
11.

Consider these statements about seedless vascular plants.
A – Selaginella produces two kinds of spores.
B – Lycopodium produces two kinds of spores.
C – Most ferns, such as Nephrolepis, produce only one kind of spore.
Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. 1A only
  2. 2B only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4A and C only
  5. 5A, B and C
U3 · Plant diversity
12.

Which of the following features is found in members of only one class of the phylum Chordata?

  1. 1Endothermy
  2. 2Paired fins
  3. 3Internal fertilisation
  4. 4Feathers
  5. 5Lungs
U3 · Animal diversity
13.

Which statement about meristematic cells of flowering plants is correct?

  1. 1Each has a large central vacuole that pushes the nucleus to one side.
  2. 2They are found only at the root and shoot apices.
  3. 3Some produce primary tissues, while others (the cambia) produce secondary tissues.
  4. 4They divide by both mitosis and meiosis to form new tissues.
  5. 5They have thick, lignified secondary walls.
U4 · Plant form & growth
14.

Consider the following events in a leaf.
A – Active uptake of K⁺ into guard cells
B – A rise in abscisic acid level during drought
C – Entry of water into guard cells, raising their turgor
D – Loss of water from guard cells to neighbouring cells
Which of these lead to opening of stomata?

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2A and C only
  3. 3B and D only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5A, B and C
U4 · Water relations & transport
15.

Glucose enters a red blood cell down its concentration gradient through a specific membrane carrier protein, without using ATP. This process is

  1. 1active transport.
  2. 2simple diffusion.
  3. 3facilitated diffusion.
  4. 4osmosis.
  5. 5endocytosis.
U2 · Membranes & transport
16.

In which ionic forms are nitrogen and boron mainly absorbed by plant roots, respectively?

  1. 1NO₂⁻ and B³⁺
  2. 2N₂ and H₂BO₃⁻
  3. 3NO₃⁻ and H₂BO₃⁻
  4. 4NO₂⁻ and H₂BO₃⁻
  5. 5NO₃⁻ and B³⁺
U4 · Plant nutrition
17.

Which of the following in a flowering plant is diploid?

  1. 1Microspore
  2. 2Synergid
  3. 3Generative cell
  4. 4Antipodal cell
  5. 5Nucellus
U4 · Plant reproduction & life cycles
18.

Which plant hormones, in order, (i) stimulate cytokinesis in tissue culture, (ii) hasten yellowing and ageing of leaves and (iii) suppress growth of lateral buds from the shoot apex?

  1. 1Cytokinin, ethylene, auxin
  2. 2Auxin, gibberellin, cytokinin
  3. 3Gibberellin, ethylene, cytokinin
  4. 4Cytokinin, gibberellin, auxin
  5. 5Auxin, ethylene, gibberellin
U4 · Plant hormones & responses
19.

Select the correct response for the following two statements.
A – Connective tissues bind and support other tissues of the body.
B – Elastic fibres provide the main tensile strength of connective tissue.

  1. 1Both A and B are correct, and B contributes to A.
  2. 2Both A and B are correct, but B does not contribute to A.
  3. 3A is correct and B is incorrect.
  4. 4A is incorrect and B is correct.
  5. 5Both A and B are incorrect.
U5 · Animal tissues
20.

In humans, which gives in order (i) the main site of absorption of digested food and mineral ions, (ii) the site where gut bacteria synthesise vitamins B and K, and (iii) the site where undigested material is fermented?

  1. 1Duodenum, rectum, stomach
  2. 2Small intestine, colon, cecum
  3. 3Colon, small intestine, cecum
  4. 4Stomach, colon, rectum
  5. 5Small intestine, cecum, gall bladder
U5 · Digestion & nutrition
21.

Anti-A antibodies are present in the plasma of people with which blood groups?

  1. 1A and O
  2. 2B and AB
  3. 3B and O
  4. 4A, B and O
  5. 5AB only
U5 · Circulation & blood
22.

Which statement about the human lymphatic system is correct?

  1. 1Lymph has a higher protein content than blood plasma.
  2. 2The thoracic duct empties lymph into the aorta.
  3. 3Lymph capillaries are absent from the villi of the small intestine.
  4. 4Lymph nodes consist of connective tissue packed with lymphocytes and macrophages that filter lymph.
  5. 5Unlike veins, lymph vessels have no valves.
U5 · Circulation & blood
23.

Which statement about antibodies is correct?

  1. 1Each antibody molecule carries many epitopes.
  2. 2Binding of an antibody to an antigen can activate complement, leading to lysis of the microbe.
  3. 3Antibodies received from another person provide long-lasting immunological memory.
  4. 4Antibodies destroy bacteria by engulfing them.
  5. 5Antibodies are secreted by cytotoxic T cells.
U5 · Immunity
24.

The centre that regulates heart rate and the diameter of blood vessels in the human brain is in the

  1. 1hypothalamus.
  2. 2medulla oblongata.
  3. 3midbrain.
  4. 4cerebellum.
  5. 5thalamus.
U5 · Nervous system
25.

Consider the following actions of the autonomic nervous system.
A – Constriction of the pupil
B – Dilation of bronchioles
C – Stimulation of intestinal peristalsis
Which of these is/are caused by the parasympathetic division?

  1. 1A only
  2. 2B only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4A and C only
  5. 5A, B and C
U5 · Nervous system
26.

Which statement about human sensory receptors is correct?

  1. 1Taste receptors are modified neurons.
  2. 2Pacinian corpuscles detect cold.
  3. 3Olfactory receptors adapt, so a constant odour soon becomes less noticeable.
  4. 4Cones work better than rods in dim light.
  5. 5The utricle and saccule detect rotational movements of the head.
U5 · Sense organs
27.

Which hormone of the anterior pituitary acts directly on a non-endocrine target tissue rather than on another endocrine gland?

  1. 1TSH
  2. 2Oxytocin
  3. 3LH
  4. 4Prolactin
  5. 5ADH
U5 · Endocrine system
28.

In human males, where do sperm complete their maturation, gain motility and remain stored until ejaculation?

  1. 1Prostate gland
  2. 2Bulbourethral gland
  3. 3Seminal vesicle
  4. 4Epididymis
  5. 5Seminiferous tubule
U5 · Reproduction & development
29.

Which statement about the human female reproductive system is correct?

  1. 1Ovarian follicles develop in the medulla of the ovary.
  2. 2Primary oocytes are first formed at puberty.
  3. 3The cell released at ovulation is arrested at prophase I.
  4. 4The embryo implants in the endometrium at the morula stage.
  5. 5The secretory phase of the uterine cycle coincides with the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle.
U5 · Reproduction & development
30.

Which statement about human breast milk is correct?

  1. 1Oxytocin is the main hormone stimulating milk synthesis.
  2. 2It contains IgA antibodies and leucocytes that give the infant passive protection.
  3. 3Colostrum contains more lactose than mature milk.
  4. 4A rise in progesterone after delivery triggers milk secretion.
  5. 5Mature breast milk has a high sodium content.
U5 · Reproduction & development
31.

Consider these events of the cross-bridge cycle in skeletal muscle.
P – ATP binds to the myosin head, which detaches from actin
Q – ATP is hydrolysed and the myosin head is re-cocked into a high-energy state
R – The myosin head attaches to actin, forming a cross-bridge
S – The power stroke slides the thin filament, and ADP and Pi are released
Starting from R, which is the correct sequence?

  1. 1R, P, S, Q
  2. 2R, S, P, Q
  3. 3R, Q, S, P
  4. 4R, S, Q, P
  5. 5R, P, Q, S
U5 · Skeleton, muscle & movement
32.

Which statement about X-linked inheritance in humans is correct?

  1. 1A father passes his X-linked alleles to his sons.
  2. 2Heterozygous females usually express X-linked recessive disorders.
  3. 3A mother passes X-linked alleles only to her daughters.
  4. 4X-linked recessive disorders are more common in males, because one recessive allele is enough for them to express the trait.
  5. 5X-linked dominant traits are expressed only in males.
U6 · Linkage & sex-linkage
33.

When two heterozygous plants are crossed, the offspring show both a phenotypic ratio and a genotypic ratio of 1:2:1. Which conclusion is valid?

  1. 1The trait shows incomplete dominance only.
  2. 2The trait shows codominance only.
  3. 3Either incomplete dominance or codominance could explain the result.
  4. 4The trait shows complete dominance.
  5. 5The alleles must be X-linked.
U6 · Extensions of Mendelian genetics
34.

A single-base substitution in a gene

  1. 1may cause a cell to become cancerous.
  2. 2always changes the amino acid sequence of the protein.
  3. 3changes the chromosome number of the cell.
  4. 4is always lethal.
  5. 5can never alter the function of a protein.
U6 · Mutations
35.

Which of the following sets contains only products of recombinant DNA technology?

  1. 1Bt maize, tissue-cultured orchids, recombinant insulin
  2. 2Golden rice, recombinant hepatitis B vaccine, ringspot-resistant papaya
  3. 3Cloned sheep (Dolly), Bt cotton, Flavr Savr tomato
  4. 4Seedless watermelon, Golden rice, recombinant chymosin
  5. 5Polyploid wheat, recombinant human growth hormone, Roundup Ready soybean
U7 · GMOs, biosafety & applications
36.

In a grassland food web: grasshoppers, rabbits and deer eat grass; frogs and shrews eat grasshoppers; snakes eat frogs and rabbits; owls eat shrews and snakes; wild cats eat rabbits. How many secondary consumers and how many tertiary consumers are there, respectively?

  1. 1Three and two
  2. 2Four and two
  3. 3Four and three
  4. 4Five and two
  5. 5Three and three
U8 · Ecosystems & energy flow
37.

Four organisms found in Sri Lanka are A – Lantana camara, B – Sri Lanka junglefowl, C – Na (Mesua ferrea), D – Tea. Four biodiversity categories are P – endemic, Q – exotic, R – invasive, S – indigenous. Which gives the correct combinations?

  1. 1A-R, B-P, C-S, D-Q
  2. 2A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R
  3. 3A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q
  4. 4A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S
  5. 5A-S, B-P, C-R, D-Q
U8 · Biodiversity & conservation
38.

Asexual reproduction by binary fission is characteristic of

  1. 1filamentous fungi such as Rhizopus and bacteria.
  2. 2Mucor and filamentous cyanobacteria such as Nostoc.
  3. 3bacteria and unicellular cyanobacteria.
  4. 4Penicillium and filamentous cyanobacteria.
  5. 5filamentous cyanobacteria such as Oscillatoria and Rhizopus.
U9 · Microbial diversity & structure
39.

Escherichia coli

  1. 1is an obligate aerobe.
  2. 2produces vitamin E in the human colon.
  3. 3is a Gram-positive coccus.
  4. 4is the main starter organism in yoghurt production.
  5. 5is a facultative anaerobe of the colon that can cause infections if it reaches other sites, such as the urinary tract.
U9 · Microbial diversity & structure
40.

Some ornamental plants and suggested methods of vegetative propagation are A – Rose: budding, B – Bougainvillea: stem cuttings, C – Anthurium: leaf cuttings, D – Orchid (Dendrobium): grafting. Which combinations are correct?

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2A and C only
  3. 3B and C only
  4. 4B and D only
  5. 5C and D only
U10 · Plant propagation & tissue culture
41.

Which sequence/sequences give examples of five adjacent levels of biological organisation?
A – Glucose, chloroplast, guard cell, epidermis, leaf
B – Haemoglobin, red blood cell, blood, heart, circulatory system
C – Respiratory system, frog, frog population in a pond, pond community, pond ecosystem
D – Keratin, nucleus, muscle fibre, leg, human

  1. 1A only
  2. 2A and C only
  3. 3A, B and C only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5B and D only
U1 · Characteristics of life & levels of organisation
42.

Which statements about tracheids are correct?
A – They occur in ferns and in Selaginella.
B – Mature tracheids contain mitochondria that supply energy for water transport.
C – Their secondary walls are lignified.
D – They conduct water and give mechanical support.
E – They are present in mosses.

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3C and D only
  4. 4B, C and E only
  5. 5A, C, D and E only
U4 · Plant tissues & anatomy
43.

Which statements about blood clotting in humans are correct?
A – Thrombin converts soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin.
B – Prothrombin is stored in the granules of platelets.
C – Heparin acts as an anticoagulant by preventing thrombin formation.
D – Calcium ions are not needed for clotting.
E – Fibrin is secreted by platelets.

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2A and C only
  3. 3A, C and D only
  4. 4B, C and E only
  5. 5C and D only
U5 · Circulation & blood
44.

Which pairings of animal group and main nitrogenous excretory product are correct?
A – Insects: uric acid
B – Tadpoles: ammonia
C – Adult frogs: ammonia
D – Mammals: urea
E – Freshwater bony fishes: urea

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5B, D and E only
U5 · Excretion & osmoregulation
45.

Which statements about the human skeleton are correct?
A – The frontal bone forms the forehead and the roofs of the orbits.
B – Each of the twelve pairs of ribs articulates with a thoracic vertebra.
C – The lumbar curvature is already present at birth.
D – The saddle joint between the trapezium and the first metacarpal allows opposition of the thumb.
E – The arches of the foot spread body weight only while standing still.

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5B, C and E only
U5 · Skeleton, muscle & movement
46.

Which statements about the protein core (scaffold) of a supercoiled bacterial chromosome are correct?
A – It anchors the looped domains of compacted DNA.
B – It helps attach the chromosome to the plasma membrane.
C – It allows the whole chromosome to unwind at once during replication.
D – It allows individual looped domains to relax independently during transcription.
E – It positions ribosomes on the DNA.

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5B, C and E only
U7 · DNA structure & replication
47.

Which sequence/sequences list plants of three Sri Lankan ecosystems in order of increasing altitude?
A – Avicennia, Burutha, Doona
B – Halosarcia, Karamba, Nelli
C – Maharathmal, Hora, Kadol
D – Kaluwara, Bu hora, Keena
E – Sonneratia, Keena, Andara

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5B, D and E only
U8 · Biomes & Sri Lankan ecosystems
48.

Which statements about industrial uses of microorganisms are correct?
A – Aspergillus niger is used to produce citric acid.
B – Lactobacillus is used to produce vinegar.
C – Bacillus thuringiensis toxin is used as a biological insecticide.
D – Human insulin is produced by genetically engineered Escherichia coli.
E – Penicillin is produced by Streptomyces griseus.

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5B, C and E only
U9 · Industrial & food microbiology
49.

Which of these bacteria cause both water-borne and food-borne diseases?
A – Vibrio cholerae
B – Shigella dysenteriae
C – Clostridium botulinum
D – Salmonella typhi
E – Bacillus cereus

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5B, D and E only
U9 · Microbes & disease
50.

Which of the following are routine monthly tasks in maintaining a home aquarium?
A – Cleaning the air stones
B – Trimming overgrown aquarium plants
C – Wiping algae from the front glass
D – Siphoning debris that collects beneath the undergravel filter plate
E – Checking the water temperature

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5B, C and E only
U10 · Aquaculture & animal production
2022 (2023) · Paper IIStructured & essay
5
Part B · Essay150 marks

Describe the first meiotic division, in which the chromosome number is halved. Include the sub-stages of prophase I, the events of metaphase I, anaphase I and telophase I, and the significance of this division. Support your answer with labelled diagrams.

6
Part B · Essay150 marks

Give an account of how a dicotyledonous stem increases in girth. Describe the formation and activity of the vascular cambium and the cork cambium, and explain how annual rings, heartwood, sapwood and bark arise.

7a
Part B · Essay75 marks

Compare organisms of Domain Bacteria with those of Domain Eukarya. Explain the differences in cell organisation, genetic material, ribosomes, cell walls, protein synthesis and cell division.

7b
Part B · Essay75 marks

Describe the different types of vaccines used to prevent microbial diseases. Give an example of each type, and discuss their role and limitations in disease control.

8a
Part B · Essay75 marks

Draw a large, fully labelled diagram of a human nephron together with its associated blood vessels. Indicate the cortex and medulla regions.

8b
Part B · Essay75 marks

Explain how urine is formed in the human kidney. Refer to ultrafiltration, selective reabsorption, tubular secretion and the mechanism that concentrates urine.

9a
Part B · Essay75 marks

Describe the structure of a human spermatozoon. State the function of each of its parts.

9b
Part B · Essay75 marks

Explain how hormones regulate sperm production in human males, including the role of negative feedback.

10a
Part B · Essay50 marks

Write a short note on the drawbacks of artificial plant breeding.

10b
Part B · Essay50 marks

Write a short note on Okazaki fragments: why they are formed and how they are synthesised and joined.

10c
Part B · Essay50 marks

Write a short note on the adaptations of plants that live in deserts.

2022 (2023) · Answers & reviewsMEDVision answers

Answer key — this booklet

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Answer key — original 2022 (2023) paper (MEDVision model answers)

For students working from the original paper. Shaded cells: check against the official marking scheme (amber = likely, red = disputed).

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Paper I — reviews

1
Answer 3 Lipids are oxygen-poor compared with carbohydrates (H:O well above 2:1). They are not true polymers, fatty acids join glycerol by ester bonds, and a phospholipid has two fatty acids plus one phosphate group.
2
Answer 1 Resolving power is inversely related to wavelength, so shorter wavelengths resolve finer detail. The trap: the light microscope resolves about 0.2 µm (not mm), its lenses refract light, and the eyepiece magnifies the objective's image.
3
Answer 4 Both types of ER package their products (proteins from RER, lipids from SER) into transport vesicles bound for the Golgi. Glycosylation of proteins is an RER role, while Ca²⁺ storage, detoxification and steroid synthesis are SER roles.
4
Answer 2 The nuclear lamina is a meshwork of intermediate-filament proteins that supports the envelope and anchors chromatin. Stalked particles are on the inner mitochondrial membrane, chloroplast DNA and ribosomes are in the stroma, cellulose is made at the plasma membrane, and glyoxysomes convert fats to sugars.
5
Answer 5 Above the optimum, hydrogen and other weak bonds break and the active site changes shape (denaturation). Competitive inhibitors usually bind reversibly, coenzymes are non-protein organic molecules, and low temperature only slows activity without denaturing.
6
Answer 4 The chain contains protein complexes plus non-protein carriers such as ubiquinone and prosthetic groups. It lies in the inner membrane (cristae), O₂ is the final acceptor, and NIE values are about 2.5 ATP per NADH and 1.5 ATP per FADH₂.
7
Answer 3 The link reaction (decarboxylation) comes first, then substrate-level phosphorylation in the Krebs cycle, then oxidation of NADH/FADH₂ in the ETC. Oxidative phosphorylation is last because it needs the proton gradient made by the ETC.
8
Answer 2 Plants colonised land and amphibians arose in the Palaeozoic. Dinosaurs dominated and flowering plants appeared in the Mesozoic, and humans appeared in the Cenozoic. The trap is placing flowering plants or amphibians in the wrong era.
9
Answer 5 Protista groups together eukaryotes that are not plants, animals or fungi. Its members belong to unrelated lineages, so it is artificial. The other groups each share a common ancestry.
10
Answer 4 Dolphins and elephants both belong to class Mammalia, the lowest shared taxon of any pair. Archaea and Bacteria are separate domains, sharks and frogs are different classes, and the other pairs are different phyla.
11
Answer 4 Selaginella (spike moss) is heterosporous, while club mosses such as Lycopodium are homosporous. Most ferns are also homosporous. The trap is assuming that all lycophytes are heterosporous.
12
Answer 4 Feathers are unique to class Aves. Endothermy is shared by birds and mammals, paired fins by cartilaginous and bony fishes, and lungs and internal fertilisation occur in several classes.
13
Answer 3 Apical meristems drive primary growth, while lateral meristems (vascular and cork cambium) drive secondary growth. Meristematic cells are thin-walled with small vacuoles and a central nucleus, divide only by mitosis, and also occur laterally and at intercalary positions.
14
Answer 2 K⁺ uptake lowers guard-cell water potential, so water enters and the rise in turgor opens the pore. ABA and water loss from the guard cells both cause the stomata to close.
15
Answer 3 Passive, protein-mediated movement of polar solutes (and of water through aquaporins) down a gradient is facilitated diffusion. It is not active transport because no ATP is used.
16
Answer 3 Nitrogen is absorbed mainly as nitrate (and also as ammonium), and boron as borate (H₂BO₃⁻). Nitrite and N₂ gas are not the absorbed forms, and boron is not taken up as a free B³⁺ cation.
17
Answer 5 The nucellus is part of the ovule, which is sporophyte tissue, so it is 2n. Microspores, the generative cell and the cells of the embryo sac (synergids, antipodals) are haploid gametophytic stages.
18
Answer 1 Cytokinins promote cell division, ethylene promotes leaf senescence and abscission, and auxin from the apex maintains apical dominance. Cytokinins actually oppose apical dominance and delay senescence.
19
Answer 3 Support is a key function of connective tissue, but tensile strength comes from collagen fibres. Elastic fibres give stretch and recoil, so B is incorrect.
20
Answer 2 Most nutrients and ions are absorbed in the small intestine. Colon bacteria make vitamins B and K, and undigested matter is fermented in the cecum. Note the changed order compared with a simple 'vitamin–ion–fermentation' list.
21
Answer 3 A person makes antibodies against the antigens they lack. Group B has anti-A, group O has both anti-A and anti-B, and groups A and AB have no anti-A.
22
Answer 4 Lymph nodes are connective-tissue capsules full of lymphocytes and macrophages. Lymph has less protein than plasma, drains into the subclavian veins, is absorbed through lacteals in the villi, and its vessels have valves.
23
Answer 2 Antigen–antibody complexes activate the complement system. Epitopes are on antigens (antibodies have antigen-binding sites), passive transfer gives no memory, phagocytes do the engulfing, and plasma cells secrete antibodies.
24
Answer 2 The medulla oblongata holds the cardiovascular centre (and the respiratory centre). The hypothalamus controls temperature and homeostasis, not the heartbeat directly.
25
Answer 4 Parasympathetic ('rest and digest') stimulation constricts the pupil and increases peristalsis. Bronchodilation is a sympathetic response.
26
Answer 3 Olfactory receptors adapt rapidly. Taste receptors are modified epithelial cells, Pacinian corpuscles sense pressure and vibration, rods are more light-sensitive than cones, and the semicircular canals detect rotation.
27
Answer 4 Prolactin acts directly on the mammary glands, so it is non-tropic. TSH and LH are tropic hormones, and oxytocin and ADH are released from the posterior pituitary.
28
Answer 4 Sperm mature and are stored in the epididymis. Sperm are produced in the seminiferous tubules, and the accessory glands only secrete seminal fluid.
29
Answer 5 Progesterone from the corpus luteum drives the secretory phase of the endometrium, so the two phases run together. Follicles are in the cortex, oogenesis begins before birth, the ovulated secondary oocyte is arrested at metaphase II, and implantation is at the blastocyst stage.
30
Answer 2 Breast milk supplies IgA and white blood cells, giving passive immunity. Prolactin drives synthesis (oxytocin drives let-down), falling oestrogen and progesterone after birth allow lactation, colostrum is lower in lactose, and sodium is low.
31
Answer 2 After attachment, the power stroke releases ADP and Pi. A new ATP then binds and detaches the head, and hydrolysis of that ATP re-cocks it for the next cycle. The trap is putting hydrolysis before detachment.
32
Answer 4 Males are hemizygous, so a single recessive X allele is expressed. Fathers pass their X only to daughters, mothers pass X to both sexes, and heterozygous females are usually unaffected carriers.
33
Answer 3 In both incomplete dominance and codominance the heterozygote has its own phenotype, so phenotype and genotype ratios are both 1:2:1. Telling them apart needs a description of the heterozygote's phenotype.
34
Answer 1 A point mutation in a proto-oncogene or tumour-suppressor gene can lead to cancer. Many point mutations are silent, most are not lethal, some do alter protein function, and none change chromosome number.
35
Answer 2 Golden rice, the recombinant hepatitis B vaccine and ringspot-resistant papaya are all genetically engineered. Each other set contains one product of tissue culture, cloning, triploidy or polyploidy.
36
Answer 2 Secondary consumers (eat herbivores) are the frog, shrew, snake and wild cat, giving 4. Tertiary consumers (eat secondary consumers) are the snake (eats frogs) and the owl (eats shrews and snakes), giving 2. The trap: one organism can belong to two trophic levels, and the owl eats no herbivore.
37
Answer 1 Lantana is an invasive alien, the junglefowl is endemic, Na is indigenous (native but also found outside Sri Lanka) and tea is an introduced exotic crop. The trap is confusing indigenous with endemic.
38
Answer 3 Bacteria and unicellular (including colonial unicellular) cyanobacteria divide by simple fission. Filamentous fungi reproduce by spores, and filamentous cyanobacteria by fragmentation or hormogonia. The original key was low-confidence.
39
Answer 5 E. coli is a facultative anaerobic, Gram-negative rod of the normal gut flora that acts as an opportunistic pathogen. It produces vitamin K (not E), and yoghurt uses lactic acid bacteria.
40
Answer 1 Roses are commonly budded, and bougainvillea is grown from stem cuttings. Anthurium is propagated by separating suckers (or tissue culture), not leaf cuttings, and orchids by division or tissue culture, not grafting.
41
Answer 2 A runs molecule, organelle, cell, tissue, organ, and C runs organ system, organism, population, community, ecosystem. B skips the organelle level, and D skips the tissue and organ-system levels. The original key was low-confidence.
42
Answer 2 Tracheids are dead, lignified, tapering cells that conduct water in all vascular plants, including ferns and lycophytes. They have no cytoplasm at maturity, and bryophytes such as mosses lack them.
43
Answer 2 Thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin, and heparin blocks conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. Prothrombin is a plasma protein made in the liver, Ca²⁺ is essential for clotting, and fibrin forms from plasma fibrinogen.
44
Answer 1 Insects excrete uric acid, aquatic tadpoles excrete ammonia and mammals excrete urea. Adult amphibians switch to urea, and freshwater bony fishes excrete ammonia.
45
Answer 1 The frontal bone forms the forehead and orbit roofs, all 12 rib pairs articulate with thoracic vertebrae, and the first carpometacarpal saddle joint allows precision grip. The lumbar curve is secondary (it develops when the child walks), and foot arches work during movement as well as standing.
46
Answer 1 The core holds the supercoiled loops and links the nucleoid to the membrane, so each domain can be relaxed without uncoiling the whole chromosome. It does not position ribosomes. The original key was low-confidence.
47
Answer 1 A: mangrove, then dry mixed evergreen forest, then lowland rain forest. B: salt marsh, then arid thorn scrub, then savanna. D: dry mixed evergreen forest, then lowland rain forest, then montane forest. C runs in decreasing altitude, and E ends in arid lowland scrub.
48
Answer 2 A. niger makes citric acid, Bt toxin is a biopesticide and engineered E. coli makes insulin. Vinegar is made by Acetobacter, and penicillin comes from Penicillium (S. griseus yields streptomycin).
49
Answer 1 Vibrio (cholera), Shigella (bacillary dysentery) and Salmonella (typhoid) spread through both contaminated water and food. Clostridium botulinum and Bacillus cereus are mainly food-poisoning agents.
50
Answer 1 Air stones, plant pruning and removing debris from under the filter plate are monthly jobs. Algae scraping is weekly and temperature checks are daily. The original key was low-confidence.

Paper II — marking points

5
  1. Meiosis I is the reduction division: one diploid (2n) nucleus gives two haploid (n) nuclei
  2. Preceded by interphase in which DNA replicates, so each chromosome has two sister chromatids
  3. Prophase I – leptotene: chromatin condenses into long thin threads
  4. Zygotene: homologous chromosomes pair (synapsis) via the synaptonemal complex forming bivalents
  5. Pachytene: chromosomes shorten and thicken, and each bivalent forms a tetrad (4 chromatids)
  6. Diplotene: homologues begin to separate but stay joined at chiasmata, where crossing over has exchanged segments between non-sister chromatids
  7. Diakinesis: further condensation, chiasmata terminalise, nucleolus and nuclear envelope disappear, spindle forms (centrioles move to poles in animals)
  8. Metaphase I: bivalents line up on the equatorial plate, with spindle fibres from opposite poles attached to the kinetochores of each homologue
  9. Random (independent) orientation of bivalents leads to independent assortment
  10. Anaphase I: homologous chromosomes (each still with two chromatids) separate and move to opposite poles, while centromeres do not split
  11. Telophase I: chromosomes reach poles, nuclear envelopes and nucleoli may re-form, giving two haploid nuclei, usually followed by cytokinesis
  12. Significance: halves chromosome number, keeping it constant across generations, and crossing over plus independent assortment generate genetic variation
  13. A labelled diagram of the stages is expected
6
  1. Secondary growth is an increase in girth from lateral meristems: vascular cambium and cork cambium
  2. Fascicular cambium lies between primary xylem and phloem in each vascular bundle
  3. Parenchyma of medullary rays between bundles becomes meristematic (interfascicular cambium), joining with fascicular cambium into a complete cambial ring
  4. Cambium has fusiform initials (give tracheids, vessels, fibres, sieve tubes, companion cells) and ray initials (give vascular rays)
  5. Cambium divides periclinally, adding secondary xylem inward and secondary phloem outward, with more xylem produced than phloem
  6. Primary phloem is crushed outward, while primary xylem stays next to the pith
  7. Cambium also divides anticlinally to increase its circumference
  8. Vascular rays carry water and nutrients radially and store food
  9. Seasonal activity produces early (spring) and late (autumn) wood forming annual rings, whose count gives tree age
  10. Older central xylem becomes non-functional heartwood (with tannins, resins) and the outer functional part is sapwood
  11. Cork cambium (phellogen) arises in cortex, producing cork (phellem) outward and phelloderm inward, forming the periderm
  12. Cork cells become suberised and dead, replacing the epidermis for protection, with lenticels for gas exchange
  13. Bark = all tissues outside the vascular cambium (secondary phloem + periderm)
7a
  1. Bacteria are prokaryotic with no nuclear envelope (nucleoid region), while Eukarya have a membrane-bound nucleus
  2. Bacteria lack membrane-bound organelles (mitochondria, ER, Golgi, chloroplasts), which Eukarya have
  3. Bacterial ribosomes are 70S, eukaryotic cytoplasmic ribosomes 80S
  4. Bacterial cell wall contains peptidoglycan, while eukaryotic walls (if present) are cellulose or chitin
  5. Bacteria have a single circular chromosome plus plasmids, while Eukarya have several linear chromosomes
  6. Bacterial DNA is not associated with histones, while eukaryotic DNA is wrapped round histones
  7. Bacteria have one simple RNA polymerase, while Eukarya have several complex RNA polymerases
  8. Bacteria lack introns (generally), while eukaryotic genes commonly have introns
  9. Bacterial protein synthesis starts with formyl-methionine, eukaryotic with methionine
  10. Bacterial growth is inhibited by streptomycin/chloramphenicol, unlike Eukarya
  11. Bacterial flagella are made of flagellin with no 9+2 microtubule arrangement
  12. Bacteria have no cytoskeleton of microtubules, no mitosis or meiosis (binary fission), and are mostly unicellular and smaller (1–10 µm vs 10–100 µm)
7b
  1. A vaccine is a preparation of antigenic material that induces active artificial immunity and immunological memory without causing disease
  2. Live attenuated vaccines use weakened live pathogens, e.g. BCG, oral polio (OPV), MMR, giving strong long-lasting immunity
  3. Inactivated (killed) vaccines use pathogens killed by heat or chemicals, e.g. inactivated polio (IPV), rabies, whooping cough (whole-cell pertussis)
  4. Toxoid vaccines use inactivated toxins, e.g. tetanus and diphtheria toxoids
  5. Subunit vaccines use purified antigenic parts, e.g. acellular pertussis, HPV
  6. Recombinant vaccines express antigen genes in yeast/bacteria, e.g. Hepatitis B surface antigen vaccine
  7. Conjugate vaccines link polysaccharide antigens to a protein carrier, e.g. Hib and pneumococcal vaccines
  8. Newer mRNA/viral vector vaccines, e.g. COVID-19 vaccines
  9. Vaccines are given by injection or orally, often as boosters, and are included in Sri Lanka's national Expanded Programme on Immunization (EPI)
  10. Mass vaccination gives herd immunity and has led to eradication of smallpox and control of polio, measles, diphtheria etc.
  11. Limitations: cold chain needed, booster doses, rare adverse reactions, attenuated forms may revert
8a
  1. Bowman's capsule surrounding the glomerulus (together = renal corpuscle) located in the cortex
  2. Afferent arteriole (wider) entering and efferent arteriole (narrower) leaving the glomerulus
  3. Proximal convoluted tubule in the cortex
  4. Loop of Henle with descending limb and ascending limb (thin and thick segments) in the medulla
  5. Distal convoluted tubule in the cortex, close to the glomerulus
  6. Collecting duct receiving several DCTs, running through the medulla to the renal pelvis
  7. Peritubular capillaries around the PCT and DCT, formed from the efferent arteriole
  8. Vasa recta running parallel to the loop of Henle
  9. Branch of renal artery (interlobular artery) supplying the afferent arteriole and venule/branch of renal vein draining capillaries
  10. Labels showing cortex and medulla regions
8b
  1. Three stages: glomerular (ultra)filtration, selective reabsorption and tubular secretion, followed by concentration of urine
  2. Filtration: high glomerular pressure (narrow efferent arteriole) forces plasma through fenestrated capillary endothelium, basement membrane and podocyte filtration slits
  3. Filtrate contains water, glucose, amino acids, salts, urea, uric acid, but no blood cells or large plasma proteins (~180 L/day)
  4. PCT: reabsorbs ~all glucose and amino acids, most Na⁺, K⁺, Cl⁻, HCO₃⁻ and water (~65%), aided by microvilli and mitochondria
  5. PCT secretes H⁺, NH₃ and drugs/toxins, which helps regulate pH
  6. Descending limb is permeable to water but not salt, so water leaves into the hyperosmotic medulla
  7. Ascending limb is impermeable to water; NaCl moves out passively (thin) and is actively pumped out (thick), which maintains the medullary osmotic gradient (countercurrent)
  8. Vasa recta keeps the medullary gradient and returns reabsorbed water and solutes
  9. DCT: regulated reabsorption of Na⁺ (aldosterone) and secretion of K⁺, H⁺, and Ca²⁺ reabsorption (PTH)
  10. Collecting duct: ADH increases water permeability (aquaporins) so water is reabsorbed and concentrated urine forms, and some urea diffuses into the medulla
  11. Urine (water, urea, salts, creatinine, uric acid) passes through renal pelvis, ureter, bladder
9a
  1. Sperm has head, neck, middle piece and tail (flagellum), enclosed in plasma membrane
  2. Head: flattened oval, containing a haploid nucleus with condensed DNA, which carries the paternal genetic material to the zygote
  3. Acrosome: cap-like vesicle over the anterior head with hydrolytic enzymes (hyaluronidase, proteases), which penetrate the corona radiata and zona pellucida (acrosomal reaction)
  4. Neck: short region containing the proximal centriole, which forms the zygote's first mitotic spindle/centrosome
  5. Distal centriole forms the basal body giving rise to the axial filament of the tail
  6. Middle piece: spirally arranged mitochondria around the axial filament, producing ATP for movement
  7. Tail: long flagellum with 9+2 microtubule axoneme and outer sheath, whose whip-like beating propels the sperm
  8. Very little cytoplasm, making the sperm streamlined and light
9b
  1. Hypothalamus secretes GnRH into the hypophyseal portal system
  2. GnRH stimulates anterior pituitary to release FSH and LH
  3. LH (ICSH) stimulates Leydig (interstitial) cells to secrete testosterone
  4. FSH acts on Sertoli cells, stimulating them to support spermatogenesis and produce androgen-binding protein
  5. Testosterone, together with FSH, promotes spermatogenesis within seminiferous tubules
  6. Testosterone also maintains accessory glands and secondary sex characteristics
  7. Negative feedback: testosterone inhibits GnRH and LH (and FSH) secretion
  8. Sertoli cells secrete inhibin, which selectively inhibits FSH secretion by the anterior pituitary
  9. This feedback keeps sperm production and testosterone levels fairly constant
  10. At puberty increased GnRH initiates spermatogenesis
10a
  1. Reduces genetic diversity (genetic erosion) because a few uniform varieties replace many local landraces
  2. Uniform crops are vulnerable to new pests/diseases, so epidemics can destroy whole crops
  3. Time consuming, often taking many generations/years, and costly
  4. Hybrid vigour is lost in later generations, so new hybrid seed must be bought each season
  5. Inbreeding can expose harmful recessive alleles (inbreeding depression)
  6. Undesirable traits can be transferred along with desired genes (linkage drag)
  7. Improved varieties often need high inputs of fertiliser, pesticides and irrigation, causing environmental pollution
  8. Limited to sexually compatible species/varieties
  9. Farmers become dependent on seed companies, and traditional varieties are lost
10b
  1. Short DNA segments made on the lagging strand during DNA replication (~1000–2000 nucleotides in prokaryotes, 100–200 in eukaryotes)
  2. Arise because DNA polymerase adds nucleotides only to the 3′ end (5′→3′ synthesis) and the strands are antiparallel
  3. Lagging strand is synthesised discontinuously, away from the replication fork
  4. Helicase unwinds DNA, single-strand binding proteins stabilise, and topoisomerase relieves strain
  5. Primase synthesises a short RNA primer for each fragment
  6. DNA polymerase III extends each primer 5′→3′ until it reaches the previous fragment
  7. DNA polymerase I removes the RNA primer and replaces it with DNA
  8. DNA ligase joins adjacent fragments by forming phosphodiester bonds
  9. In contrast the leading strand is made continuously, needing only one primer
10c
  1. Deserts have low and erratic rainfall, high temperature and intense light
  2. Xerophytes: reduced leaves or leaves modified as spines (e.g. Opuntia), which reduce transpiration
  3. Thick waxy cuticle and multiple epidermis
  4. Sunken stomata, fewer stomata, hairs trapping humid air
  5. Succulent stems/leaves storing water in mucilaginous parenchyma (cacti, Aloe)
  6. Photosynthetic stems (phylloclades/cladodes)
  7. Extensive shallow roots to absorb brief rain, or very deep tap roots reaching groundwater
  8. CAM photosynthesis: stomata open at night, storing CO₂ as malic acid, which conserves water
  9. Rolled leaves (e.g. some grasses) reducing exposed surface
  10. Ephemerals (short-lived annuals) complete life cycle quickly after rain and survive as drought-resistant seeds
  11. Some shed leaves during drought, with dormant buds

Scan notes: All 50 Paper I MCQs were legible (figures for Q31 and Q36 read from page images). Paper II Part A (structured Q1–4) is not in the file. All six Part B essay questions (5–10) were legible on page 10. The subtopic coding file labels the essays 5a,5b,6a,6b,8a,... (omitting Q7), but the paper itself numbers them Q5 (meiosis I), Q6 (secondary growth), Q7(a) Bacteria vs Eukarya, Q7(b) vaccines, Q8(a)(b), Q9(a)(b), Q10(a)(b)(c). The paper's numbering is used here. Low-confidence keys: Q38, Q41, Q46, Q50.

2023 (2024)

G.C.E. (Advanced Level) — Biology

Current syllabus (2019 onward) · Re-set practice paper

Paper I50 MCQs · 2 hoursAnswer all. Choose the one correct or most suitable option.
Paper II13 parts in this booklet · 3 hoursPart A: answer all structured questions. Part B: answer four essays.

Every question tests the same concept as question of the same number in the 2023 (2024) paper, re-written by MEDVision. Source coverage: Paper I + Paper II essays only (Part A not in file).

2023 (2024) · Paper IMultiple choice
1.

Which property is shared by both lysosomes and peroxisomes in an animal cell?

  1. 1Each contains catalase that breaks down hydrogen peroxide
  2. 2Each takes part in the glycolate pathway of photorespiration
  3. 3Each is bounded by a single membrane
  4. 4Each digests worn-out mitochondria by autophagy
  5. 5Each releases its residues from the cell by exocytosis
U2 · Cell organelles & structure
2.

Some non-living systems such as growing crystals or eroding rocks can show certain features usually linked with life. Which pair of features is found ONLY in living organisms?

  1. 1Growth and movement
  2. 2Increase in size and change over time
  3. 3Formation and breakdown of compounds
  4. 4Metabolism and inheritance of genetic information
  5. 5Movement and change in shape
U1 · Characteristics of life & levels of organisation
3.

A researcher wants to study ribosome distribution in liver cells using a transmission electron microscope (TEM). Which statement about the TEM is correct?

  1. 1It gives a three-dimensional view of the specimen surface
  2. 2Living cells cannot be examined because specimens are fixed, sectioned and viewed in a vacuum
  3. 3Heavily stained structures let more electrons pass and appear bright
  4. 4It focuses beams of light with glass lenses
  5. 5Its resolving power is lower than that of a compound light microscope
U2 · Microscopy
4.

Which of the following correctly pairs an event of the eukaryotic cell cycle with the phase in which it occurs?

  1. 1Replication of DNA — G₁ phase
  2. 2Duplication of the centrosome — M phase
  3. 3Synthesis of proteins needed for division — G₂ phase
  4. 4Formation of new organelles — S phase
  5. 5Separation of sister chromatids — G₂ phase
U2 · Cell cycle, mitosis & meiosis
5.

Phosphofructokinase is an enzyme regulated allosterically. Which statement about allosteric regulation is correct?

  1. 1Regulators bind permanently to the active site by covalent bonds
  2. 2An activator bound to one subunit changes the active site of that subunit only
  3. 3Regulators attach to a site away from the active site through weak non-covalent interactions
  4. 4Inhibitors reduce activity without altering the enzyme's shape
  5. 5A high level of ATP activates phosphofructokinase
U2 · Enzymes
6.

Yeast cells in a sealed bread dough carry out ethanol fermentation. For each molecule of glucose used in this process,

  1. 1one pyruvate and two NADH are formed
  2. 2pyruvate accepts hydrogen from NADH directly to form ethanol
  3. 3only one molecule of CO₂ is released
  4. 4the final hydrogen acceptor is an inorganic substance
  5. 5a net total of two ATP is produced
U2 · Cellular respiration & fermentation
7.

Which statement about the breakdown of one glucose molecule by glycolysis is correct?

  1. 1A net gain of four ATP results
  2. 2Some of its steps require molecular oxygen
  3. 3Two molecules of NADH are produced
  4. 4Some of its reactions occur on the outer mitochondrial membrane
  5. 5Two molecules of CO₂ are released
U2 · Cellular respiration & fermentation
8.

The following events are linked with the rise of oxygen on the early Earth.
P – Rise in the numbers of photosynthetic prokaryotes
Q – Appearance of cyanobacteria
R – Oxidation of dissolved Fe²⁺ and its precipitation as iron oxide
S – Saturation of oceans and lakes with oxygen
Which sequence agrees with the official A/L account?

  1. 1P, S, R, Q
  2. 2P, R, S, Q
  3. 3Q, S, R, P
  4. 4Q, R, S, P
  5. 5S, R, P, Q
U3 · Origin of life & evolution
9.

Which of the following pairs of organisms would share the greatest number of characteristics?

  1. 1Shark and tuna
  2. 2Spider and crab
  3. 3Selaginella and Nephrolepis
  4. 4Frog and Ichthyophis
  5. 5Bat and owl
U3 · Classification & taxonomy
10.

Consider the following features of animals.
A – Radula
B – Hermaphroditism
C – Parapodia
D – Coelom
Which of these are each restricted to a single animal phylum?

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2A and C only
  3. 3B and C only
  4. 4B and D only
  5. 5C and D only
U3 · Animal diversity
11.

Which statement about the vascular tissues of plants is correct?

  1. 1Vessel elements are narrow cells with tapering ends
  2. 2Tracheids give support to the stems of mosses such as Pogonatum
  3. 3Companion cells accompany the sieve cells of Cycas
  4. 4Tracheids are the main water-conducting cells in the xylem of ferns such as Nephrolepis
  5. 5Adjacent sieve-tube elements are linked by bordered pits
U4 · Plant tissues & anatomy
12.

Three plant structures and three functions are listed.
Structures: X – Hydathodes; Y – Lenticels; Z – Stomata
Functions: P – Exudation of liquid water droplets from leaf margins; Q – Loss of water vapour through the bark of woody stems; R – Main route of CO₂ uptake for photosynthesis
Which response matches every structure with its correct function?

  1. 1X–Q, Y–P, Z–R
  2. 2X–R, Y–Q, Z–P
  3. 3X–P, Y–R, Z–Q
  4. 4X–P, Y–Q, Z–R
  5. 5X–Q, Y–R, Z–P
U4 · Water relations & transport
13.

Dry bean seeds swell when soaked because water molecules adhere to hydrophilic colloids such as cellulose, pectin and proteins. This process is called

  1. 1osmosis.
  2. 2imbibition.
  3. 3facilitated diffusion.
  4. 4active transport.
  5. 5guttation.
U4 · Water relations & transport
14.

The following steps occur when stomata open and later close.
A – The pore closes
B – Water enters the guard cells
C – The guard cells swell
D – The thickened inner walls bow away from each other
E – The pore opens
F – Turgor of the guard cells falls
Which is the correct sequence?

  1. 1B, D, C, E, F, A
  2. 2B, C, D, E, F, A
  3. 3B, C, E, D, F, A
  4. 4F, B, C, D, E, A
  5. 5B, F, C, D, E, A
U4 · Water relations & transport
15.

A macronutrient and a micronutrient whose deficiencies both cause chlorosis are, respectively,

  1. 1Fe and Mn.
  2. 2N and S.
  3. 3Mg and Fe.
  4. 4Mn and Mg.
  5. 5Ca and B.
U4 · Plant nutrition
16.

A nursery worker wants stem cuttings to form roots quickly. Which two plant hormones promote root formation?

  1. 1Gibberellins and cytokinins
  2. 2Abscisic acid and cytokinins
  3. 3Auxin and cytokinins
  4. 4Auxin and ethylene
  5. 5Ethylene and gibberellins
U4 · Plant hormones & responses
17.

Which statement about epithelial tissues is correct?

  1. 1Stratified squamous epithelium of the alveoli allows rapid gas exchange
  2. 2Pseudostratified columnar epithelium is a compound (stratified) epithelium
  3. 3Simple cuboidal epithelium lines kidney tubules and salivary gland ducts
  4. 4The nasal cavity is lined by simple columnar epithelium
  5. 5Simple squamous epithelium prevents the exchange of substances
U5 · Animal tissues
18.

Three types of symbiosis and examples are given.
A – Mutualism: cattle egret and cattle
B – Parasitism: humans and Planaria
C – Commensalism: Rhizobium and a legume
Which of these is/are correctly matched?

  1. 1A only
  2. 2B only
  3. 3C only
  4. 4A and B only
  5. 5A and C only
U8 · Populations & ecological interactions
19.

In which pair(s) does an increase in (i) lead to an increase in (ii)?
X – (i) Distension of the stomach wall; (ii) Gastrin secretion
Y – (i) Fat in the chyme entering the duodenum; (ii) Gastric motility and secretion
Z – (i) Amino acids and peptides in duodenal chyme; (ii) Rate of stomach emptying

  1. 1X only
  2. 2Y only
  3. 3Z only
  4. 4X and Y only
  5. 5X and Z only
U5 · Digestion & nutrition
20.

Deoxygenated blood returning from the body passes through the heart and lungs and finally leaves the heart through the aortic valve. Which sequence correctly traces its path?

  1. 1Left atrium, bicuspid valve, left ventricle, pulmonary valve, lungs, right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle
  2. 2Right atrium, bicuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonary valve, lungs, left atrium, tricuspid valve, left ventricle
  3. 3Right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonary valve, lungs, left atrium, bicuspid valve, left ventricle
  4. 4Right ventricle, tricuspid valve, right atrium, pulmonary valve, lungs, left ventricle, bicuspid valve, left atrium
  5. 5Right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, aortic valve, lungs, left atrium, bicuspid valve, left ventricle
U5 · Circulation & blood
21.

Carbon dioxide is carried in human blood in three forms. Which response gives the form carrying the LARGEST share and the form carrying the SMALLEST share, in that order?

  1. 1Hydrogencarbonate ions — dissolved CO₂ in plasma
  2. 2Carbaminohaemoglobin — dissolved CO₂ in plasma
  3. 3Hydrogencarbonate ions — carbaminohaemoglobin
  4. 4Dissolved CO₂ in plasma — hydrogencarbonate ions
  5. 5Carbaminohaemoglobin — hydrogencarbonate ions
U5 · Gas exchange
22.

A student's spirometer readings are: tidal volume 450 mL, inspiratory reserve volume 3000 mL, expiratory reserve volume 1200 mL and residual volume 1300 mL. What is the student's vital capacity?

  1. 11650 mL
  2. 22500 mL
  3. 33450 mL
  4. 44650 mL
  5. 55950 mL
U5 · Gas exchange
23.

Stimulation by the parasympathetic division of the human autonomic nervous system causes

  1. 1dilation of the pupil.
  2. 2breakdown of liver glycogen to glucose.
  3. 3inhibition of saliva secretion.
  4. 4constriction of the bronchi.
  5. 5an increase in heart rate.
U5 · Nervous system
24.

Which statement about human vision is correct?

  1. 1Both eyes converge when viewing a distant object
  2. 2Contraction of the ciliary muscles makes the lens more convex for focusing on near objects
  3. 3Rods contain photopsins and give colour vision
  4. 4Visual images are interpreted in the frontal lobe
  5. 5The cornea changes its curvature to focus on near objects
U5 · Sense organs
25.

Which hormone is correctly paired with one of its functions?

  1. 1Oxytocin — synthesis of milk in the mammary glands
  2. 2ACTH — secretion of adrenaline from the adrenal medulla
  3. 3Calcitonin — raising blood calcium level
  4. 4Melatonin — raising basal metabolic rate
  5. 5Cholecystokinin — secretion of pancreatic digestive enzymes and contraction of the gall bladder
U5 · Endocrine system
26.

Which statement about spermatogenesis in humans is correct?

  1. 1It begins in fetal life and continues without a break
  2. 2Sertoli cells secrete testosterone
  3. 3Spermatogonia multiply by mitosis, and some enlarge to form primary spermatocytes
  4. 4Leydig cells nourish developing spermatids inside the seminiferous tubules
  5. 5Sperm cells are the only haploid cells formed in the process
U5 · Reproduction & development
27.

Which statement about early human development is correct?

  1. 1Implantation begins within 24 hours of fertilisation
  2. 2The placenta is formed entirely from embryonic tissue
  3. 3Before the placenta is established, the embryo is nourished by secretions of the endometrial glands
  4. 4The fetal heart begins to beat at about 10 weeks
  5. 5The sperm enters an ovum that has already completed meiosis II
U5 · Reproduction & development
28.

Which statement about the human axial skeleton is correct?

  1. 1The sacrum is formed by fusion of four vertebrae
  2. 2Ribs 8, 9 and 10 connect to the sternum through the costal cartilage of the rib above
  3. 3Paranasal sinuses are located in the temporal and nasal bones
  4. 4The zygomatic arch anchors muscles that move the maxilla
  5. 5An infant can hold its head upright only after the lumbar curve develops
U5 · Skeleton, muscle & movement
29.

Excluding the femur and the patella, how many bones are present in one human lower limb?

  1. 126
  2. 227
  3. 328
  4. 429
  5. 530
U5 · Skeleton, muscle & movement
30.

Two pea plants, each heterozygous for two independently assorting genes (AaBb), are crossed. How many different genotypes are expected among the offspring?

  1. 13
  2. 24
  3. 38
  4. 49
  5. 516
U6 · Mendelian inheritance
31.

A man homozygous for blood group A marries a woman who is heterozygous for blood group B. Which blood groups are possible among their children?

  1. 1A and AB
  2. 2AB and B
  3. 3A and B
  4. 4AB and O
  5. 5A, B, AB and O
U6 · Extensions of Mendelian genetics
32.

Consider the following human disorders.
A – Klinefelter syndrome
B – Sickle-cell anaemia
C – Down syndrome
D – Haemophilia
Which are caused by gene (point) mutations?

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2B and C only
  3. 3B and D only
  4. 4A, C and D only
  5. 5C and D only
U6 · Human genetics & disorders
33.

A student isolates DNA from onion tissue. The steps are listed out of order.
P – Precipitate the DNA with ice-cold ethanol
Q – Remove proteins and RNA
R – Homogenise the tissue
S – Add EDTA to inhibit DNases
T – Dissociate nucleoprotein complexes with detergent/protease
Which is the correct sequence?

  1. 1R, T, S, Q, P
  2. 2S, R, T, Q, P
  3. 3R, S, T, Q, P
  4. 4R, S, Q, T, P
  5. 5T, R, S, P, Q
U7 · rDNA tools & techniques
34.

A traveller moves due north overland from Sri Lanka toward the Arctic Ocean. Which sequence of biomes would be crossed?

  1. 1Tropical forest, desert, temperate grassland, northern coniferous forest, tundra
  2. 2Tropical forest, chaparral, temperate broadleaf forest, northern coniferous forest, tundra
  3. 3Savanna, desert, chaparral, temperate grassland, tundra
  4. 4Tropical forest, temperate grassland, desert, tundra, northern coniferous forest
  5. 5Savanna, chaparral, desert, northern coniferous forest, tundra
U8 · Biomes & Sri Lankan ecosystems
35.

Which pair consists only of invasive alien plant species in Sri Lanka?

  1. 1Salvinia molesta and Cymbopogon nardus
  2. 2Themeda tremula and Lantana camara
  3. 3Imperata cylindrica and Chrysopogon nodulibarbis
  4. 4Salvinia molesta and Prosopis juliflora
  5. 5Arundinella villosa and water hyacinth
U8 · Biodiversity & conservation
36.

Consider these statements.
A – Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease of humans is caused by prions.
B – Viroids are short, circular RNA molecules with no protein coat.
C – Viroids carry genes that code for their own capsid proteins.
D – Prions replicate by copying their nucleic acid with host enzymes.
Which are correct?

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2A and C only
  3. 3A and D only
  4. 4B and C only
  5. 5B and D only
U9 · Microbial diversity & structure
37.

Which statement about bacterial toxins is correct?

  1. 1Endotoxins are easily destroyed by boiling
  2. 2Endotoxins are released mainly by Gram-positive bacteria
  3. 3Exotoxins are proteins secreted by both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria
  4. 4Endotoxins of different species produce clearly different symptoms
  5. 5Diphtheria toxin acts on the intestine as an enterotoxin
U9 · Microbes & disease
38.

Which microorganism–product pair used in industry is correct?

  1. 1Aspergillus oryzae — citric acid
  2. 2Streptomyces griseus — tetracycline
  3. 3Saccharomyces cerevisiae — invertase
  4. 4Penicillium chrysogenum — streptomycin
  5. 5Acetobacter aceti — ethanol
U9 · Industrial & food microbiology
39.

A hobbyist wants ornamental fish in a home aquarium to stay healthy and disease-resistant. Which practice best helps keep their immunity high?

  1. 1Draining and refilling the whole tank every two weeks
  2. 2Switching off the air pump every night
  3. 3Keeping the tank lights on 24 hours a day
  4. 4Keeping a suitable number of compatible fish together with aquatic plants
  5. 5Adding new fish directly without quarantine
U10 · Aquaculture & animal production
40.

Consider these statements about genome projects.
A – The human genome contains about 3 × 10⁹ base pairs.
B – The Human Genome Project is still in progress and has released no complete sequence.
C – Human Genome Project data have helped describe molecular activities in human cells.
D – The complete genome of Escherichia coli has been sequenced.
Which are correct?

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2B and C only
  3. 3A, C and D only
  4. 4B, C and D only
  5. 5C and D only
U7 · rDNA tools & techniques
41.

Consider these statements about nucleotide coenzymes.
A – NAD⁺ accepts electrons and so acts as an oxidising agent.
B – Oxidised FAD acts as a reducing agent.
C – NADP⁺ is a coenzyme that acts as an electron carrier.
D – NADP⁺ acts as an oxidising agent in the light reactions.
E – NAD⁺ acts as a reducing agent in respiration.
Which of the statements are correct?

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5Some other response or combination
U2 · Biomolecules & water
42.

Consider these statements about fungi.
A – Zygomycetes such as Rhizopus have coenocytic hyphae.
B – Some chytrids are unicellular.
C – Ascomycota includes unicellular yeasts as well as multicellular forms.
D – Basidiomycetes produce flagellated spores.
E – Chytrids are the only fungi that lack flagellated cells.
Which of the statements are correct?

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5Some other response or combination
U3 · Prokaryotes, protists & fungi
43.

Consider these statements about kingdom Plantae.
A – The gametophyte becomes progressively reduced from bryophytes to seed plants.
B – Roots of living vascular plants resemble the stems of early vascular plants.
C – The charophyte ancestors of plants already had all the key traits of land plants.
D – Land plants evolved from brown algae.
E – Liverworts are more closely related to hornworts than to mosses.
Which of the statements are correct?

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5Some other response or combination
U3 · Plant diversity
44.

Consider these statements about plant life cycles.
A – In Pogonatum the photosynthetic gametophyte is the dominant generation.
B – In Selaginella the sporophyte is dominant and photosynthetic.
C – The female gametophyte of Cycas is free-living.
D – The gametophyte of Selaginella is reduced and partly depends on the sporophyte.
E – The prothallus of Nephrolepis depends on the sporophyte for nutrition.
Which of the statements are correct?

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5Some other response or combination
U3 · Plant diversity
45.

Consider these statements about nitrogenous excretion.
A – Cells of human nephron tubules secrete ammonia into the tubular fluid.
B – Producing ammonia costs more energy than producing urea.
C – Land snails excrete mainly uric acid.
D – Sharks excrete mainly urea.
E – Uric acid is more toxic than urea.
Which of the statements are correct?

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5Some other response or combination
U5 · Excretion & osmoregulation
46.

Consider these statements about the human brain.
A – The two lateral ventricles and the third ventricle lie in the forebrain.
B – The pineal body develops from the embryonic midbrain.
C – The pons lies between the midbrain and the medulla oblongata.
D – The cerebral cortex is grey matter made mainly of neuron cell bodies.
E – The hypothalamus is connected to the anterior pituitary by nerve fibres.
Which of the statements are correct?

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5Some other response or combination
U5 · Nervous system
47.

Consider these statements about the amnion of the human embryo.
A – It shields the fetus from the mother's immune responses.
B – It contributes to the formation of the urinary bladder.
C – Its fluid prevents desiccation of the fetus.
D – Its fluid-filled cavity cushions the fetus against mechanical shock.
E – It is the source of primordial germ cells.
Which of the statements are correct?

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5Some other response or combination
U5 · Reproduction & development
48.

Consider these statements about transcription.
A – It starts when DNA polymerase attaches to the promoter.
B – In eukaryotes it occurs on ribosomes in the cytoplasm.
C – The DNA strands are separated by RNA polymerase without DNA helicase.
D – The RNA chain grows in the 5′ → 3′ direction.
E – It converts the codons of mRNA into a sequence of amino acids.
Which of the statements are correct?

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5Some other response or combination
U7 · Gene expression & regulation
49.

Consider these plant species.
A – Calophyllum walkeri
B – Mesua ferrea
C – Chrysopogon nodulibarbis
D – Cinnamomum ovalifolium
E – Terminalia chebula
Which are characteristic of the highest-altitude ecosystems (montane forests and grasslands) of Sri Lanka?

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5Some other response or combination
U8 · Biomes & Sri Lankan ecosystems
50.

Consider these statements about secondary treatment of industrial wastewater.
A – Microorganisms in trickling filters oxidise organic matter.
B – Suspended solids are allowed to settle in sedimentation tanks.
C – More than 75% of the organic matter is oxidised.
D – Methane is produced in the trickling filter.
E – The sludge left after treatment is decomposed aerobically.
Which of the statements are correct?

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5Some other response or combination
U9 · Environmental microbiology & waste treatment
2023 (2024) · Paper IIStructured & essay
5a
Part B · Essay

(a) Describe the linear (non-cyclic) flow of electrons in the thylakoid membranes during the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis. Include the roles of the two photosystems, photolysis of water, the electron transport chain and the formation of ATP and NADPH.

5b
Part B · Essay

(b) Explain why plants such as maize and sugar cane (C₄ plants) photosynthesise more efficiently than C₃ plants in hot, dry, brightly lit conditions.

6a
Part B · Essay

(a) Outline the features by which monocotyledonous and dicotyledonous flowering plants can be told apart, referring to the embryo, roots, leaves, flowers, pollen and stem anatomy.

6b
Part B · Essay

(b) Explain how water and dissolved minerals move radially across a root from the soil to the xylem along the apoplastic pathway, and the role of the endodermis in this process.

7a
Part B · Essay

(a) Describe the layers that make up the wall of the human heart and the main features of each layer.

7b
Part B · Essay

(b) Explain how the heart muscle receives its own blood supply and how this blood drains away. Discuss the causes and consequences of narrowing or blockage of the coronary arteries.

8a
Part B · Essay

(a) Explain how the human body keeps its blood glucose concentration within the normal range, referring to the hormones involved, their target organs and negative feedback.

8b
Part B · Essay

(b) Discuss the cause of type 1 diabetes mellitus and the measures used to control it.

9a
Part B · Essay

(a) Explain the levels by which DNA is packed into chromatin and chromosomes within the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell.

9b
Part B · Essay

(b) Describe how microorganisms are used in the production of vinegar and of dairy products such as curd, yoghurt and cheese.

10a
Part B · Essay

Write short notes on: (a) Polygenic inheritance

10b
Part B · Essay

Write short notes on: (b) Desertification

10c
Part B · Essay

Write short notes on: (c) Control of filariasis

2023 (2024) · Answers & reviewsOfficial key for the original paper

Answer key — this booklet

132432435365738194102114124132142153164173181191203211224234242255263273282293304311323333341354361373383394403412425433441452462474484492505

Answer key — original 2023 (2024) paper (official Department of Examinations key)

For students working from the original paper.

11243342526574829210311112313114215116317418119120221522423524325526327328129430Any314324335342355361373381395405412421/5433441452462474484494505

Paper I — reviews

1
Answer 3 Both are single-membrane vesicles. Catalase/oxidases and photorespiration belong to peroxisomes only, while autophagy of old organelles is a lysosome function only.
2
Answer 4 Metabolism and heredity (passing genetic information to offspring) are exclusive to life. Growth, movement, change with time and synthesis/breakdown can all be mimicked by non-living systems.
3
Answer 2 TEM needs fixed, dehydrated, ultra-thin sections in a vacuum, so live specimens cannot be viewed. 3-D surface images come from the SEM, and densely stained regions scatter electrons and look dark.
4
Answer 3 Proteins and organelles are made in the G phases (G₁ and G₂). DNA replicates in S phase, the centrosome duplicates in interphase, and chromatids separate in M phase (anaphase).
5
Answer 3 Allosteric regulators bind reversibly, by non-covalent bonds, to a regulatory site and change the enzyme's shape; effects spread to all subunits (cooperativity). ATP is an allosteric inhibitor of phosphofructokinase.
6
Answer 5 Only glycolysis yields ATP (net 2 per glucose). Pyruvate is first decarboxylated to acetaldehyde (2 CO₂ per glucose), and acetaldehyde, an organic molecule, is reduced by NADH to ethanol.
7
Answer 3 Glycolysis occurs in the cytosol without O₂, giving 2 NADH and a net 2 ATP (4 is the gross figure). No CO₂ is released in glycolysis.
8
Answer 1 The Department key places the increase of photosynthetic bacteria first, then O₂ saturating the water, then O₂ reacting with dissolved iron, and cyanobacteria last. Trap: many texts link early O₂ to cyanobacteria, but follow the official order here.
9
Answer 4 Frog and Ichthyophis both belong to class Amphibia, the lowest shared taxon of any pair. Shark/tuna and bat/owl are in different classes, spider/crab in different subphyla, and Selaginella/Nephrolepis in different phyla.
10
Answer 2 The radula is found only in Mollusca and parapodia only in Annelida (polychaetes). Hermaphroditism and a coelom occur in several phyla.
11
Answer 4 Fern xylem consists mainly of tracheids. Long tapering cells are tracheids, not vessel elements; bryophytes lack true vascular tissue; companion cells occur only in angiosperms; sieve-tube elements are joined by sieve plates.
12
Answer 4 Hydathodes release liquid water (guttation), lenticels allow lenticular transpiration through bark, and stomata are the main sites of gaseous exchange.
13
Answer 2 Imbibition is physical adsorption of water onto hydrophilic materials and needs no membrane. Osmosis requires a selectively permeable membrane.
14
Answer 2 Water uptake makes the guard cells swell, the thick inner walls bend apart and the pore opens; when turgor falls the pore closes. Trap: swelling must come before the walls bend.
15
Answer 3 Mg (macronutrient) is part of chlorophyll and Fe (micronutrient) is needed for chlorophyll synthesis; lack of either causes chlorosis. Fe–Mn are both micronutrients, N–S both macronutrients, and Mn–Mg is in the wrong order.
16
Answer 4 Auxin initiates adventitious and lateral roots, and ethylene also promotes adventitious roots and root hairs. Cytokinins and gibberellins tend to inhibit root initiation (a high auxin:cytokinin ratio favours roots).
17
Answer 3 Simple cuboidal epithelium lines kidney tubules and gland ducts. Pseudostratified epithelium is a single layer; the nasal passage has pseudostratified ciliated epithelium; simple squamous aids exchange while stratified squamous protects.
18
Answer 1 Cattle egret and cattle is the standard mutualism example. Planaria is free-living, not a human parasite, and Rhizobium–legume is mutualism, not commensalism.
19
Answer 1 Stretching of the stomach stimulates gastrin release. Fat and protein products in the duodenum trigger CCK/secretin, which slow gastric activity and emptying.
20
Answer 3 Systemic venous blood enters the right atrium, passes the tricuspid valve to the right ventricle and leaves via the pulmonary valve; it returns to the left atrium and passes the bicuspid valve to the left ventricle. Trap: tricuspid is on the right, bicuspid on the left.
21
Answer 1 About 70% of CO₂ travels as HCO₃⁻, about 23% as carbaminohaemoglobin and about 7% dissolved in plasma. Note the reversed order (largest first) in this question.
22
Answer 4 Vital capacity = TV + IRV + ERV = 450 + 3000 + 1200 = 4650 mL. Adding residual volume gives total lung capacity (5950 mL), a common trap.
23
Answer 4 Parasympathetic ('rest and digest') effects include bronchoconstriction, pupil constriction, salivation, slower heart rate and gall-bladder contraction. The other options are sympathetic effects.
24
Answer 2 Accommodation for near vision occurs as the ciliary muscles contract and the lens becomes more convex. Convergence is for near vision, photopsins are in cones, vision is perceived in the occipital lobe, and corneal power is fixed.
25
Answer 5 CCK stimulates pancreatic enzyme secretion (including amylase) and gall-bladder contraction. Prolactin makes milk (oxytocin ejects it), ACTH stimulates cortisol, calcitonin lowers blood Ca²⁺, and thyroxine raises BMR.
26
Answer 3 Spermatogonia divide mitotically and some grow into primary spermatocytes. Spermatogenesis starts at puberty, Leydig cells make testosterone, Sertoli cells support developing cells, and secondary spermatocytes and spermatids are also haploid.
27
Answer 3 Endometrial gland secretions nourish the early embryo. Implantation starts about a week after fertilisation, the placenta has fetal and maternal parts, the heart beats by about 4 weeks, and the sperm enters a secondary oocyte.
28
Answer 2 The three pairs of false ribs (8–10) join the sternum indirectly. The sacrum has 5 fused vertebrae, sinuses are in the frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid and maxillae, the zygomatic arch serves jaw (mandible) muscles, and head control comes with the cervical curve.
29
Answer 3 A lower limb has 30 bones: femur, patella, tibia, fibula, 7 tarsals, 5 metatarsals and 14 phalanges. Removing the femur and patella leaves 28.
30
Answer 4 Each gene gives 3 genotypes (AA, Aa, aa), so 3 × 3 = 9. 4 is the number of phenotypes and 16 the number of gamete combinations. The original item had no correct option, so all answers were accepted.
31
Answer 1 The man (IᴬIᴬ) gives only Iᴬ; the woman (Iᴮi) gives Iᴮ or i. Children are IᴬIᴮ (AB) or Iᴬi (A) in a 1:1 ratio.
32
Answer 3 Sickle-cell anaemia (base substitution in β-globin) and haemophilia (mutant X-linked clotting-factor allele) are gene mutations. Klinefelter (XXY) and Down syndrome (trisomy 21) are chromosomal aberrations.
33
Answer 3 Homogenise → inhibit DNases → break nucleoprotein complexes → remove contaminants → precipitate DNA. Precipitation is always the final step.
34
Answer 1 Going north from South Asia: tropical forest → desert (Thar/Central Asia) → temperate grassland (steppe) → taiga → tundra. Chaparral is a coastal mid-latitude biome not found on this line.
35
Answer 4 Salvinia and Prosopis juliflora are listed invasive aliens (as are Lantana and water hyacinth). Each distractor includes a native or naturalised grass (Cymbopogon, Themeda, Imperata, Chrysopogon, Arundinella).
36
Answer 1 Prions are misfolded proteins with no nucleic acid and cause CJD. Viroids are naked circular RNA that rely on host enzymes and have no capsid.
37
Answer 3 Exotoxins are secreted proteins from both Gram groups. Endotoxins are heat-stable LPS of the Gram-negative outer membrane and give similar general symptoms such as fever.
38
Answer 3 Invertase is produced commercially with S. cerevisiae. Citric acid comes from A. niger, tetracycline from S. aureofaciens, streptomycin from S. griseus, and Acetobacter oxidises ethanol to acetic acid.
39
Answer 4 Low stress keeps fish immunity high, and correct stocking density of compatible fish and plants keeps water quality and behaviour stable. Full water changes, no aeration at night and constant lighting all cause stress.
40
Answer 3 The human genome has about 3 billion bp (about 20,000 genes), and the HGP was completed in 2003. The E. coli genome was sequenced in 1997.
41
Answer 2 The oxidised forms (NAD⁺, NADP⁺, FAD) are electron carriers and oxidising agents. Only the reduced forms (NADH, NADPH, FADH₂) act as reducing agents, so B and E are false.
42
Answer 5 A, B and C are correct (some other combination). Only chytrids have flagellated zoospores, so D and E are false. The original item was ambiguous and accepted options 1 and 5.
43
Answer 3 Gametophyte reduction and the stem-like structure of roots are accepted trends. Charophytes lacked land-plant traits, plants came from green algae, and liverworts are not closer to hornworts than to mosses.
44
Answer 1 A, B and D are correct. The Cycas gametophyte is retained in, and fully dependent on, the sporophyte, and the fern prothallus is an independent photosynthetic plant.
45
Answer 2 Tubular ammonia secretion buffers H⁺, land snails conserve water by making uric acid, and sharks make and retain urea. Urea costs more energy than ammonia, and uric acid is the least toxic.
46
Answer 2 A, C and D are correct. The pineal body is a forebrain (diencephalon) structure, and the hypothalamus reaches the anterior pituitary through portal blood vessels; nerve fibres go to the posterior lobe.
47
Answer 4 Amniotic fluid prevents drying and absorbs shocks. The allantois is linked to the bladder, the yolk sac supplies primordial germ cells, and the amnion gives no immune protection.
48
Answer 4 RNA polymerase binds the promoter and unwinds DNA itself, adding nucleotides 5′→3′. Eukaryotic transcription is nuclear, and decoding mRNA into amino acids is translation.
49
Answer 2 Calophyllum walkeri, Cinnamomum ovalifolium and the grass Chrysopogon nodulibarbis are montane species (e.g. Horton Plains). Mesua ferrea is a lowland wet-zone tree and Terminalia chebula grows at lower elevations.
50
Answer 5 Only A and C are correct, which is 'some other combination'. Settling is primary treatment, and sludge is digested anaerobically (producing methane) in a separate digester.

Paper II — marking points

5a
  1. Linear electron flow uses both photosystems (PS II and PS I) in the thylakoid membranes of the grana
  2. Each photosystem has a reaction-centre complex surrounded by light-harvesting complexes (antenna pigments)
  3. The reaction centre holds a special pair of chlorophyll a molecules and a primary electron acceptor; PS II's pair is P680 (absorbs best at 680 nm) and PS I's is P700
  4. Light energy passed in from the antenna excites P680, and the excited electron is captured by the primary acceptor of PS II, leaving P680⁺
  5. An enzyme splits water into 2H⁺, 2e⁻ and ½O₂ (O₂ released); these electrons replace those lost from P680⁺
  6. Excited electrons pass from PS II along an electron transport chain (plastoquinone → cytochrome complex → plastocyanin) to PS I
  7. The energy released as electrons fall to lower energy pumps H⁺ into the thylakoid space; ATP synthase then makes ATP (photophosphorylation, chemiosmosis)
  8. These electrons fill the gap in P700⁺ left when light excited PS I and its electrons were passed to PS I's primary acceptor
  9. Electrons from PS I travel through a second short chain (ferredoxin)
  10. NADP⁺ reductase transfers them to NADP⁺, reducing it to NADPH
  11. Net products: ATP, NADPH (for the Calvin cycle) and O₂
5b
  1. Kranz anatomy: mesophyll cells and bundle-sheath cells are closely linked by many plasmodesmata
  2. CO₂ is fixed twice: first in the mesophyll, then in the bundle sheath
  3. In mesophyll cells PEP carboxylase fixes CO₂ onto PEP (phosphoenolpyruvate), forming 4-C oxaloacetate/malate
  4. PEP carboxylase has a high affinity for CO₂ and no affinity for O₂, so it works even when stomata are partly closed and CO₂ is low
  5. The 4-C compound is exported to the bundle sheath and decarboxylated there, releasing (concentrating) CO₂
  6. Rubisco refixes this CO₂ in the Calvin cycle
  7. Rubisco is spatially separated in the bundle sheath, where CO₂ concentration is high
  8. So rubisco's oxygenase activity and photorespiration (a wasteful process) are suppressed
  9. Result: higher net carbon fixation and efficiency, especially in hot, dry, high-light conditions
6a
  1. The two groups of flowering plants are monocots and eudicots/dicots
  2. Embryo: monocots have one cotyledon, dicots two
  3. Roots: monocots have a fibrous root system, dicots a taproot system
  4. Leaf venation: parallel in monocots, reticulate (net) in dicots
  5. Flower parts: monocot flowers are trimerous (multiples of three), dicot flowers are tetramerous or pentamerous
  6. Perianth: in monocots it is not separated into calyx and corolla (tepals); in dicots it usually is
  7. Pollen: monocot pollen has one aperture, dicot pollen three
  8. Stem vascular bundles: scattered in monocots, arranged in a ring in dicots
  9. Monocot bundles have no cambium (closed); dicot bundles have cambium (open), so dicots can show secondary growth
6b
  1. The apoplast is everything outside the plasma membranes
  2. It includes cell walls, extracellular spaces and the lumens of dead cells (xylem vessel elements and tracheids)
  3. Water and solutes move along the continuous cell walls and extracellular spaces without crossing membranes
  4. Soil solution enters the hydrophilic walls of root hairs and epidermis, giving access to the apoplast
  5. From there water and minerals diffuse into the cortex along cell-wall matrices and intercellular spaces
  6. At the endodermis the Casparian strip blocks the apoplastic route
  7. The Casparian strip is a belt of suberin in the radial and transverse walls of endodermal cells
  8. Suberin is impervious to water and dissolved minerals
  9. So water and minerals cannot enter the vascular cylinder by the apoplast
  10. They must cross the selectively permeable plasma membrane of endodermal cells, entering the symplast
  11. This lets the plant control mineral uptake and keep unwanted or toxic substances out
  12. After the endodermis, solutes may re-enter the apoplast (pericycle/xylem walls) and reach the xylem vessels and tracheids
7a
  1. The heart wall has three layers: pericardium (outer), myocardium (middle) and endocardium (inner)
  2. The pericardium is a double sac: an outer fibrous pericardium and an inner serous pericardium (parietal and visceral layers with pericardial fluid between them)
  3. The myocardium is the thickest layer and is made of cardiac muscle
  4. A network of specialised conducting fibres (SA/AV nodes, bundle of His, Purkinje fibres) runs through the myocardium
  5. Myocardium is thickest in the left ventricle, then the right ventricle, and thinnest in the atria
  6. The endocardium is a smooth inner membrane of flattened (squamous) epithelial cells (endothelium)
  7. The endocardium lines the chambers and covers the valves
7b
  1. The right and left coronary arteries arise from the aorta just beyond the aortic valve
  2. They carry oxygen-rich blood to the heart muscle
  3. Their branches run in the heart wall and form a capillary network
  4. Most deoxygenated blood collects into the cardiac veins, which join to form the coronary sinus
  5. The coronary sinus opens into the right atrium; the remaining venous blood drains through small venous channels straight into the heart chambers
  6. Blockage is mainly due to atherosclerosis: thickening and hardening of the arterial lining from fatty (cholesterol) deposits
  7. A blood clot (thrombus) can make the blockage worse
  8. Depending on where the block is and how complete, the heart muscle beyond it is starved of O₂ and nutrients
  9. Partial narrowing causes chest pain (angina pectoris)
  10. Complete blockage causes a heart attack (myocardial infarction): cardiac muscle is damaged or dies
  11. This can cause an abnormal heart rhythm, and the heart may fail as a pump
  12. Vital organs such as the brain then lose their oxygen supply, and the attack can be fatal if not treated in time
8a
  1. Normal fasting blood glucose is about 70–110 mg/100 mL
  2. It is kept stable by the opposing actions of insulin and glucagon from the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas
  3. A rise above normal (e.g. after a meal) stimulates β cells to secrete insulin
  4. Insulin increases glucose uptake into body cells and its use in respiration to make ATP
  5. Insulin promotes conversion of glucose to glycogen (glycogenesis) in the liver and skeletal muscle
  6. Insulin promotes conversion of glucose to fatty acids and fat storage in adipose tissue
  7. As glucose returns to normal, insulin secretion falls (negative feedback)
  8. A fall below normal stimulates α cells to secrete glucagon
  9. Glucagon stimulates glycogen breakdown (glycogenolysis) in the liver and release of glucose into the blood
  10. Glucagon stimulates glucose formation from amino acids and glycerol (gluconeogenesis) and fat breakdown
  11. As glucose rises back to normal, glucagon secretion falls (negative feedback)
  12. Glucose level itself acts directly on the islet cells: a homeostatic negative-feedback loop
8b
  1. An autoimmune disorder, usually starting in children or young adults
  2. The body's own immune system destroys the β cells of the islets of Langerhans
  3. This causes severe deficiency or absence of insulin
  4. Blood glucose rises above the renal threshold, so glucose appears in the urine (glycosuria)
  5. Control: meals low in carbohydrate and fat (planned diet)
  6. Control: regular monitoring of blood glucose
  7. Control: regular (periodic) insulin injections for life
9a
  1. DNA is packed loosely as euchromatin (active) or tightly as heterochromatin
  2. Packing happens at four levels
  3. Level 1: the double helix winds around an octamer of histones, forming nucleosomes ('beads on a string', about 10 nm)
  4. Neighbouring nucleosomes are joined by linker DNA
  5. Level 2: nucleosomes coil and pack in a spiral, forming a 30 nm chromatin fibre
  6. Level 3: the 30 nm fibre forms looped domains attached to a non-histone protein scaffold, about 300 nm thick
  7. Level 4: looped domains coil and fold further, compacting into a metaphase chromatid about 700 nm thick
  8. The highest compaction is reached during mitosis/meiosis (metaphase chromosomes)
9b
  1. Vinegar is made in two stages: alcoholic fermentation, then acetic-acid (acetous) fermentation
  2. Sugars in malt, palm sap, sugar cane or fruit juices are fermented by Saccharomyces cerevisiae to ethanol
  3. Under highly aerobic conditions, Acetobacter and Gluconobacter partly (incompletely) oxidise ethanol to acetic acid
  4. Dairy products are made by fermenting milk
  5. Lactic acid bacteria ferment lactose to lactic acid, which sours and coagulates the milk
  6. Pasteurisation kills native bacteria, so starter cultures must be added
  7. Curd/yoghurt is made by a mixed culture: Lactobacillus bulgaricus, Lactococcus lactis and Streptococcus thermophilus
  8. Lactobacillus bulgaricus adds flavour (aroma)
  9. Streptococcus species add creamy texture and flavour
  10. Cheese is made using Streptococcus (lactic starter) and ripened with Penicillium moulds
10a
  1. Inheritance of quantitative (continuously varying) characters
  2. Caused by the additive (cumulative) effect of two or more genes
  3. Examples: human height, skin colour, intelligence
  4. Skin-colour model: three genes A, B, C, each with a 'dark' allele adding one unit of darkness, incompletely dominant over a, b, c
  5. AABBCC gives very dark skin, aabbcc very light, and AaBbCc intermediate
  6. The number of possible genotypes and phenotypes in the offspring depends on how many genes are involved
  7. Phenotypes in a population form a normal (bell-shaped) distribution
  8. Most individuals show intermediate phenotypes; extremes are rare
  9. Environment also modifies the expression (multifactorial)
10b
  1. Land degradation in arid, semi-arid and dry sub-humid regions
  2. Caused by climate change (drought, rising temperature)
  3. Caused also by human activity: deforestation
  4. Over-exploitation of water and soil (overgrazing, over-cultivation)
  5. Uncontrolled mining
  6. Excessive agrochemical use and poor land management
  7. Effects: fewer ecosystem services and more water scarcity
  8. Loss of biodiversity and habitats
  9. Reduced food security; harm to human health and well-being; possible migration
  10. Lower carbon-storage capacity of soil and vegetation
10c
  1. Lymphatic filariasis is caused by Wuchereria bancrofti and spread by Culex mosquitoes
  2. Personal protection against mosquito bites: bed nets, repellents, long sleeves and trousers
  3. Remove breeding sites: repair broken tanks, clean drains, stop garbage dumping in drains
  4. Chemically control aquatic plants in reservoirs (Mansonia breeding)
  5. Avoid creating new breeding sites
  6. Biological control: larvivorous fish such as guppy or nalahandaya in water bodies
  7. Screen the population using night blood films (microfilariae circulate at night)
  8. Find symptom-free carriers and treat them (mass drug administration, e.g. DEC/albendazole)
  9. Monitor vector mosquito populations for infectivity (entomological surveillance)

Scan notes: New syllabus. The file contains Paper I (MCQs 1–50) and only Part B essays (Q5–10) of Paper II; Part A structured questions (Q1–4) are not in the scan, so they are omitted. Paper I answers follow the official Department of Examinations key. Q30: the correct answer (9 genotypes) is not among the options, so all answers were accepted. Q42: both 1 and 5 were accepted. Possible concerns with the key: Q8, placing 'origin of cyanobacteria' last is unusual, since cyanobacteria-like organisms produced the early O₂. Q18, whale–barnacle is often given as commensalism in textbooks, so A and C (option 5) could be argued. Q7 option (2) on H⁺ release could also be argued. The Q5(a) marking-scheme OCR was largely illegible, so its points are written from standard NIE content.

2024

G.C.E. (Advanced Level) — Biology

Current syllabus (2019 onward) · Re-set practice paper

Paper I50 MCQs · 2 hoursAnswer all. Choose the one correct or most suitable option.
Paper II24 parts in this booklet · 3 hoursPart A: answer all structured questions. Part B: answer four essays.

Every question tests the same concept as question of the same number in the 2024 paper, re-written by MEDVision. Source coverage: Paper I + full Paper II.

2024 · Paper IMultiple choice
1.

Which level of biological organisation is the smallest that can carry out every characteristic of life on its own?

  1. 1A molecule of DNA
  2. 2A mitochondrion
  3. 3A cell
  4. 4A tissue
  5. 5An organ system
U1 · Characteristics of life & levels of organisation
2.

Which one of the following statements about carbohydrates is correct?

  1. 1Sucrose, formed from glucose and fructose, is a reducing disaccharide.
  2. 2A polymer of galacturonic acid is a major structural component of the middle lamella of plant cells.
  3. 3Fructose is classified as an aldohexose.
  4. 4Chitin is the principal energy reserve stored in fungal hyphae.
  5. 5Amylopectin is an unbranched polymer of beta-glucose.
U2 · Biomolecules & water
3.

Which of the following correctly describes a feature of the mitochondrion?

  1. 1Its circular DNA is located in the intermembrane space.
  2. 2Conversion of one pyruvate to acetyl CoA in the matrix releases two molecules of CO2.
  3. 3The electron transport carriers and ATP synthase are located in the folded inner membrane (cristae).
  4. 4All enzymes of the Krebs cycle are attached to the outer membrane.
  5. 5The matrix contains 80S ribosomes identical to those of the cytosol.
U2 · Cell organelles & structure
4.

Which event takes place in both the first and the second telophase of meiosis?

  1. 1Synapsis of homologous chromosomes
  2. 2Uncoiling of chromosomes into chromatin as nuclear envelopes may re-form
  3. 3Separation of sister chromatids to opposite poles
  4. 4Exchange of segments between non-sister chromatids
  5. 5Assembly of new spindle fibres from the centrosomes
U2 · Cell cycle, mitosis & meiosis
5.

When rubisco fixes O2 instead of CO2, the glycolate formed in the chloroplast is processed further in which two other organelles?

  1. 1Golgi apparatus and lysosomes
  2. 2Peroxisomes and mitochondria
  3. 3Smooth ER and mitochondria
  4. 4Glyoxysomes and the nucleus
  5. 5Vacuole and Golgi apparatus
U2 · Photosynthesis
6.

Which three-carbon sugar produced in the Calvin cycle is exported from the stroma and used to build glucose and sucrose?

  1. 1Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
  2. 23-phosphoglycerate
  3. 3Ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate
  4. 4Phosphoenolpyruvate
  5. 51,3-bisphosphoglycerate
U2 · Photosynthesis
7.

During glycolysis of one glucose molecule, what are the total (gross) numbers of ATP formed by substrate-level phosphorylation and NADH formed, respectively?

  1. 12 ATP and 2 NADH
  2. 24 ATP and 2 NADH
  3. 32 ATP and 4 NADH
  4. 44 ATP and 4 NADH
  5. 52.5 ATP and 1 NADH
U2 · Cellular respiration & fermentation
8.

Which statement about vascular plants is correct?

  1. 1All vascular plants reproduce by seeds.
  2. 2Microphylls typically contain a network of branched veins.
  3. 3Stomata are found only in vascular plants.
  4. 4The earliest ancestors of vascular plants had well-developed roots.
  5. 5In certain lycophytes the gametophyte grows underground and relies on symbiotic fungi.
U3 · Plant diversity
9.

Consider these statements about gametophytes.
A - In Marchantia, male and female sex organs are borne on separate thalli.
B - The fern prothallus is a free-living, photosynthetic gametophyte.
C - In cycads the gametophyte is greatly reduced and depends on the sporophyte.
Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. 1A only
  2. 2B only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4B and C only
  5. 5A, B and C
U3 · Plant diversity
10.

Animal X has calcareous plates beneath its skin, a water vascular system and a true coelom. Animal Y has a shell secreted by a mantle, an open circulatory system and gills in a mantle cavity. X and Y most likely belong, respectively, to

  1. 1Chordata and Arthropoda
  2. 2Echinodermata and Mollusca
  3. 3Annelida and Mollusca
  4. 4Echinodermata and Arthropoda
  5. 5Nematoda and Mollusca
U3 · Animal diversity
11.

The first animal phylum in which nervous tissue is concentrated at the anterior end of the body has which feature?

  1. 1A true coelom
  2. 2Radial symmetry
  3. 3A simple brain of cerebral ganglia connected to longitudinal nerve cords
  4. 4A segmented body with jointed appendages
  5. 5A muscular foot for locomotion
U3 · Animal diversity
12.

Match each plant cell type with its main function.
Cell types: A - Parenchyma; B - Sclerenchyma fibres; C - Vessel elements; D - Collenchyma
Functions: P - Conduction of water; Q - Photosynthesis and food storage; R - Rigid support in mature organs; S - Flexible support in young growing stems
Which response gives all the correct pairs?

  1. 1A-P, B-R, C-Q, D-S
  2. 2A-Q, B-S, C-P, D-R
  3. 3A-Q, B-R, C-P, D-S
  4. 4A-R, B-Q, C-S, D-P
  5. 5A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q
U4 · Plant tissues & anatomy
13.

Which statement about meristems in flowering plants is correct?

  1. 1The cork cambium, a lateral meristem, gives rise to the periderm.
  2. 2Apical meristems are responsible for the increase in girth of woody stems.
  3. 3The shoot apical meristem produces secondary xylem inward and secondary phloem outward.
  4. 4Grass leaves regrow after grazing because of lateral meristems at their tips.
  5. 5Meristematic cells remain active continuously and never become dormant.
U4 · Plant form & growth
14.

Which statement about loss of water from plants is correct?

  1. 1Transpiration increases as the relative humidity of the air rises.
  2. 2Guttation through hydathodes depends on positive root pressure and is seen mainly in the early morning.
  3. 3Most water is lost through the cuticle rather than through stomata.
  4. 4Guard cells that lose turgor cause stomata to open widely.
  5. 5Guttation is driven by the transpiration pull in the xylem.
U4 · Water relations & transport
15.

A plant shows (i) general yellowing of leaves, (ii) necrosis of leaf tips caused by accumulation of urea, and (iii) death of shoot apical meristems. Which elements are most likely deficient in (i), (ii) and (iii) respectively?

  1. 1Mo, Ni and Fe
  2. 2S, Ni and B
  3. 3Ni, S and B
  4. 4Cl, Mo and Ni
  5. 5S, Fe and Ni
U4 · Plant nutrition
16.

A mature angiosperm embryo sac contains eight nuclei within seven cells. Which description of their distribution is correct?

  1. 1Two antipodals, two synergids, one egg and two central cells
  2. 2Three antipodals, three synergids, one egg and one central cell
  3. 3Three antipodals, one synergid, one egg and two central cells
  4. 4Three antipodals, two synergids, one egg and one central cell with two polar nuclei
  5. 5Two antipodals, three synergids, one egg and one central cell with two polar nuclei
U4 · Plant reproduction & life cycles
17.

Which pair of plant hormones promotes the germination of seeds?
A - Gibberellins
B - Abscisic acid
C - Cytokinins
D - Auxins

  1. 1A and B
  2. 2A and C
  3. 3B and C
  4. 4B and D
  5. 5C and D
U4 · Plant hormones & responses
18.

Consider these statements about supporting tissues in mammals.
A - Cartilage cells produce a matrix that includes collagen fibres.
B - Osteocytes are the cells that lay down new bone matrix.
C - Haversian systems are the structural units of compact bone.
Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. 1A only
  2. 2A and B only
  3. 3A and C only
  4. 4B and C only
  5. 5A, B and C
U5 · Animal tissues
19.

Which one of the following site - enzyme - substrate combinations in human digestion is correct?

  1. 1Small intestine - pancreatic amylase - starch
  2. 2Stomach - trypsin - proteins
  3. 3Mouth - pepsin - proteins
  4. 4Small intestine - pepsin - proteins
  5. 5Large intestine - amylase - starch
U5 · Digestion & nutrition
20.

Which statement about vitamins is correct?

  1. 1Vitamin K is required to maintain epithelial tissues.
  2. 2Vitamin E is a water-soluble antioxidant.
  3. 3Vitamin C deficiency causes night blindness.
  4. 4A deficiency of vitamin A can weaken immune defences.
  5. 5Vitamin D is essential for blood clotting.
U5 · Digestion & nutrition
21.

In the human cardiac cycle, contraction of both atria that empties them into the ventricles results directly from the spread of excitation from which structure?

  1. 1Purkinje fibres
  2. 2Bundle of His
  3. 3AV node
  4. 4SA node
  5. 5Right and left bundle branches
U5 · Circulation & blood
22.

Which statement about breathing and gas exchange in humans is correct?

  1. 1Stretch receptors in the lungs send impulses that inhibit inspiration when the lungs are over-inflated.
  2. 2A rise in blood pH stimulates deeper and faster breathing.
  3. 3Pulmonary surfactant increases the surface tension of alveolar fluid.
  4. 4Air leaves the lungs when the pressure inside them falls below atmospheric pressure.
  5. 5In systemic capillaries CO2 diffuses from the blood into the tissues.
U5 · Gas exchange
23.

Which statement about the human kidneys is correct?

  1. 1The left kidney lies lower than the right kidney.
  2. 2Most nephrons are juxtamedullary nephrons.
  3. 3The kidneys secrete a hormone that stimulates the formation of red blood cells.
  4. 4The juxtaglomerular apparatus releases renin in response to a rise in blood pressure.
  5. 5The kidneys regulate blood pH by reabsorbing H+ ions.
U5 · Excretion & osmoregulation
24.

At a chemical synapse, what directly causes synaptic vesicles to fuse with the presynaptic membrane and release their transmitter?

  1. 1An outflow of K+ from the presynaptic terminal
  2. 2Entry of Ca2+ into the presynaptic terminal
  3. 3A rise in Ca2+ concentration in the postsynaptic cell
  4. 4An outflow of Na+ from the presynaptic terminal
  5. 5Entry of Cl- into the synaptic cleft
U5 · Nervous system
25.

Which of the following skin mechanoreceptors lie close to the skin surface?
A - Merkel discs
B - Pacinian corpuscles
C - Meissner's corpuscles
D - Free nerve endings

  1. 1A, B and C only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3B, C and D only
  4. 4A, B and D only
  5. 5B and D only
U5 · Sense organs
26.

A person stands in a cold wind and the core body temperature begins to fall. Which combination of responses is expected?
(skin arterioles / hair erector muscles / adrenaline secretion)

  1. 1Dilate / relax / increases
  2. 2Constrict / relax / decreases
  3. 3Constrict / contract / increases
  4. 4Dilate / contract / increases
  5. 5Constrict / contract / decreases
U5 · Homeostasis, liver & thermoregulation
27.

Which statement about asexual reproduction in animals is correct?

  1. 1Drone honey bees develop from fertilised eggs.
  2. 2Budding in Hydra involves both meiosis and mitosis.
  3. 3Offspring produced by fragmentation of an annelid differ genetically from the parent.
  4. 4Planarians can produce new individuals by fragmentation followed by regeneration.
  5. 5Asexual reproduction is most advantageous when the environment changes rapidly.
U5 · Reproduction & development
28.

Match the human male accessory glands with their secretions.
Glands: A - Seminal vesicles; B - Prostate gland; C - Bulbourethral (Cowper's) glands
Secretions: P - Thick alkaline fluid with mucus and fructose; Q - Thin milky fluid with citrate and anticoagulant enzymes; R - Small volume of clear, alkaline lubricating mucus
Which response gives all the correct pairs?

  1. 1A-Q, B-P, C-R
  2. 2A-R, B-Q, C-P
  3. 3A-P, B-Q, C-R
  4. 4A-P, B-R, C-Q
  5. 5A-Q, B-R, C-P
U5 · Reproduction & development
29.

A student describes three human vertebrae.
X - ring-shaped, with no body (centrum) and no spinous process
Y - body bearing facets for the heads of ribs, and transverse processes with facets for rib tubercles
Z - very large, kidney-shaped body with a short, broad spinous process
X, Y and Z are most likely, respectively,

  1. 1axis, a thoracic vertebra and a lumbar vertebra
  2. 2atlas, a lumbar vertebra and a thoracic vertebra
  3. 3axis, a lumbar vertebra and a sacral vertebra
  4. 4atlas, a thoracic vertebra and a lumbar vertebra
  5. 5atlas, the seventh cervical vertebra and a lumbar vertebra
U5 · Skeleton, muscle & movement
30.

Which pair of processes are both found on the temporal bone of the human skull?

  1. 1Zygomatic process and coronoid process
  2. 2Condyloid process and mastoid process
  3. 3Styloid process and zygomatic process
  4. 4Coronoid process and condyloid process
  5. 5Mastoid process and coronoid process
U5 · Skeleton, muscle & movement
31.

Two pure-breeding white-flowered strains of a plant are crossed. All F1 plants have purple flowers, and the F2 shows 9 purple : 7 white. This inheritance pattern is

  1. 1dominant epistasis
  2. 2incomplete dominance
  3. 3recessive epistasis (complementary gene action)
  4. 4multiple alleles
  5. 5polygenic inheritance
U6 · Extensions of Mendelian genetics
32.

In a plant, purple flower (P), axial flower position (A) and inflated pod (I) are dominant over white (p), terminal (a) and constricted (i). Assuming independent assortment, what is the probability of an offspring with genotype PpAAIi from the cross PpAaIi x PPAaii?

  1. 11/8
  2. 21/16
  3. 31/4
  4. 43/16
  5. 51/32
U6 · Mendelian inheritance
33.

Which enzyme, obtained from retroviruses, synthesises a DNA strand using a mature mRNA molecule as the template?

  1. 1DNA ligase
  2. 2RNA polymerase
  3. 3Primase
  4. 4Restriction endonuclease
  5. 5Reverse transcriptase
U7 · rDNA tools & techniques
34.

During excision repair of DNA, what is the specific role of the nuclease?

  1. 1Cutting out the damaged or mismatched stretch of nucleotides
  2. 2Sealing the final nick in the sugar-phosphate backbone
  3. 3Adding the correct nucleotides to fill the gap
  4. 4Unwinding the double helix by breaking hydrogen bonds
  5. 5Adding an RNA primer to start replacement synthesis
U7 · DNA structure & replication
35.

Match these Sri Lankan ecosystems with a characteristic feature of their vegetation.
Ecosystems: A - Savanna; B - Sand dunes; C - Tropical montane forest; D - Tropical thorn forest
Features: P - Dense shrub layer; Q - Stunted vegetation; R - Thick grass cover; S - Scattered large trees in a scrub matrix
Which response gives all the correct pairs?

  1. 1A-S, B-Q, C-P, D-R
  2. 2A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S
  3. 3A-Q, B-R, C-P, D-S
  4. 4A-R, B-Q, C-P, D-S
  5. 5A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q
U8 · Biomes & Sri Lankan ecosystems
36.

Consider these statements about the chickenpox (varicella) vaccine.
A - It contains a live virus whose ability to cause disease has been weakened.
B - It is made only of purified viral proteins.
C - It produces immunity resembling that after natural infection.
D - The virus in it cannot multiply in the recipient.
Which of the above are correct?

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2A and C only
  3. 3B and D only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5A, C and D only
U5 · Immunity
37.

Which of the following fermentation process - microorganism pairs is/are correct?
A - Sucrose to ethanol: Lactobacillus
B - Milk sugar to lactic acid: Acetobacter
C - Sucrose to citric acid: Aspergillus niger
D - Ethanol to acetic acid: Saccharomyces

  1. 1A only
  2. 2C only
  3. 3B and C only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5A and D only
U9 · Industrial & food microbiology
38.

Match these solid waste management methods with an outcome.
Methods: A - Anaerobic decomposition of organic waste; B - Sorting and recycling; C - Sanitary landfilling
Outcomes: P - Reduction in the volume of waste; Q - Production of energy for electricity; R - Fewer water-holding containers in which dengue vectors breed
Which response gives all the correct pairs?

  1. 1A-P, B-R, C-Q
  2. 2A-R, B-Q, C-P
  3. 3A-Q, B-P, C-R
  4. 4A-Q, B-R, C-P
  5. 5A-R, B-P, C-Q
U8 · Environmental issues & pollution
39.

Which pair of food preservation methods actually kills microorganisms rather than merely stopping their growth?

  1. 1Refrigeration and dehydration
  2. 2Salting and smoking
  3. 3Freezing and adding sugar
  4. 4Pickling in vinegar and sun-drying
  5. 5Heat sterilisation (canning) and gamma irradiation
U10 · Food science & postharvest
40.

Which of the following influence the spread of lymphatic filariasis within a community?
A - How often people are bitten by the vector mosquitoes
B - The number of people carrying microfilariae
C - The breeding and biting habits of the vector
D - The ABO blood groups of the residents

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2B, C and D only
  3. 3A, B and C only
  4. 4A, B and D only
  5. 5A, B, C and D
U9 · Microbes & disease
41.

Which of the following statements about cell junctions are correct?
A - Gap junctions that allow ions to pass between cells are common in animal embryos.
B - Tight junctions form a seal that stops extracellular fluid leaking between cells.
C - Plasmodesmata are non-living pores in the walls of adjacent plant cells.
D - Desmosomes are communicating junctions that transfer chemical signals.
E - Gap junctions are anchored to intermediate filaments.

  1. 1A only
  2. 2A and B only
  3. 3A, B and D only
  4. 4B and C only
  5. 5A, B and E only
U2 · Cell organelles & structure
42.

Which of the following organism - approximate time pairings are correct?
A - Earliest prokaryotic life: about 3.5 billion years ago
B - First oxygen-releasing photosynthetic prokaryotes: about 2.7 billion years ago
C - First eukaryotic cells: about 2.6 billion years ago
D - Earliest multicellular eukaryotes (small algae): about 1.2 billion years ago
E - First land plants: about 2 billion years ago

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A, B and C only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4B, C and D only
  5. 5A, B, D and E only
U3 · Origin of life & evolution
43.

Which of the following statements about the leaves of a monocot such as maize are correct?
A - The mesophyll is not differentiated into palisade and spongy layers.
B - The veins run parallel to one another.
C - Stomata are restricted to the lower epidermis.
D - The palisade mesophyll is two layered.
E - Bulliform cells are never present in the epidermis.

  1. 1A, B and C only
  2. 2B and C only
  3. 3A, B and E only
  4. 4A and B only
  5. 5C and D only
U4 · Plant tissues & anatomy
44.

A patient with blood group A Rh-positive needs a transfusion. Which of the following donor groups are compatible?
A - A Rh-negative
B - O Rh-positive
C - B Rh-negative
D - AB Rh-positive
E - O Rh-negative

  1. 1A and E only
  2. 2A, B and C only
  3. 3A, B and E only
  4. 4B, D and E only
  5. 5A, B, D and E only
U5 · Circulation & blood
45.

Which of the following function - brain region pairs in humans are correct?
A - Regulation of hunger and thirst: hypothalamus
B - Visual and auditory reflexes: midbrain
C - Balance and coordination of skilled movements: cerebellum
D - Control of heart rate: thalamus
E - Daily sleep-wake rhythm: medulla oblongata

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2A, B and C only
  3. 3B, C and D only
  4. 4A, C and E only
  5. 5C, D and E only
U5 · Nervous system
46.

Which of the following statements about oogenesis in humans are correct?
A - Primordial germ cells arise outside the gonad, in the yolk sac wall, and migrate to the developing ovary.
B - Oogonia multiply by mitosis during foetal life.
C - Primary oocytes complete the first meiotic division before birth.
D - The secondary oocyte is arrested at prophase II.
E - Meiosis II is completed at ovulation without sperm entry.

  1. 1A only
  2. 2A, B and D only
  3. 3B and C only
  4. 4A and B only
  5. 5A, B and E only
U5 · Reproduction & development
47.

Which of the following statements about DNA sequencing are correct?
A - It determines the exact order of nucleotides in a DNA molecule.
B - It can identify mutations present in tumour cells.
C - It helps to detect carriers of recessive genetic disorders.
D - It has no use in forensic identification.
E - It showed that the human genome contains no repeated sequences.

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A and C only
  3. 3B, C and E only
  4. 4A, B and C only
  5. 5A, B, C, D and E
U7 · rDNA tools & techniques
48.

Which of the following statements about microorganisms are correct?
A - Fungi obtain energy by oxidising organic compounds.
B - Some yeasts multiply by budding and others by fission.
C - Acetobacter is a strict anaerobe.
D - Akinetes are the sites of nitrogen fixation in cyanobacteria.
E - Purple sulphur bacteria are chemoautotrophs.

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A only
  3. 3B and E only
  4. 4A, C and E only
  5. 5A and B only
U9 · Microbial diversity & structure
49.

Which of the following statements about invasive alien plant species are correct?
A - They can change the values and services of the ecosystems they invade.
B - They can establish only where environmental conditions vary little.
C - They may increase the frequency or intensity of fires.
D - Some release chemicals or cast shade that prevents native seeds from germinating.
E - They reduce ecosystem diversity but leave genetic diversity unchanged.

  1. 1A, B and C only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3C, D and E only
  4. 4A and D only
  5. 5A, C, D and E only
U8 · Biodiversity & conservation
50.

Each set below lists Sri Lankan plants from three ecosystems. In which sets are the ecosystems arranged in order of increasing annual rainfall?
A - Heeressa, Kaluwara, Walkurundu
B - Gini-andara, Palu, tussock grass
C - Keena, Palu, Gini-andara
D - Palu, Heeressa, Keena
E - Tussock grass, Weera, Heeressa

  1. 1A only
  2. 2A, B and D only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4B and C only
  5. 5A, B and E only
U8 · Biomes & Sri Lankan ecosystems
2024 · Paper IIStructured & essay
1A
Part A · Structured

(i) State the main function of serum albumin in blood plasma.
(ii) (a) Explain why amino acids can behave as both acids and bases. (b) Give two ways in which fats of animal origin differ from fats of plant origin.
(iii) (a) Name the alpha-helical protein that makes up intermediate filaments in epidermal cells. (b) Name the polymer found in the walls of eubacteria and cyanobacteria but absent from archaeal walls.
(iv) (a) In a compound light microscope, what does the eyepiece lens magnify? (b) What kind of substances are used to stain sections for transmission electron microscopy?
(v) List two functions shared by rough and smooth ER, and two functions performed only by smooth ER.

1B
Part A · Structured

(i) Name the glycoprotein that is most abundant in the extracellular matrix of animal tissues.
(ii) (a) Name the cell component responsible for (1) removing waste material from a cell and (2) cytoplasmic streaming. (b) Which organelle supplies the vesicles that build the cell plate in a dividing plant cell?
(iii) In which stage of mitosis are the chromosomes lined up at the equator of the cell?
(iv) Give two examples of human cells that remain in the G0 phase.
(v) (a) Give the exact location in the cell of (1) glycolysis and (2) the formation of oxaloacetate in the Krebs cycle. (b) What is the final hydrogen acceptor in (1) alcoholic fermentation and (2) lactic acid fermentation?

1C
Part A · Structured

(i) (a) Define an enzyme cofactor. (b) Give two examples of inorganic cofactors.
(ii) (a) Explain how ADP acts as an allosteric activator of an enzyme. (b) Name a reagent used to follow the digestion of starch by amylase.
(iii) (a) In which part of the chloroplast are the photosystems found? (b) Give the absorption peaks of the reaction-centre chlorophyll a of photosystem I and photosystem II.
(iv) Give three differences between cyclic and non-cyclic (linear) electron flow.
(v) Name the three eras of the Phanerozoic eon.

2A
Part A · Structured

(i) List five features that organisms of domain Eukarya share with some or all members of domain Archaea.
(ii) Apart from cellulose, name three substances found in the cell walls of protists, giving an organism or group that contains each.
(iii) Name the parts that make up an ovule of a seed plant.
(iv) List five external features of an Ascaris specimen that identify it as a member of phylum Nematoda.

2B
Part A · Structured

(i) Give two functions of epidermal hairs (trichomes) in plants.
(ii) What makes up the symplastic pathway of radial water movement in roots?
(iii) In what chemical form do plants absorb sulphur?
(iv) Give the advantage of internal fertilisation for land plants.
(v) What are statoliths, and where are they found in vascular plants?

2C
Part A · Structured

(i) Describe the features of skeletal muscle tissue visible with a light microscope.
(ii) List the roles of the human tongue in nutrition.
(iii) Using a simple labelled flow diagram, show the direction of blood flow in the single circulation of a fish.
(iv) Explain how fluid and proteins that leave blood capillaries are returned to the bloodstream.
(v) (a) Trace the route of a red blood cell from the inferior vena cava to the aorta. (b) Explain why respiratory pigments evolved in large, active animals.

3A
Part A · Structured

(i) (a) Explain why many animals need specialised respiratory structures. (b) How does total lung capacity differ from vital capacity?
(ii) Name two types of antigen-presenting cells in humans.
(iii) (a) Why is excreting ammonia advantageous for many aquatic invertebrates? (b) By what process is most water reabsorbed in human nephrons? (c) Where do annelid nephridia open internally?
(iv) (a) Define chronic kidney disease. (b) Name an endocrine disorder that can lead to kidney failure.
(v) (a) Describe the organisation of the arthropod nervous system. (b) From which region of the embryonic brain do the pons and the pineal body develop?

3B
Part A · Structured

(i) (a) Where are the neuron cell bodies located in the human cerebrum? (b) Give the sequence of components in a reflex arc. (c) Name a mental disorder characterised by a distorted perception of reality.
(ii) (a) List the cell layers of the retina from the innermost layer outward. (b) Explain how a single image is perceived in binocular vision.
(iii) Explain what is perceived as sound during hearing.
(iv) (a) Define an endocrine gland. (b) Give reasons why a person may develop hypothyroidism.
(v) (a) Explain how LH promotes sperm production. (b) Describe the changes in the uterus that prepare it to receive a fertilised ovum.

3C
Part A · Structured

(i) (a) Name the two hormones that prepare the uterus for implantation. (b) Name the extra-embryonic membrane linked with the development of the urinary bladder.
(ii) Name a viral sexually transmitted infection other than HIV.
(iii) (a) Name a group of animals that move by jet propulsion of water. (b) Explain the role of Ca2+ in sarcomere shortening.
(iv) (a) Give the functions of the paranasal sinuses. (b) What structural feature of the human hand allows a power grip? (c) Name the joint that bears body weight when standing.
(v) (a) Define a gene. (b) Explain what is meant by mutation breeding in crops.

4A
Part A · Structured

(i) Part of a DNA coding strand and the amino acids it codes for are shown below, with two substituted versions.
Original: CGT TTT TTA CCT ATA (Arg-Phe-Leu-Pro-Ile)
Version Y: CGT TTT TCA CCT ATA (Arg-Phe-Ser-Pro-Ile)
Version Z: CGT TTT TTG CCT ATA (Arg-Phe-Leu-Pro-Ile)
(a) Name the type of point mutation in Y and in Z. (b) Write the mRNA sequence for the original coding strand.
(ii) (a) What is a vector in gene technology? (b) Give two examples of cloning vectors.
(iii) Explain why the recycling of nutrients in ecosystems is important.
(iv) Name three biomes in which temperatures reach 35 C or above.
(v) (a) What is meant by the ethical value of biodiversity? (b) State the aim of the Kyoto Protocol.

4B
Part A · Structured

(i) Name a suitable physical sterilisation method for (a) hospital waste, (b) air in an operating theatre, (c) a heat-sensitive enzyme solution, and (d) an inoculating loop.
(ii) Name a soil bacterial genus that oxidises nitrite to nitrate.
(iii) Give two modes of respiration found in both mycoplasmas and unicellular protists.
(iv) Name a simple stain used to show the shape of bacterial cells.
(v) Using sterile nutrient agar plates and a phenol solution, describe in order how you would test the effect of phenol on airborne microorganisms.

4C
Part A · Structured

(i) (a) What is the role of methanotrophic microorganisms in the oceans? (b) How do mycorrhizae benefit plants?
(ii) (a) Name two genetically modified microorganisms used to produce human insulin. (b) What causes algal blooms in freshwater bodies?
(iii) (a) Why is activated carbon used in drinking-water treatment? (b) What does the presence of coliforms in drinking water indicate?
(iv) (a) Name a type of microorganism that spoils (1) food kept in a refrigerator at 4 C and (2) sugary foods. (b) Explain how Aspergillus flavus causes food poisoning.
(v) Give two uses of nanosensors in nanomedicine.

5a
Part B · Essay75 marks

Describe how transcription takes place in eukaryotic cells, including the processing of the primary transcript.

5b
Part B · Essay75 marks

Explain the structure of the plasma membrane according to the fluid mosaic model. Include a labelled diagram.

6
Part B · Essay150 marks

Describe the physical, chemical and immune-type defences that plants use against herbivorous pests and pathogens.

7a
Part B · Essay75 marks

Describe briefly how the liver contributes to human nutrition.

7b
Part B · Essay75 marks

Explain how nervous and hormonal mechanisms regulate digestion in humans.

8a
Part B · Essay75 marks

Outline the main developmental changes in the human foetus during (i) the second trimester and (ii) the third trimester.

8b
Part B · Essay75 marks

Explain the assisted reproductive technologies used to overcome human infertility.

9a
Part B · Essay75 marks

Explain the theory of evolution by natural selection proposed by Darwin and Wallace.

9b
Part B · Essay75 marks

Discuss briefly the causes of global warming.

10a
Part B · Essay50 marks

Write a short note on sex-linked inheritance in humans.

10b
Part B · Essay50 marks

Write a short note on prions.

10c
Part B · Essay50 marks

Write a short note on the uses of stem cells.

2024 · Answers & reviewsMEDVision answers

Answer key — this booklet

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Answer key — original 2024 paper (MEDVision model answers)

For students working from the original paper. Shaded cells: check against the official marking scheme (amber = likely, red = disputed).

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Paper I — reviews

1
Answer 3 The cell is the smallest unit that independently shows all life processes, so it is the basic structural and functional unit of life. Organelles and molecules such as DNA cannot sustain life alone; tissues and organ systems are higher levels built from cells.
2
Answer 2 Pectin, a structural polysaccharide of plant walls and the middle lamella, is built from galacturonic acid. Sucrose is non-reducing, fructose is a ketose, fungi store glycogen (chitin is structural), and amylopectin is a branched alpha-glucose polymer.
3
Answer 3 Oxidative phosphorylation depends on the electron transport chain and ATP synthase embedded in the cristae. Mitochondrial DNA and 70S ribosomes lie in the matrix, most Krebs enzymes are free in the matrix, and pyruvate oxidation releases only one CO2 per pyruvate.
4
Answer 2 In both telophases the chromosomes may decondense as nuclei re-form. Synapsis and crossing over belong to prophase I, chromatid separation to anaphase II, and spindle assembly to prophase/prometaphase.
5
Answer 2 Photorespiration runs through three organelles: glycolate goes from the chloroplast to the peroxisome, and glycine is converted to serine with release of CO2 in the mitochondrion. Glyoxysomes are linked with fat-to-sugar conversion in germinating seeds, not photorespiration.
6
Answer 1 G3P is the carbohydrate output of the Calvin cycle; five of every six G3P regenerate RuBP and the rest are exported for sugar synthesis. 3-PGA and 1,3-BPG are intermediates, and PEP is the CO2 acceptor of C4 and CAM plants.
7
Answer 2 Each of the two G3P molecules yields 2 ATP and 1 NADH, giving 4 ATP and 2 NADH in total; 2 ATP are consumed earlier, so the net ATP gain is 2. The trap is choosing the net ATP figure when the question asks for the total formed.
8
Answer 5 Some lycophyte gametophytes are subterranean, non-photosynthetic and dependent on fungal partners. Ferns and lycophytes are seedless, microphylls have a single unbranched vein, mosses also have stomata, and early vascular plant ancestors lacked roots.
9
Answer 5 Marchantia is dioecious, the fern prothallus is independent and green, and the cycad gametophyte is retained within the sporophyte. A trap is assuming all bryophytes are monoecious, or that only seed plants have reduced gametophytes.
10
Answer 2 A mesodermal endoskeleton of calcareous plates with a water vascular system is diagnostic of echinoderms; a mantle-secreted shell, mantle-cavity gills and open circulation fit molluscs. Arthropods have a chitinous exoskeleton, not a mantle-secreted shell.
11
Answer 3 Cephalization first appears in Platyhelminthes, which have cerebral ganglia and longitudinal nerve cords forming a CNS. Flatworms are acoelomate and bilateral, with no segmentation, jointed limbs or muscular foot.
12
Answer 3 Parenchyma stores food and photosynthesises, sclerenchyma gives rigid support, vessels conduct water and collenchyma gives flexible support in growing parts. The trap is confusing the two supporting tissues.
13
Answer 1 The cork cambium (phellogen) is a lateral meristem that forms the periderm. Girth increase is due to lateral meristems, the vascular cambium (not the apical meristem) adds cells inward and outward, grass leaves regrow from basal intercalary meristems, and buds can be dormant.
14
Answer 2 Guttation is pushed by root pressure when transpiration is low, typically at night and early morning. High humidity lowers transpiration, about 90% of loss is stomatal, and guard cells open stomata when turgid.
15
Answer 2 Sulphur deficiency causes general chlorosis, nickel is needed for urease so its lack leads to urea build-up and leaf-tip necrosis, and boron deficiency kills meristems. Iron deficiency gives interveinal chlorosis of young leaves rather than meristem death or urea toxicity.
16
Answer 4 The 7-celled, 8-nucleate embryo sac has 3 antipodals, 2 synergids, 1 egg and one large central cell holding 2 polar nuclei. The trap is counting the polar nuclei as two separate cells.
17
Answer 2 Gibberellins break dormancy and induce alpha-amylase in the aleurone layer, and cytokinins also promote germination. Abscisic acid maintains dormancy and inhibits germination.
18
Answer 3 Chondrocytes secrete cartilage matrix including collagen, and osteons are the repeating units of compact bone. New bone is laid down by osteoblasts; osteocytes are mature cells that maintain the matrix.
19
Answer 1 Pancreatic amylase digests starch in the small intestine. Pepsin works only in the acidic stomach, trypsin acts in the small intestine, and the large intestine secretes no digestive enzymes.
20
Answer 4 Vitamin A maintains epithelia and supports immunity, so deficiency lowers resistance to infection. Vitamin K is for clotting, vitamin E is fat-soluble, vitamin A deficiency (not C) causes night blindness, and vitamin D aids Ca and P absorption.
21
Answer 4 The impulse from the SA node spreads across the atrial walls and makes them contract. The AV node delays the impulse, and the bundle of His, its branches and Purkinje fibres excite the ventricles.
22
Answer 1 Lung stretch receptors prevent over-expansion (Hering-Breuer reflex). A fall, not a rise, in pH increases ventilation; surfactant lowers surface tension; expiration needs intrapulmonary pressure above atmospheric; and CO2 moves from tissues into blood.
23
Answer 3 The kidneys secrete erythropoietin when blood O2 falls, stimulating erythropoiesis. The right kidney sits lower, most nephrons are cortical, renin is released when pressure falls, and pH is regulated by secreting H+ and reabsorbing HCO3-.
24
Answer 2 The arriving action potential opens voltage-gated Ca2+ channels, and the rise in Ca2+ inside the presynaptic terminal triggers exocytosis. The trap is placing the Ca2+ rise in the cleft or the postsynaptic cell.
25
Answer 2 Merkel discs (base of the epidermis), Meissner's corpuscles (dermal papillae) and free nerve endings are superficial. Pacinian corpuscles lie deep in the dermis and hypodermis and detect deep pressure and vibration.
26
Answer 3 Cold causes skin vasoconstriction to reduce heat loss, contraction of erector pili muscles, and increased adrenaline to raise metabolic heat production. Vasodilation would increase heat loss.
27
Answer 4 Planarians fragment and each piece regenerates a whole worm. Drones are parthenogenetic, budding uses only mitosis, asexual offspring are clones, and sexual reproduction is favoured in changing environments.
28
Answer 3 Seminal vesicles add a thick, fructose-rich alkaline fluid; the prostate adds a thin milky fluid with citrate and anticoagulant enzymes; Cowper's glands release clear alkaline mucus. A common trap is swapping the seminal vesicle and prostate secretions.
29
Answer 4 The atlas lacks a body and spine, thoracic vertebrae carry rib facets on body and transverse processes, and lumbar vertebrae have the largest bodies with stout spines. The axis has a body and an odontoid process, so it does not fit X.
30
Answer 3 The temporal bone bears the mastoid, styloid and zygomatic processes. The coronoid and condyloid processes belong to the mandible.
31
Answer 3 A 9:7 ratio arises when a homozygous recessive at either of two loci blocks the phenotype, so dominant alleles at both loci are needed. Dominant epistasis gives 12:3:1.
32
Answer 2 Treat each gene separately: Pp x PP gives Pp with probability 1/2, Aa x Aa gives AA with 1/4, and Ii x ii gives Ii with 1/2. Multiplying gives 1/2 x 1/4 x 1/2 = 1/16.
33
Answer 5 Reverse transcriptase is an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase used to make cDNA, giving intron-free genes for cloning. RNA polymerase makes RNA from DNA, and ligase only joins fragments.
34
Answer 1 A nuclease excises the damaged segment; DNA polymerase then fills the gap and DNA ligase seals the backbone. Helicase unwinds the helix and primase makes primers.
35
Answer 4 Savanna has a thick grass cover, dune vegetation is stunted, montane forests have a dense shrub layer and thorn forests have scattered large trees in a scrub matrix. The key discriminator is the thick grass cover of savanna.
36
Answer 2 The varicella vaccine is live-attenuated: the weakened virus replicates and mimics natural infection, giving strong, long-lasting immunity. It is not a subunit vaccine.
37
Answer 2 Aspergillus niger is used industrially to make citric acid. Ethanol is made by yeast, lactic acid by Lactobacillus or Streptococcus, and acetic acid from ethanol by Acetobacter or Gluconobacter.
38
Answer 4 Anaerobic digestion yields biogas for power, recycling removes discarded containers that breed Aedes, and landfills compact waste to reduce its volume.
39
Answer 5 Heat sterilisation and ionising radiation destroy microbes. Drying, chilling, freezing, salting, sugaring and pickling mainly inhibit microbial growth.
40
Answer 3 Transmission depends on human-vector contact, the size of the infected human reservoir and vector characteristics. ABO blood group has no role in filariasis transmission.
41
Answer 2 Gap junctions are communicating channels common in embryos, and tight junctions seal neighbouring cells. Plasmodesmata are living cytoplasmic channels, and it is desmosomes (anchoring junctions) that attach to intermediate filaments.
42
Answer 1 Prokaryotes date to about 3.5 bya, oxygenic photosynthesis to about 2.7 bya and multicellular eukaryotes to about 1.2 bya. The first eukaryotes are dated about 1.8-2.1 bya, and land plants appeared only about 470 mya; check the exact dates in the NIE timeline you use.
43
Answer 4 Monocot (isobilateral) leaves have undifferentiated, chloroplast-rich mesophyll and parallel veins, with stomata on both surfaces. A layered palisade is a dicot feature, and grasses do have bulliform cells.
44
Answer 3 The recipient's anti-B antibodies agglutinate any donor cells carrying B antigen, so B and AB blood are excluded. An Rh-positive recipient can receive Rh-positive or Rh-negative blood, leaving A-, O+ and O-.
45
Answer 2 The hypothalamus regulates appetite and thirst, the midbrain controls visual and auditory reflexes and the cerebellum coordinates movement. Heart rate is controlled by the medulla, and sleep-wake rhythms by the hypothalamus.
46
Answer 4 Primordial germ cells originate in the yolk sac wall and give oogonia by mitosis. Primary oocytes stay arrested in prophase I until puberty, the secondary oocyte is arrested at metaphase II, and meiosis II is completed only after sperm penetration.
47
Answer 4 Sequencing gives the base order and is used to detect cancer mutations and carriers of genetic disorders. It is used in forensics and paternity testing, and it revealed many repeated and multicopy sequences in the human genome.
48
Answer 5 Fungi are chemoheterotrophs, and yeasts can divide by budding or fission. Acetobacter is a strict aerobe, heterocysts (not akinetes) fix nitrogen, and purple sulphur bacteria are photoautotrophs.
49
Answer 2 Invasive plants alter ecosystem values, can add fuel for fires and can suppress native germination. They tolerate wide environmental variation and reduce genetic as well as ecosystem diversity.
50
Answer 3 Thorn scrub (Heeressa, Gini-andara) receives least rain, dry mixed evergreen forest (Kaluwara, Palu, Weera) more, and montane forest or wet patana (Walkurundu, Keena, tussock grass) most. C and E run in decreasing order, and D places the dry-forest plant before the thorn-scrub plant.

Paper II — marking points

1A
  1. Serum albumin maintains plasma colloid osmotic pressure and carries fatty acids and hormones
  2. Amino acids have both an acidic –COOH and a basic –NH₂ group, so they act as acid or base (zwitterions)
  3. Animal fats are mostly saturated and solid at room temperature; plant fats (oils) are mostly unsaturated and liquid
  4. Intermediate filament protein with α-helix: keratin
  5. Peptidoglycan (murein) is found in the walls of bacteria and cyanobacteria but not archaea
  6. The real, inverted, magnified image formed by the objective lens is the object for the eyepiece
  7. TEM stains are salts of heavy metals (e.g. lead citrate, uranyl acetate, osmium tetroxide)
  8. Functions of both RER and SER: membrane synthesis, transport and distribution of molecules (vesicle formation)
  9. SER only: lipid and steroid synthesis, detoxification of drugs and poisons, Ca²⁺ storage, carbohydrate metabolism
1B
  1. Most abundant ECM glycoprotein: collagen
  2. Removing residues from the cell: vesicles / exocytosis (secretory vesicles, or lysosomes by exocytosis)
  3. Cytoplasmic streaming: microfilaments (actin) with myosin
  4. Cell plate formation: Golgi apparatus (vesicles from the Golgi)
  5. Chromosomes lie at the cell equator in metaphase
  6. G0 cells: mature neurons, skeletal and cardiac muscle cells (also liver cells, which can re-enter the cycle)
  7. Glucose to pyruvate: cytosol
  8. Oxaloacetate production (Krebs cycle): mitochondrial matrix
  9. Final H acceptor in ethanol fermentation: acetaldehyde (ethanal)
  10. Final H acceptor in lactic acid fermentation: pyruvate
1C
  1. Cofactors are non-protein helpers that bind enzymes and are needed for catalytic activity
  2. Inorganic cofactors: e.g. Zn²⁺, Fe²⁺/Fe³⁺, Cu²⁺, Mg²⁺, Mn²⁺
  3. ADP binds an allosteric (regulatory) site away from the active site, stabilises the active form and increases activity (e.g. of phosphofructokinase)
  4. Indicator for amylase action on starch: iodine solution (I₂/KI)
  5. Photosystems are located in the thylakoid membranes
  6. PS I reaction centre (P700) absorbs best at 700 nm; PS II (P680) at 680 nm
  7. Cyclic flow uses only PS I, whereas linear flow uses PS I and PS II
  8. Cyclic flow produces no NADPH; electrons return from ferredoxin to the cytochrome complex
  9. Cyclic flow releases no O₂ (no water photolysis) and makes only ATP
  10. Phanerozoic eras: Paleozoic, Mesozoic, Cenozoic
2A
  1. Shared Eukarya–Archaea features: histones bound to DNA in some, introns in some genes
  2. RNA polymerase of several types; methionine as the initiator amino acid
  3. Not inhibited by streptomycin or chloramphenicol; no peptidoglycan in the cell wall
  4. Protist wall substances: silica in diatoms, calcium carbonate in foraminiferans or coccolithophores, cellulose plates in dinoflagellates, pectin/agar/carrageenan in red algae, alginic acid (algin) in brown algae
  5. Ovule = integument(s) + megasporangium (nucellus) + megaspore/female gametophyte, with a micropyle
  6. Ascaris external features: unsegmented, elongated cylindrical body
  7. Tapering ends, bilateral symmetry
  8. Tough, smooth cuticle
  9. Terminal mouth (with three lips) and anus; pseudocoelomate
  10. Sexual dimorphism: male smaller with a curved posterior end
2B
  1. Trichomes reduce water loss and reflect excess light
  2. Trichomes deter herbivores by mechanical or chemical defence
  3. The symplastic route is the continuous cytoplasm of cells linked by plasmodesmata
  4. Sulphur is taken up as sulphate ions (SO₄²⁻)
  5. Internal fertilisation protects gametes from drying out on land
  6. It also allows fertilisation without external water
  7. Statoliths are specialised amyloplasts containing dense starch grains
  8. They settle under gravity in root cap (columella) cells and endodermal cells of shoots
2C
  1. Skeletal muscle under LM: long, unbranched cylindrical fibres with cross striations
  2. Multinucleate fibres with peripheral nuclei, arranged in parallel bundles
  3. Tongue: tasting, mixing food with saliva, forming a bolus
  4. Tongue also pushes the bolus into the pharynx during swallowing and helps chewing (manipulation)
  5. Fish single circulation: heart (atrium → ventricle) → gill capillaries → body capillaries → veins → heart
  6. The fish heart pumps only deoxygenated blood
  7. Excess tissue fluid and proteins enter lymph capillaries, pass through lymph vessels and nodes, and return to blood via the thoracic and right lymphatic ducts into the subclavian veins
  8. RBC pathway: IVC → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary artery → lungs → pulmonary veins → left atrium → left ventricle → aorta
  9. Respiratory pigments evolved because large active animals have high O₂ demand and plasma dissolves too little O₂; pigments raise O₂-carrying capacity
3A
  1. Respiratory structures are needed because diffusion through the body surface is too slow for a large body with a small SA:V ratio and high metabolic rate
  2. Total lung capacity = vital capacity + residual volume
  3. Antigen-presenting cells: dendritic cells, macrophages, B cells
  4. Ammonia is highly soluble and diffuses away into water, so little energy is spent converting it
  5. Most water is reabsorbed by osmosis (mainly in the PCT)
  6. Annelid nephridia open internally into the coelom through a ciliated nephrostome
  7. Chronic kidney disease is a progressive, long-term loss of kidney function (low GFR) lasting more than 3 months
  8. Endocrine disorder leading to kidney failure: diabetes mellitus
  9. Arthropod nervous system: a dorsal brain (cerebral ganglia) and a ventral double nerve cord with segmental ganglia
  10. Pons varolii develops from the metencephalon (hindbrain); the pineal body from the diencephalon (forebrain)
3B
  1. Cerebral nerve cell bodies lie in the outer cerebral cortex (grey matter) and in the basal nuclei
  2. Reflex arc: receptor → sensory neuron → interneuron in the CNS → motor neuron → effector
  3. Disorder with distorted perception of reality: schizophrenia
  4. Retina from inside: ganglion cells → bipolar cells → photoreceptors (rods, cones) → pigmented epithelium
  5. Binocular vision: the brain fuses the two overlapping images from the two eyes into one, giving depth perception
  6. Sound is perceived when pressure waves vibrate the cochlear hair cells; the auditory cortex interprets the impulses
  7. An endocrine gland is a ductless gland that secretes hormones directly into the blood
  8. Hypothyroidism is caused by iodine deficiency, autoimmune destruction of the thyroid, or pituitary/hypothalamic failure (low TSH)
  9. LH stimulates Leydig cells to secrete testosterone, which promotes spermatogenesis in the seminiferous tubules
  10. Uterine preparation: the endometrium thickens and becomes more vascular, with coiled glands that secrete nutrients (secretory phase)
3C
  1. Hormones that prepare the uterus: oestrogen and progesterone
  2. The foetal membrane linked to urinary bladder development is the allantois
  3. Viral STIs other than HIV: genital herpes (HSV), genital warts (HPV), hepatitis B
  4. Animals moving by water jet propulsion: cephalopods (squids, octopus); also cnidarian medusae
  5. Ca²⁺ binds troponin, which shifts tropomyosin and exposes myosin-binding sites on actin so cross-bridges form
  6. Skull sinuses lighten the skull, warm and humidify air, and give resonance to the voice
  7. Power grip depends on the opposable thumb (saddle joint at the base of the thumb) and flexible fingers
  8. Weight-bearing joint when standing: the knee joint (hip and ankle also accepted)
  9. A gene is a DNA sequence that codes for a functional product (polypeptide or RNA)
  10. Mutation breeding uses mutagens (radiation, chemicals) to create new heritable variation and then selects useful crop varieties
4A
  1. Y (TTA→TCA, Leu→Ser) is a missense mutation
  2. Z (TTA→TTG, still Leu) is a silent mutation
  3. mRNA: CGU UUU UUA CCU AUA (same as the coding strand with U in place of T)
  4. A vector is a DNA molecule that carries foreign DNA into a host cell and replicates there
  5. Cloning vectors: plasmids, bacteriophages (λ), cosmids, BACs, YACs
  6. Recycling returns limited nutrients to producers so ecosystems can be sustained; without it the elements would be locked up in dead matter
  7. Biomes reaching 35 °C or above: desert, savanna, tropical dry forest (also chaparral, temperate grassland)
  8. Ethical value is the belief that every species has an intrinsic right to exist regardless of its use to humans
  9. The Kyoto Protocol aims to reduce greenhouse gas emissions by industrialised countries, with binding targets, to limit global warming
4B
  1. Hospital waste: incineration
  2. Air in operating theatres: UV radiation (or HEPA filtration)
  3. Enzyme solutions: membrane filtration (0.45 µm filter)
  4. Inoculation loops: red-heat flaming
  5. Nitrite (NO₂⁻) to nitrate (NO₃⁻) oxidiser: Nitrobacter
  6. Respiration modes in both mycoplasma and protists: aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration (facultative anaerobes)
  7. Simple stain: methylene blue (or crystal violet, safranin)
  8. Phenol procedure: label two sets of agar plates as test and control
  9. Soak/apply phenol on the test plates (e.g. phenol-soaked filter paper, or smear phenol); leave the control without phenol
  10. Open both sets to air for the same time, then close
  11. Incubate inverted at about 37 °C (or room temperature) for 24–48 h
  12. Count and compare colonies; fewer colonies around or on the phenol plates show its antimicrobial effect
4C
  1. Ocean methanotrophs oxidise methane to CO₂, reducing the release of this greenhouse gas
  2. Mycorrhizae increase the absorptive surface and the uptake of water and minerals (especially phosphate); they also protect against pathogens
  3. GM organisms that produce insulin: Escherichia coli and Saccharomyces cerevisiae
  4. Algal blooms result from eutrophication: excess nitrate and phosphate from fertiliser and sewage runoff
  5. Activated carbon adsorbs organic compounds, odours, tastes and colour from water
  6. Coliforms in drinking water indicate faecal contamination and possible pathogens
  7. Food spoiled at 4 °C: psychrophilic/psychrotrophic bacteria (e.g. Pseudomonas, Listeria)
  8. Sugary food: osmophilic yeasts and moulds
  9. Aspergillus flavus produces aflatoxin in stored food (e.g. grains, nuts); eating it causes liver damage and cancer
  10. Nanosensors detect disease biomarkers early (e.g. cancer cells, glucose) and monitor drug delivery and physiological parameters in real time
5a
  1. Takes place in the nucleus; one DNA strand (template) is copied into RNA
  2. RNA polymerase II transcribes protein-coding genes
  3. Initiation: transcription factors bind the promoter (TATA box) and recruit RNA polymerase II to form the initiation complex
  4. The DNA is unwound locally to open a transcription bubble
  5. Elongation: the polymerase reads the template 3'→5' and adds ribonucleotides to the 5'→3' end of the growing RNA
  6. Complementary pairing A–U, T–A, G–C, C–G; no primer is needed
  7. The DNA rewinds behind the polymerase; several polymerases can transcribe one gene at once
  8. Termination: transcription passes the polyadenylation signal (AAUAAA) and the pre-mRNA is cleaved and released
  9. Pre-mRNA processing: a 5' cap (modified guanine) is added
  10. A poly-A tail is added at the 3' end
  11. Introns are removed by spliceosomes and exons joined (RNA splicing; alternative splicing possible)
  12. The mature mRNA leaves through nuclear pores to ribosomes
5b
  1. Fluid mosaic model (Singer and Nicolson); about 8 nm thick
  2. Phospholipid bilayer with hydrophilic phosphate heads facing outward and hydrophobic fatty acid tails inward
  3. Phospholipids move laterally, giving fluidity; unsaturated tails increase fluidity
  4. Cholesterol in animal membranes buffers fluidity against temperature changes
  5. Integral proteins span the bilayer (transmembrane) with hydrophobic regions inside it
  6. Peripheral proteins are loosely bound to the surfaces
  7. Proteins form a mosaic and work as channels, carriers, pumps, enzymes, receptors and adhesion proteins
  8. Glycoproteins and glycolipids carry carbohydrate chains on the outer surface only (the glycocalyx), used in cell recognition
  9. The membrane is asymmetric: inner and outer faces differ
  10. Cytoskeleton attachment on the inside and ECM attachment on the outside
  11. The membrane is selectively permeable: small nonpolar molecules pass freely, while ions and polar molecules need proteins
  12. A labelled diagram is expected
6
  1. Physical barriers: cuticle, waxy epidermis, bark/periderm and cell walls block pathogen entry
  2. Thorns, spines, prickles and trichomes deter herbivores
  3. Chemical defences: secondary metabolites such as alkaloids (nicotine, caffeine), tannins, terpenoids and phenolics are toxic or distasteful
  4. Some plants make non-protein amino acids (e.g. canavanine) that disrupt insect proteins
  5. Volatile compounds released on attack attract predators and parasitoids of herbivores and warn neighbouring plants
  6. Jasmonic acid signalling induces defence genes after wounding
  7. Systemin and proteinase inhibitors reduce digestion of plant proteins by insects
  8. PAMP-triggered immunity: receptors recognise microbial molecules (e.g. flagellin) and trigger broad defences
  9. Effector-triggered immunity: R genes recognise pathogen effectors (gene-for-gene)
  10. The hypersensitive response causes localised cell death that isolates the pathogen
  11. Phytoalexins (antimicrobial compounds), PR proteins and lignin/callose deposition strengthen walls
  12. Systemic acquired resistance: methyl salicylate/salicylic acid spreads to give long-lasting whole-plant resistance
  13. Stomatal closure limits pathogen entry
7a
  1. Receives absorbed nutrients from the intestine through the hepatic portal vein
  2. Carbohydrates: stores glucose as glycogen (glycogenesis) and releases glucose (glycogenolysis), keeping blood glucose steady
  3. Gluconeogenesis from amino acids, lactate and glycerol
  4. Converts galactose and fructose to glucose
  5. Lipids: synthesises cholesterol, lipoproteins and phospholipids; converts excess carbohydrate to fat
  6. β-oxidation of fatty acids and ketone body formation
  7. Proteins: deamination and transamination of amino acids; makes urea from ammonia
  8. Synthesises plasma proteins (albumin, globulins, fibrinogen, prothrombin)
  9. Produces bile; bile salts emulsify fats and help absorb fats and fat-soluble vitamins
  10. Stores vitamins A, D, B₁₂ and K, and minerals such as iron and copper
  11. Detoxifies harmful substances, drugs and alcohol
7b
  1. Digestion is regulated by nerves (enteric and autonomic) and by hormones
  2. Cephalic phase: the sight, smell and taste of food trigger vagal stimulation of salivary and gastric secretion
  3. Salivation is a reflex controlled by the medulla
  4. Gastric phase: food stretches the stomach and peptides stimulate G cells to release gastrin into the blood
  5. Gastrin stimulates gastric juice (HCl, pepsinogen) secretion and gastric motility
  6. Intestinal phase: acidic chyme in the duodenum triggers secretin release
  7. Secretin stimulates bicarbonate-rich pancreatic juice and bile production
  8. Fats and amino acids in the duodenum trigger cholecystokinin (CCK)
  9. CCK stimulates pancreatic enzyme secretion and gallbladder contraction (bile release)
  10. Secretin and CCK inhibit gastric secretion and emptying (enterogastric reflex), matching chyme flow to intestinal capacity
  11. Sympathetic stimulation inhibits and parasympathetic stimulation promotes digestive activity
  12. Peristalsis is coordinated by the enteric nervous system (myenteric plexus)
8a
  1. Second trimester (weeks 13–27): rapid growth to about 30 cm
  2. Movements felt by the mother (quickening) around weeks 16–20
  3. Heartbeat audible with a stethoscope; bones ossify further
  4. Lanugo (fine hair) and vernix caseosa cover the skin; eyebrows and eyelashes form
  5. Eyelids separate and open; foetus active, may suck its thumb
  6. Third trimester (weeks 28–40): rapid weight gain, mainly fat deposition
  7. Lungs mature and surfactant production begins, so survival outside the uterus becomes possible
  8. Brain grows rapidly; the nervous system and reflexes develop
  9. Body systems become functional; maternal antibodies are transferred
  10. Lanugo largely disappears and the foetus usually settles head-down
  11. Grows to about 50 cm and 3–3.5 kg at term
8b
  1. ART treats infertility by handling gametes or embryos outside the body
  2. Hormone therapy (e.g. FSH/hCG, clomiphene) induces ovulation or superovulation
  3. Artificial insemination / IUI: washed sperm are placed in the uterus, useful for low sperm count or cervical problems
  4. In vitro fertilisation (IVF): oocytes are collected after superovulation and fertilised with sperm in a dish
  5. Embryos are cultured to the 4–8 cell stage or blastocyst and transferred to the uterus
  6. IVF is used when fallopian tubes are blocked or for unexplained infertility
  7. ICSI: a single sperm is injected into the oocyte, used for severe male factor infertility
  8. GIFT: oocytes and sperm are placed into the fallopian tube
  9. ZIFT: zygotes are placed into the fallopian tube
  10. Cryopreservation of sperm, oocytes and embryos for later use
  11. Donor gametes and surrogacy are used when a partner cannot provide gametes or carry a pregnancy
  12. Surgical treatment of blocked tubes or varicocele; preimplantation genetic diagnosis to screen embryos
9a
  1. Darwin and Wallace independently proposed evolution by natural selection (1858); Darwin published On the Origin of Species (1859)
  2. Observation: populations could grow exponentially (overproduction of offspring)
  3. Resources are limited, so population sizes stay roughly stable
  4. Inference: there is a struggle for existence, and many offspring die
  5. Individuals in a population vary in their traits
  6. Much of this variation is heritable
  7. Individuals with traits better suited to the environment survive and reproduce more (survival of the fittest)
  8. Favourable traits therefore accumulate in the population over generations
  9. Over long periods this produces adaptation, and new species arise from common ancestors (descent with modification)
  10. Evidence: fossils, biogeography, comparative anatomy, artificial selection (e.g. Galápagos finches)
  11. Weakness: the theory could not explain the source of variation or how it is inherited (later supplied by genetics, giving the modern synthesis)
9b
  1. Global warming is a rise in mean Earth surface temperature caused by an enhanced greenhouse effect
  2. Greenhouse gases absorb and re-emit infrared radiation from the Earth's surface
  3. CO₂ comes from burning fossil fuels in industry, transport and power generation
  4. Deforestation and forest fires reduce CO₂ uptake and release stored carbon
  5. Methane comes from paddy fields, ruminant livestock, landfills, wetlands and fossil fuel extraction
  6. Nitrous oxide comes from nitrogen fertilisers and burning fuels
  7. CFCs and HFCs come from refrigerants and aerosols; they are potent greenhouse gases
  8. Tropospheric ozone and water vapour also contribute
  9. Positive feedbacks: melting ice lowers albedo, and thawing permafrost releases methane
  10. Rapid population growth, urbanisation and industrialisation increase energy demand
10a
  1. Sex-linked genes are carried on the sex chromosomes, mostly on the non-homologous part of the X (X-linked)
  2. Males are hemizygous: a single recessive X allele is expressed
  3. X-linked recessive traits are more common in males
  4. Examples: red-green colour blindness, haemophilia A, Duchenne muscular dystrophy, G6PD deficiency
  5. A carrier female (XᴴXʰ) passes the allele to half of her sons, who are affected
  6. An affected father passes the allele to all his daughters (carriers) and to none of his sons (no male-to-male transmission)
  7. Trait often skips generations (criss-cross inheritance)
  8. Y-linked (holandric) genes pass from father to all sons, e.g. SRY, hypertrichosis of the ear
10b
  1. Prions are infectious, misfolded protein particles that contain no nucleic acid
  2. The misfolded form (PrPˢᶜ) is rich in β-sheets, while the normal cellular prion protein (PrPᶜ) is rich in α-helices
  3. Prions replicate by converting normal PrP into the misfolded form, a chain reaction
  4. They aggregate in nerve tissue, causing spongy degeneration (transmissible spongiform encephalopathies)
  5. Examples: Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease and kuru in humans, mad cow disease (BSE), scrapie in sheep
  6. Long incubation period; diseases are fatal and incurable
  7. Resistant to heat, proteases, radiation and normal sterilisation
  8. Transmitted by eating infected tissue, contaminated surgical instruments or transplants; some forms are inherited
10c
  1. Stem cells are unspecialised cells that self-renew and differentiate into specialised cells
  2. Types: embryonic (pluripotent), adult/tissue (multipotent), induced pluripotent stem cells
  3. Bone marrow (haematopoietic) stem cell transplantation for leukaemia, lymphoma, thalassaemia and aplastic anaemia
  4. Regenerative medicine: repair of damaged tissues (heart muscle after infarction, spinal cord injury, burns and skin grafts)
  5. Potential treatment of Parkinson's disease, type 1 diabetes (β-cell replacement) and retinal degeneration
  6. Tissue engineering and organ generation for transplantation
  7. Research on development and disease mechanisms; drug testing and toxicity screening
  8. Cord blood banking for future therapy
  9. Ethical concerns about embryonic stem cells; iPS cells avoid embryo destruction

Scan notes: All 50 MCQs and all Paper II questions (Part A Q1–4, Part B Q5–10) are present and legible. OCR was cross-checked against page images for Q19 options, Q32 genotypes/fractions and Q44 blood groups. Q2C(iii) asks for a labelled fish-circulation diagram, which is described in text. Q42 (early-life timeline) and Q50 (Sri Lankan plants by rainfall) depend on NIE-specific data and are low confidence. Q7 hinges on 'total' (gross 4 ATP, 2 NADH) versus net 2 ATP.

2025

G.C.E. (Advanced Level) — Biology

Current syllabus (2019 onward) · Re-set practice paper

Paper I50 MCQs · 2 hoursAnswer all. Choose the one correct or most suitable option.
Paper II25 parts in this booklet · 3 hoursPart A: answer all structured questions. Part B: answer four essays.

Every question tests the same concept as question of the same number in the 2025 paper, re-written by MEDVision. Source coverage: Paper I + full Paper II.

2025 · Paper IMultiple choice
1.

Which one of the following statements about the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell is correct?

  1. 1The nuclear lamina is a network of protein filaments on the cytoplasmic surface of the outer nuclear membrane.
  2. 2The nucleolus is enclosed by a membrane of its own.
  3. 3Chromatin remains condensed as visible chromosomes throughout interphase.
  4. 4Pore complexes passing through both nuclear membranes control the movement of RNA and proteins between the nucleus and cytoplasm.
  5. 5The two membranes of the nuclear envelope are about 20–40 µm apart.
U2 · Cell organelles & structure
2.

The currently accepted scenario of how the first living cells arose on Earth was built from observations and experiments in several fields. Which of the following fields provided that evidence?
A – Physics B – Geology C – Chemistry D – Biology

  1. 1B and C only
  2. 2A and C only
  3. 3A, B and C only
  4. 4B, C and D only
  5. 5A, B, C and D
U3 · Origin of life & evolution
3.

Which of the following correctly describes a characteristic of living organisms?

  1. 1Growth is any increase in fresh mass, including reversible uptake of water.
  2. 2Metabolism consists only of the reactions that build complex molecules using energy.
  3. 3Development is the series of changes an organism goes through during its life span.
  4. 4Evolution is the change that occurs in a single individual during its lifetime.
  5. 5Reproduction is essential for the survival of each individual organism.
U1 · Characteristics of life & levels of organisation
4.

Consider the following statements on RNA types, each giving a role and a molecular shape.
A – rRNA: combines with proteins to form ribosomes; complex, irregularly folded molecule.
B – tRNA: carries the genetic code from the nucleus to ribosomes; linear molecule.
C – mRNA: brings amino acids to the ribosome; three-looped (clover-leaf) molecule.
Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. 1A only
  2. 2B only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4A and C only
  5. 5A, B and C
U7 · Gene expression & regulation
5.

Which of the following are functions carried out by proteins of the plasma membrane?
A – Linking to the cytoskeleton and extracellular matrix to maintain cell shape
B – Forming junctions that join adjacent cells
C – Keeping the membrane fluid at low temperature
D – Binding hormones as specific receptors

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2A and D only
  3. 3B and C only
  4. 4A, B and D only
  5. 5A, B, C and D
U2 · Membranes & transport
6.

Which of the following events take(s) place during mitosis of a diploid somatic cell?
A – Chiasmata form between non-sister chromatids during prophase.
B – Centromeres divide and sister chromatids move to opposite poles during anaphase.
C – Homologous chromosome pairs (bivalents) line up on the equator at metaphase.

  1. 1A only
  2. 2B only
  3. 3C only
  4. 4A and B only
  5. 5B and C only
U2 · Cell cycle, mitosis & meiosis
7.

Which of the following statements about enzymes is correct?

  1. 1Every amino acid of an enzyme forms part of its active site.
  2. 2Prosthetic groups such as haem are tightly and permanently bound to their enzymes.
  3. 3Allosteric activators attach to the regulatory site by covalent bonds.
  4. 4Non-competitive inhibitors compete with the substrate for the active site.
  5. 5The reaction rate keeps rising in proportion to substrate concentration even after the enzyme is saturated.
U2 · Enzymes
8.

Which of the following statements about the photosystems in the thylakoid membrane is correct?

  1. 1Photosystem II passes its excited electrons directly to NADP⁺ reductase.
  2. 2The reaction centre of each photosystem contains a special pair of chlorophyll b molecules.
  3. 3Electrons released by photolysis of water fill the electron hole in P700.
  4. 4In both photosystems, light energy absorbed by pigments raises electrons to an excited state.
  5. 5P680 is the reaction-centre chlorophyll of photosystem I.
U2 · Photosynthesis
9.

Viruses are not assigned to any kingdom in biological classification mainly because they

  1. 1contain either DNA or RNA but never both.
  2. 2do not have a cellular structure.
  3. 3multiply only inside living host cells.
  4. 4are too small to be seen with a light microscope.
  5. 5lack their own ribosomes.
U3 · Classification & taxonomy
10.

A land plant produces only one kind of spore. Each spore grows into a free-living gametophyte bearing both antheridia and archegonia, and the conspicuous, long-lived plant is the sporophyte. This plant most likely belongs to the phylum

  1. 1Bryophyta
  2. 2Cycadophyta
  3. 3Anthophyta
  4. 4Pterophyta
  5. 5Coniferophyta
U3 · Plant diversity
11.

In which of the following phyla are the sexes typically separate (dioecious)?
A – Echinodermata
B – Platyhelminthes
C – Nematoda
D – Arthropoda

  1. 1A and C only
  2. 2B and D only
  3. 3C and D only
  4. 4A, B and C only
  5. 5A, C and D only
U3 · Animal diversity
12.

Match each type of wood with its feature.
Type: A – Soft wood; B – Heart wood; C – Hard wood
Feature: P – Contains xylem vessels (wood of angiosperms); Q – Has no xylem vessels; R – Dark, filled with resins and tannins that resist fungal decay; S – Actively conducts water
Which option has all combinations correct?

  1. 1A-P, B-S, C-Q
  2. 2A-Q, B-R, C-P
  3. 3A-Q, B-S, C-P
  4. 4A-S, B-R, C-Q
  5. 5A-P, B-R, C-S
U4 · Plant tissues & anatomy
13.

Which one of the following lists only tissues that form part of the bark of a secondarily thickened dicot stem?

  1. 1Cork, cork cambium, secondary phloem and crushed primary phloem
  2. 2Cork, cork cambium, vascular cambium and secondary xylem
  3. 3Secondary phloem, vascular cambium and secondary xylem
  4. 4Primary xylem, primary phloem and cork
  5. 5Cork, secondary xylem and pith
U4 · Plant tissues & anatomy
14.

In many flowering plants, sucrose moves from mesophyll cells into the sieve tube–companion cell complexes of minor veins against its concentration gradient. This loading occurs by

  1. 1simple diffusion
  2. 2osmosis
  3. 3mass (bulk) flow
  4. 4H⁺–sucrose cotransport driven by proton pumps (active transport)
  5. 5imbibition
U4 · Water relations & transport
15.

Which of the following plant associations is an example of commensalism?

  1. 1Loranthus growing on a mango tree
  2. 2Cuscuta coiled around a host plant
  3. 3Rhizobium in root nodules of a pea plant
  4. 4An epiphytic orchid growing on a tree branch
  5. 5Nepenthes trapping and digesting insects
U8 · Populations & ecological interactions
16.

In which plant does the male gametophyte develop inside the microspore without chlorophyll, while the female gametophyte that protrudes from the cracked megaspore may become green?

  1. 1Marchantia
  2. 2Cycas
  3. 3Selaginella
  4. 4Pinus
  5. 5Nephrolepis
U3 · Plant diversity
17.

A dark-grown pea seedling that meets a physical obstacle slows its stem elongation, thickens its stem and grows horizontally. Separately, growers spray a hormone on seedless grape clusters to enlarge the berries. The hormones involved are, respectively,

  1. 1auxin and cytokinin
  2. 2abscisic acid and ethylene
  3. 3ethylene and gibberellin
  4. 4gibberellin and ethylene
  5. 5cytokinin and auxin
U4 · Plant hormones & responses
18.

Which of the following statements about human saliva is/are correct?
A – Its amylase hydrolyses starch to maltose and shorter polysaccharides.
B – It moistens food and helps to keep the mouth clean.
C – Its enzymes begin the digestion of proteins in the mouth.

  1. 1A only
  2. 2B only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4A and C only
  5. 5A, B and C
U5 · Digestion & nutrition
19.

A patient's pancreas is surgically removed and no enzyme supplements are given. Hydrolysis of which of the following in the small intestine would be most severely affected?

  1. 1DNA and RNA to nucleotides
  2. 2Maltose to glucose
  3. 3Dipeptides to amino acids
  4. 4Sucrose to glucose and fructose
  5. 5Nucleotides to nucleosides
U5 · Digestion & nutrition
20.

Which of the following statements about the human heart is correct?

  1. 1The pacemaker is located in the wall of the left atrium.
  2. 2The AV node starts each heartbeat.
  3. 3During complete diastole all chambers are relaxed and blood flows passively into the ventricles through open AV valves.
  4. 4Atrial systole lasts about 0.3 s.
  5. 5The semilunar valves stay open throughout diastole.
U5 · Circulation & blood
21.

Which of the following statements about the human lungs is correct?

  1. 1The right lung has two lobes.
  2. 2The visceral pleura lines the inner surface of the thoracic wall.
  3. 3The left lung is slightly smaller than the right because of the cardiac notch.
  4. 4Cilia on the alveolar walls sweep dust particles outwards.
  5. 5Goblet cells in the alveoli secrete mucus to trap dust.
U5 · Gas exchange
22.

Match each part of the human nephron with a process that takes place there.
Part: A – Proximal convoluted tubule; B – Descending limb of loop of Henle; C – Thick ascending limb of loop of Henle; D – Distal convoluted tubule
Process: P – Reabsorption of glucose and HCO₃⁻; Q – Reabsorption of water by osmosis; R – Active removal of NaCl while impermeable to water; S – Secretion of K⁺
Which option has all combinations correct?

  1. 1A-P, B-R, C-Q, D-S
  2. 2A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S
  3. 3A-S, B-Q, C-R, D-P
  4. 4A-P, B-Q, C-Q, D-S
  5. 5A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S
U5 · Excretion & osmoregulation
23.

Stimulation by the sympathetic division of the human autonomic nervous system causes

  1. 1contraction of the urinary bladder wall.
  2. 2constriction of the bronchi.
  3. 3secretion of adrenaline and noradrenaline from the adrenal medulla.
  4. 4contraction of the gall bladder.
  5. 5increased peristalsis in the intestine.
U5 · Nervous system
24.

Which of the following structures of the human inner ear contains perilymph rather than endolymph?

  1. 1Cochlear duct
  2. 2Utricle
  3. 3Saccule
  4. 4Tympanic canal (scala tympani)
  5. 5Semicircular ducts
U5 · Sense organs
25.

A person eats very salty food and drinks no water for several hours, so plasma osmolarity rises. Which sequence correctly shows (ADH secretion; water permeability of collecting ducts; volume of urine)?

  1. 1Increases; increases; decreases
  2. 2Decreases; increases; decreases
  3. 3Increases; decreases; increases
  4. 4Decreases; decreases; increases
  5. 5Increases; increases; increases
U5 · Excretion & osmoregulation
26.

Which of the following statements about the reproductive cycles of a human female is correct?

  1. 1The secondary oocyte released at ovulation is arrested at prophase I.
  2. 2As the follicles grow during the follicular phase, the oestradiol they secrete gradually increases.
  3. 3The endometrium is shed at the time of ovulation.
  4. 4The corpus luteum secretes progesterone throughout the whole pregnancy.
  5. 5New oogonia start dividing by mitosis in the ovary during each menstrual flow.
U5 · Reproduction & development
27.

Which of the following is a function of the yolk sac in human development?

  1. 1Enclosing the embryo in a fluid-filled protective cavity
  2. 2Producing early blood cells and giving rise to primordial germ cells
  3. 3Forming the foetal part of the placenta that resists maternal immune attack
  4. 4Forming the umbilical blood vessels and becoming linked with the urinary bladder
  5. 5Storing a large food reserve that nourishes the embryo throughout pregnancy
U5 · Reproduction & development
28.

Which of the following statements about the adult human vertebral column is correct?

  1. 1It consists of 33 separate bones.
  2. 2Foramina for the vertebral arteries are found in the transverse processes of lumbar vertebrae.
  3. 3The sacrum has paired foramina on each side through which spinal nerves pass.
  4. 4All seven cervical vertebrae have bifid spinous processes.
  5. 5The lumbar curvature is concave anteriorly.
U5 · Skeleton, muscle & movement
29.

Which of the following statements about joints of the human appendicular skeleton is correct?

  1. 1The shoulder joint is formed between the head of the humerus and the clavicle.
  2. 2The hip joint, with its deep acetabulum, is strong and stable enough to carry the body weight.
  3. 3The knee joint allows free rotation in all directions like a ball-and-socket joint.
  4. 4The radius and ulna articulate with one common articular surface on the humerus.
  5. 5The ankle joint is formed between the tibia and the calcaneus.
U5 · Skeleton, muscle & movement
30.

In a randomly mating population of a flowering plant in Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium, purple flowers are dominant over white. If 16% of the plants have white flowers, what is the frequency of heterozygous plants?

  1. 10.16
  2. 20.24
  3. 30.36
  4. 40.48
  5. 50.60
U6 · Population genetics
31.

Which of the following statements about polyploidy in plants are correct?
A – It often increases cell and organ size.
B – Triploid plants usually produce seedless fruits.
C – It can be induced artificially by spraying gibberellins.
D – It always increases the growth rate of plants.

  1. 1A only
  2. 2A and B only
  3. 3A, B and D only
  4. 4B and C only
  5. 5A, C and D only
U6 · Mutations
32.

Which of the following enables a cell to make many copies of a polypeptide quickly from a single mRNA molecule?

  1. 1A signal sequence at the N-terminus of the polypeptide
  2. 2The start codon AUG
  3. 3A stop codon such as UAA
  4. 4Simultaneous translation by several ribosomes forming a polyribosome
  5. 5Transport of proteins through the Golgi apparatus
U7 · Gene expression & regulation
33.

Which of the following statements about DNA repair is/are correct?
A – The gap left after excision of a damaged segment is filled by DNA polymerase.
B – DNA ligase cuts out the damaged nucleotides.
C – Failure of repair can allow mutations to accumulate, leading to cancer.

  1. 1A only
  2. 2C only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4A and C only
  5. 5B and C only
U7 · DNA structure & replication
34.

Which of the following food chains, as they could occur in a natural ecosystem, transfers the greatest proportion of the producer's energy to its top consumer?

  1. 1Grass → grasshopper → frog → snake → hawk
  2. 2Spotted deer → leopard
  3. 3Grass → spotted deer → leopard
  4. 4Grass → leopard → spotted deer
  5. 5Grass → kangaroo → Bengal tiger
U8 · Ecosystems & energy flow
35.

Match each biome with an animal commonly found in it.
Biome: A – Northern coniferous forest (taiga); B – Hot desert; C – Tundra; D – Temperate grassland
Animal: P – Arctic fox; Q – Bison; R – Moose; S – Camel
Which option has all combinations correct?

  1. 1A-P, B-S, C-R, D-Q
  2. 2A-R, B-Q, C-P, D-S
  3. 3A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q
  4. 4A-Q, B-S, C-P, D-R
  5. 5A-R, B-S, C-Q, D-P
U8 · Biomes & Sri Lankan ecosystems
36.

In which of the following pairs would an increase in (i) be likely to cause an increase in (ii)?
A – (i) Methyl bromide release into the atmosphere; (ii) Incidence of cataract and skin cancer
B – (i) Atmospheric CO₂; (ii) Thickness of the stratospheric ozone layer
C – (i) Number of poultry farms; (ii) Mercury content of drinking water

  1. 1A only
  2. 2B only
  3. 3C only
  4. 4A and B only
  5. 5A and C only
U8 · Environmental issues & pollution
37.

Vaccines with which of the following compositions are used against tuberculosis (BCG) and tetanus respectively?
A – Live attenuated bacteria
B – Killed bacteria
C – Inactivated toxin (toxoid)
D – Ready-made antibodies

  1. 1A and B
  2. 2A and C
  3. 3B and C
  4. 4C and A
  5. 5D and C
U5 · Immunity
38.

Which of the following statements about composting is/are correct?
A – Mesophilic microorganisms dominate the early stage and are later replaced by thermophiles.
B – Turning the heap improves the process because composting is mainly aerobic.
C – Only bacteria take part; fungi and protozoa are absent.

  1. 1A only
  2. 2B only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4B and C only
  5. 5A, B and C
U9 · Environmental microbiology & waste treatment
39.

Which of the following best describes coliform bacteria used as indicators of faecal pollution of water?

  1. 1Gram-positive, endospore-forming rods that ferment lactose with gas within 48 h at 35 °C
  2. 2Aerobic or facultatively anaerobic, Gram-negative, non-endospore-forming rods that ferment lactose with gas within 48 h at 35 °C
  3. 3Gram-negative, non-endospore-forming cocci that ferment glucose producing acid only within 24 h at 44 °C
  4. 4Gram-negative, endospore-forming rods that ferment lactose with gas within 48 h at 60 °C
  5. 5Gram-positive cocci that ferment sucrose with gas within 24 h at 35 °C
U9 · Microbial growth & lab techniques
40.

Stem cells taken from the inner cell mass of an early human embryo differ from stem cells in adult bone marrow because embryonic stem cells

  1. 1are unspecialised cells.
  2. 2can be grown in culture.
  3. 3are pluripotent, able to give rise to all cell types of the body.
  4. 4divide by mitosis.
  5. 5can be used to replace damaged tissue.
U10 · Biotech in medicine & nanotechnology
41.

Which of the following occur(s) during alcoholic fermentation of glucose by yeast?
(A) Pyruvate is decarboxylated, releasing CO₂ and forming acetaldehyde.
(B) Acetaldehyde is oxidised by NAD⁺ to form ethanol.
(C) NAD⁺ is regenerated so that glycolysis can continue.
(D) The net ATP gain of 2 per glucose comes only from substrate-level phosphorylation in glycolysis.
(E) Each glucose molecule yields one ethanol and one CO₂.

  1. 1(A), (B) and (D) only
  2. 2(A), (C) and (D) only
  3. 3(A) and (B) only
  4. 4(C) and (D) only
  5. 5Any other response or combination
U2 · Cellular respiration & fermentation
42.

Which of the following statements about protists is/are correct?
(A) Paramecium has a pellicle.
(B) Amoeba has a contractile vacuole.
(C) Gelidium moves by flagella.
(D) Euglena moves using a flagellum.
(E) Amoeba is photoautotrophic.

  1. 1(A), (B) and (D) only
  2. 2(A), (C) and (D) only
  3. 3(A) and (B) only
  4. 4(C) and (D) only
  5. 5Any other response or combination
U3 · Prokaryotes, protists & fungi
43.

Which of the following features favour cross-pollination in flowering plants?
(A) Dichogamy (protandry or protogyny)
(B) Heterostyly
(C) Cleistogamy
(D) Self-incompatibility
(E) Bisexual flowers with homostyly

  1. 1(A), (B) and (D) only
  2. 2(A), (C) and (D) only
  3. 3(A) and (B) only
  4. 4(C) and (D) only
  5. 5Any other response or combination
U4 · Plant reproduction & life cycles
44.

Which of the following are functions of epithelial tissues in the human body?
(A) Lining and protecting body surfaces
(B) Secreting substances as glands
(C) Storing fat for thermal insulation
(D) Conducting nerve impulses
(E) Absorbing digested nutrients in the intestine

  1. 1(A), (B) and (D) only
  2. 2(A), (C) and (D) only
  3. 3(A) and (B) only
  4. 4(C) and (D) only
  5. 5Any other response or combination
U5 · Animal tissues
45.

Which of the following statements about human leucocytes is/are correct?
(A) Neutrophils are the most numerous leucocytes and are phagocytic.
(B) Monocytes have multilobed nuclei.
(C) Natural killer cells, a type of lymphocyte, take part in innate defence.
(D) Basophils release histamine during inflammation.
(E) Eosinophils are the main antibody-producing cells.

  1. 1(A), (B) and (D) only
  2. 2(A), (C) and (D) only
  3. 3(A) and (B) only
  4. 4(C) and (D) only
  5. 5Any other response or combination
U5 · Immunity
46.

Which of the following are functions of the association areas of the human cerebral cortex?
(A) Interpreting and giving meaning to sensory input
(B) Carrying out higher mental functions such as reasoning, memory and planning
(C) Receiving impulses directly from skin receptors for touch and temperature
(D) Sending motor commands directly to skeletal muscles
(E) Generating action potentials in photoreceptors of the retina

  1. 1(A), (B) and (D) only
  2. 2(A), (C) and (D) only
  3. 3(A) and (B) only
  4. 4(C) and (D) only
  5. 5Any other response or combination
U5 · Nervous system
47.

Which of the following statements about human spermatozoa are correct?
(A) Their production begins at puberty.
(B) The acrosome contains hydrolytic enzymes that help penetrate the layers around the oocyte.
(C) They are nourished by Leydig cells during development.
(D) They become motile within the seminiferous tubules.
(E) Their mid-piece contains many mitochondria.

  1. 1(A), (B) and (D) only
  2. 2(A), (C) and (D) only
  3. 3(A) and (B) only
  4. 4(C) and (D) only
  5. 5Any other response or combination
U5 · Reproduction & development
48.

Which of the following are traditional household methods of preserving food in Sri Lanka?
(A) Making jam with a high sugar content
(B) Preparing dried salted fish
(C) Pickling vegetables in vinegar
(D) Exposing food to gamma radiation
(E) Sun-drying chillies

  1. 1(A), (B) and (D) only
  2. 2(A), (C) and (D) only
  3. 3(A) and (B) only
  4. 4(C) and (D) only
  5. 5Any other response or combination
U10 · Food science & postharvest
49.

Which of the following statements about bacteria is/are correct?
(A) Clostridium is an obligate anaerobe.
(B) Nitrosomonas is chemoautotrophic.
(C) Escherichia coli is an obligate aerobe.
(D) Purple sulphur bacteria are photoautotrophs.
(E) Lactobacillus is an obligate aerobe.

  1. 1(A), (B) and (D) only
  2. 2(A), (C) and (D) only
  3. 3(A) and (B) only
  4. 4(C) and (D) only
  5. 5Any other response or combination
U9 · Microbial diversity & structure
50.

Which of the following statements about nucleic acid probes is/are correct?
(A) They are labelled, single-stranded nucleic acid fragments.
(B) They cut DNA at specific recognition sequences.
(C) They identify specific sequences on a membrane after Southern blotting, e.g. in DNA fingerprinting.
(D) They can base-pair with complementary RNA.
(E) They are the chain-terminating molecules used in Sanger sequencing.

  1. 1(A), (B) and (D) only
  2. 2(A), (C) and (D) only
  3. 3(A) and (B) only
  4. 4(C) and (D) only
  5. 5Any other response or combination
U7 · rDNA tools & techniques
2025 · Paper IIStructured & essay
1A
Part A · Structured100 marks

(i) Give two general properties of monosaccharides.
(ii) (a) Which reagent is used to detect lipids in a food sample? (b) Before Benedict's test can detect a non-reducing sugar such as sucrose, what must first be done to the solution?
(iii) Give an example of a structural protein whose functional form is (a) a secondary structure, (b) a quaternary structure.
(iv) Where are 70S ribosomes found (a) in a bacterial cell, (b) in a eukaryotic cell (two sites)?
(v) Name the chief substance that cements adjacent plant cells together in the middle lamella.

1B
Part A · Structured

(i) Name the eukaryotic cell component mainly responsible for each of these: (a) cellulose synthesis, (b) conversion of fatty acids to sugars in germinating seeds, (c) glycoprotein synthesis, (d) carbohydrate metabolism, (e) water balance, (f) detoxification of drugs and poisons.
(ii) In which stage(s) of meiosis does each of the following happen: (a) sister chromatids separate, (b) crossing over, (c) the nuclear envelope re-forms?
(iii) Name two locations in a eukaryotic cell where ATP is made by substrate-level phosphorylation during aerobic respiration of glucose.
(iv) Explain what happens to the rate of an enzyme-controlled reaction when the temperature rises above the optimum.
(v) Draw a labelled sketch graph of the absorption spectrum of chlorophyll b over 400–700 nm.

1C
Part A · Structured

(i) How many ATP molecules are formed when one NADH and one FADH₂ are oxidised through the electron transport chain?
(ii) List the three products of the link reaction (oxidation of pyruvate).
(iii) According to the fossil record, roughly how long after the first prokaryotes did eukaryotic cells appear?
(iv) From which group of fishes did the first tetrapods evolve?
(v) Approximately how long ago did (a) the first food chains (predator–prey relationships) appear, (b) large plants with true roots, stems and leaves (trees) appear?

2A
Part A · Structured100 marks

(i) How is the author who first named a species shown when the scientific name is written?
(ii) Name two classes of Chordata that show each of these: (a) endothermy, (b) keratinised epidermal structures, (c) external fertilisation.
(iii) Give three externally visible features of a shark that are characteristic of class Chondrichthyes.
(iv) Name three animal phyla whose members exchange gases only through the body surface.
(v) Name three photosynthetic pigments found in both brown algae and golden-brown algae.

2B
Part A · Structured

(i) State the structural difference between xylem vessels formed in spring (early) wood and those formed in summer (late) wood.
(ii) Name a stain used to show lignified tissues in a transverse section of a woody dicot stem.
(iii) State the main difference in composition between phloem sap and xylem sap.
(iv) Name the element whose ions act as a second messenger in plant signal transduction.
(v) (a) What does the ovary wall become in a fruit? (b) Explain how a root senses gravity.

2C
Part A · Structured

(i) Give reasons why bone is classified as a connective tissue.
(ii) (a) A patient who takes no NSAIDs is diagnosed with gastritis. Suggest two likely causes. (b) Name two vitamins that act as antioxidants.
(iii) (a) Name three respiratory pigments found in annelids. (b) Explain why carbon dioxide does not compete with oxygen for binding sites on haemoglobin.
(iv) Explain how cigarette smoking leads to bronchitis.
(v) Explain how sebaceous gland secretions contribute to innate immunity.

3A
Part A · Structured100 marks

(i) (a) Give two factors that decide the type of nitrogenous waste an animal excretes. (b) Where do the Malpighian tubules of an insect empty?
(ii) What does the hormone produced by the human kidney do?
(iii) (a) Explain why animals need coordination between stimuli and responses. (b) Name a phylum whose members have radial nerves.
(iv) (a) What are the main components of the human peripheral nervous system? (b) Which structure joins the two cerebral hemispheres? (c) Which parts of the brain control breathing?
(v) (a) Name the receptors for (1) smell and (2) rotational (angular) movement of the head. (b) Give the function of (1) the ciliary muscles and (2) the choroid of the eye.

3B
Part A · Structured

(i) (a) What is the main effect of parathyroid hormone? (b) Name three of its target sites.
(ii) (a) Give an example of an invertebrate that reproduces by parthenogenesis. (b) Draw a labelled flow diagram of spermatogenesis from a primary spermatocyte to spermatozoa, showing ploidy.
(iii) Apart from tissue layers and blood vessels, name three structures seen in a light-microscope section of a human ovary.
(iv) (a) Name two components of breast milk that protect the infant against infection. (b) Explain how drugs bring about a medical (non-surgical) abortion in early pregnancy.
(v) Name two sexually transmitted diseases caused by bacteria.

3C
Part A · Structured

(i) (a) Explain how the hydrostatic skeleton of a roundworm brings about movement. (b) How does a fusiform body help a bird in flight?
(ii) Name the two paired bones of the human cranium.
(iii) (a) Give one function of the sternum other than support and protection. (b) Name a degenerative, non-inflammatory joint disease that causes joint pain.
(iv) In the cross-bridge cycle of skeletal muscle, what must happen for a myosin head to detach from actin?
(v) A dominant trait (allele H; recessive h) is followed in a family. In generation II, an affected woman has an unaffected father and an affected mother. She marries an affected man whose parents are both affected, and both their children (generation III) are affected. Give the genotypes of the mother and the father of generation III, explaining any uncertainty.

4A
Part A · Structured100 marks

(i) (a) List the components of the initiation complex formed at the start of translation. (b) Which proteins keep the separated DNA strands apart during replication?
(ii) Apart from PCR, name three techniques used to analyse DNA.
(iii) Define (a) community and (b) ecosystem.
(iv) (a) Explain why tundra soils stay wet although precipitation is low. (b) State the main abiotic features of salt marshes.
(v) (a) What is meant by a flagship species? (b) Give two criteria used to identify a biodiversity hotspot.

4B
Part A · Structured

(i) Name the two main driving forces behind desertification.
(ii) (a) What does the Basel Convention regulate? (b) Which international agreement deals with protecting the ozone layer?
(iii) Name a chemical sterilant suitable for (a) hospital mattresses, (b) sealed buildings contaminated with Bacillus anthracis spores.
(iv) List, in order, the steps in preparing a heat-fixed smear of microorganisms from a toddy sample for staining.
(v) Apart from causing disease, give two properties of the toxin of Salmonella typhi.

4C
Part A · Structured

(i) Explain how phosphate-solubilising bacteria make phosphorus available in the soil solution.
(ii) Name a bacterial genus used to produce vitamin B₁₂.
(iii) List the intrinsic (internal) factors of a food that affect its spoilage.
(iv) Apart from Vibrio, name a bacterial genus that contaminates water supplies.
(v) Besides water, oxygen and a suitable temperature, give two conditions a viable seed must satisfy before it can germinate.

5a
Part B · Essay150 marks

Describe the light-independent reactions (Calvin cycle) of photosynthesis, including the role of ATP and NADPH.

5b
Part B · Essay

Outline the characteristic features of organisms in kingdom Fungi.

6a
Part B · Essay150 marks

Describe, with a labelled diagram, the primary internal structure of a dicotyledonous root.

6b
Part B · Essay

Explain how low temperatures affect plants and describe the ways in which plants cope with cold stress.

7a
Part B · Essay150 marks

Explain how natural killer cells contribute to human immunity.

7b
Part B · Essay

Describe active immunity in humans, including how it is acquired.

8a
Part B · Essay150 marks

Describe the structure of a chemical synapse and explain how a nerve impulse is transmitted across it.

8b
Part B · Essay

Describe the symptoms of Parkinson disease and explain their underlying causes.

9a
Part B · Essay150 marks

Describe the steps involved in isolating DNA from cells for gene technology.

9b
Part B · Essay

Describe the main stages of industrial wastewater treatment and the principle behind each stage.

10a
Part B · Essay150 marks

Write a short note on human traits inherited in a Mendelian pattern.

10b
Part B · Essay

Write a short note on tropical thorn scrub vegetation in Sri Lanka.

10c
Part B · Essay

Write a short note on how ornamental fish culture affects the environment.

2025 · Answers & reviewsMEDVision answers

Answer key — this booklet

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Answer key — original 2025 paper (MEDVision model answers)

For students working from the original paper. Shaded cells: check against the official marking scheme (amber = likely, red = disputed).

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Paper I — reviews

1
Answer 4 Nuclear pore complexes regulate traffic of macromolecules across the envelope. Traps: the lamina lines the nucleoplasmic (inner) side, the perinuclear space is 20–40 nm (not µm), the nucleolus has no membrane, and chromatin is diffuse in non-dividing cells.
2
Answer 3 Chemistry (e.g. Miller–Urey type simulations), geology (ancient rocks and fossils) and physics supply the evidence; the origin of life itself is the biological outcome being explained. The examiners' key excluded biology, so treat this as a medium-confidence item.
3
Answer 3 Development refers to the changes during an organism's life span. Growth is an irreversible increase in dry mass, metabolism includes both anabolic and catabolic reactions, evolution acts on populations over generations, and reproduction ensures continuity of the species, not survival of the individual.
4
Answer 1 Only A is correct. The roles and shapes of tRNA and mRNA are swapped: mRNA is linear and carries the code, tRNA is the clover-leaf molecule that carries amino acids.
5
Answer 4 Membrane proteins anchor the cytoskeleton/ECM, form intercellular junctions and act as receptors. Fluidity is regulated by cholesterol and unsaturated fatty-acid tails of phospholipids, not by proteins.
6
Answer 2 Only separation of sister chromatids at anaphase belongs to mitosis. Chiasma formation (prophase I) and bivalents at the equator (metaphase I) are meiotic events.
7
Answer 2 Some cofactors (prosthetic groups) are permanently bound. Only a few amino acids form the active site, allosteric regulators bind weakly (non-covalently), non-competitive inhibitors bind elsewhere, and the rate plateaus at saturation.
8
Answer 4 Light excites pigment electrons in both PS I and PS II. NADP⁺ is reduced via PS I and ferredoxin, water electrons replace those lost from P680 of PS II, and the reaction centre holds a special pair of chlorophyll a.
9
Answer 2 Kingdoms classify cellular organisms; viruses are acellular particles. The other options are true of viruses but are not the reason for their exclusion.
10
Answer 4 Ferns (Pterophyta) are mostly homosporous, with a bisexual prothallus and a dominant sporophyte. Bryophytes are gametophyte-dominant, and cycads, conifers and flowering plants are heterosporous.
11
Answer 5 Echinoderms, nematodes and most arthropods have separate sexes. Flatworms (Platyhelminthes) are typically hermaphrodite.
12
Answer 2 Soft wood is gymnosperm wood lacking vessels, heart wood is non-conducting and impregnated with decay-resistant substances, and hard wood is angiosperm wood with vessels. Heart wood does not conduct water, so S never pairs with B.
13
Answer 1 Bark is all tissue outside the vascular cambium: primary and secondary phloem, cork cambium and cork. Any list containing xylem or pith is wrong.
14
Answer 4 Sucrose is loaded against a gradient by H⁺–sucrose symporters using the proton gradient made by ATP-driven pumps, which is active transport. Bulk flow describes movement along the sieve tube, not loading.
15
Answer 4 Epiphytic orchids use the host only for support and light without harming it (+/0). Loranthus and Cuscuta are parasites, Rhizobium–legume is mutualism, and Nepenthes is insectivorous.
16
Answer 3 In Selaginella the male gametophyte is reduced and non-photosynthetic within the microspore, while the exposed female gametophyte may develop chlorophyll. Liverwort and fern gametophytes are all green; seed-plant gametophytes are not photosynthetic.
17
Answer 3 The triple response is caused by ethylene. Gibberellins promote fruit growth, for example in seedless grapes.
18
Answer 3 Salivary amylase starts starch digestion, and saliva (with its mucus) lubricates and cleans the mouth. Saliva has no protease, so protein digestion begins in the stomach.
19
Answer 1 Nucleic acids are broken down to nucleotides only by pancreatic nucleases. Disaccharidases, dipeptidases and nucleotidases are brush-border enzymes that still work. Note: the original item also listed triglycerides, which made it ambiguous.
20
Answer 3 In complete diastole the AV valves are open and ventricles fill passively. The SA node in the right atrium is the pacemaker, atrial systole lasts 0.1 s, and semilunar valves are closed in diastole.
21
Answer 3 The left lung is smaller (cardiac notch) with two lobes; the right lung has three. The parietal pleura lines the thoracic wall, and alveoli have no cilia or mucus.
22
Answer 2 The PCT reabsorbs glucose and HCO₃⁻, the descending limb is permeable to water, the ascending limb pumps out NaCl but is impermeable to water, and the DCT secretes K⁺. The main trap is pairing water reabsorption with the ascending limb.
23
Answer 3 Sympathetic preganglionic fibres stimulate the adrenal medulla directly. Bladder emptying, bronchoconstriction, gall-bladder contraction and increased peristalsis are parasympathetic effects.
24
Answer 4 Endolymph fills the membranous labyrinth (cochlear duct, utricle, saccule, semicircular ducts). The vestibular and tympanic canals contain perilymph.
25
Answer 1 Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus trigger more ADH release. ADH inserts aquaporins into the collecting duct, so more water is reabsorbed and a small volume of concentrated urine is produced.
26
Answer 2 Growing follicles secrete gradually rising oestradiol in the follicular phase. The ovulated oocyte is arrested at metaphase II, menstruation (not ovulation) sheds the lining, the placenta takes over progesterone production, and no new oogonia form after birth.
27
Answer 2 The human yolk sac is the source of primordial germ cells and early blood cells. The amnion encloses the embryo, the chorion forms the foetal placenta, and the allantois is linked to the bladder and umbilical vessels; the human yolk sac stores little yolk.
28
Answer 3 The sacrum bears paired sacral foramina for nerves. The adult column has 26 bones, transverse foramina are cervical, only C2–C6 have bifid spines, and the lumbar curve is convex anteriorly.
29
Answer 2 The deep ball-and-socket hip joint is built for weight-bearing stability. The humerus articulates with the scapula (glenoid cavity), the knee is mainly a hinge, the radius and ulna meet the capitulum and trochlea separately, and the ankle involves the talus.
30
Answer 4 q² = 0.16, so q = 0.4 and p = 0.6; heterozygotes = 2pq = 2 × 0.6 × 0.4 = 0.48. The traps are 0.16 (q²) and 0.36 (p²).
31
Answer 2 Polyploidy enlarges cells and organs, and triploids (odd sets) are sterile, giving seedless fruits. It is induced with colchicine (not plant hormones), and polyploids often grow more slowly.
32
Answer 4 A polysome (polyribosome) lets many ribosomes translate one mRNA at once, raising output. Signal sequences and Golgi transport target proteins, and stop codons end translation.
33
Answer 4 Nucleases excise the damaged segment, DNA polymerase fills the gap and ligase seals the backbone. Poor repair allows mutations that can cause cancer. The trap is giving ligase the cutting or filling role.
34
Answer 3 Fewer trophic transfers means less energy loss, but the chain must start with a producer, be in the correct order and contain species that live together. Deer → leopard has no producer, option 4 is reversed, and kangaroos and Bengal tigers never co-occur.
35
Answer 3 Taiga – moose, desert – camel, tundra – arctic fox, temperate grassland – bison. The original item paired savanna, tundra, coniferous forest and chaparral with lion, reindeer, brown bear and goat.
36
Answer 1 Methyl bromide depletes ozone, so more UV-B reaches the surface and raises cataract and skin cancer rates (it also damages corals). CO₂ does not thicken ozone, and mercury in water comes from industry and mining, not poultry farms.
37
Answer 2 BCG contains live attenuated Mycobacterium bovis, and tetanus vaccine is a toxoid. Ready-made antibodies give passive, not vaccine-induced, immunity. The original item asked the same about the measles and cholera vaccines.
38
Answer 3 Mesophiles act first and thermophiles take over as the heap heats. Composting is aerobic, so aeration helps. Actinomycetes, fungi and protozoa also contribute.
39
Answer 2 Coliforms are Gram-negative, non-spore-forming, aerobic/facultative rods that ferment lactose with gas within 48 h at 35 °C. Watch for traps in shape, Gram reaction, spores, sugar and temperature.
40
Answer 3 Embryonic stem cells are pluripotent, while adult stem cells are multipotent and restricted to certain cell types. The other features are shared by both.
41
Answer 2 Pyruvate loses CO₂ to form acetaldehyde, which is reduced (not oxidised) by NADH to ethanol, regenerating NAD⁺. All the ATP comes from glycolysis, and one glucose gives two ethanol and two CO₂, so A, C and D are correct.
42
Answer 1 Paramecium has a pellicle, Amoeba has a contractile vacuole and Euglena moves by a flagellum. Gelidium is a non-flagellated red alga and Amoeba is heterotrophic, so A, B and D are correct.
43
Answer 1 Dichogamy, heterostyly and self-incompatibility all promote outcrossing. Cleistogamy (closed flowers) and homostylous bisexual flowers favour self-pollination, so A, B and D are correct.
44
Answer 5 Epithelia protect, secrete and absorb (A, B, E). Insulation is a role of adipose (connective) tissue and impulse conduction belongs to nervous tissue. A, B and E is not a listed combination, so the answer is (5).
45
Answer 2 Neutrophils are abundant phagocytes, NK cells are lymphocytes of innate immunity, and basophils release histamine. Monocytes have a kidney-shaped unlobed nucleus and antibodies come from plasma cells, so A, C and D are correct.
46
Answer 3 Association areas integrate and interpret information and carry out complex thinking (A, B). Receiving raw sensations is the job of primary sensory areas, direct motor commands come from the primary motor cortex, and photoreceptors are in the eye.
47
Answer 5 Spermatogenesis starts at puberty, the acrosome holds hydrolytic enzymes and the mid-piece is packed with mitochondria (A, B, E). Sertoli cells (not Leydig cells) nourish sperm, and motility is gained in the epididymis. A, B and E is an 'other' combination.
48
Answer 5 Sugaring, salting, vinegar (acetic acid) pickling and sun drying are household methods. Irradiation is an industrial method, so A, B, C and E is an 'other' combination.
49
Answer 1 Clostridium is an obligate anaerobe, Nitrosomonas is a chemoautotroph and purple sulphur bacteria are photoautotrophs. E. coli is a facultative anaerobe and Lactobacillus is microaerophilic, so A, B and D are correct.
50
Answer 2 Probes are labelled single strands that hybridise with complementary DNA or RNA and are used in blotting and fingerprinting (A, C, D). Restriction enzymes cut DNA, and dideoxynucleotides terminate chains in sequencing.

Paper II — marking points

1A
  1. Monosaccharides: sweet, water-soluble, crystalline, reducing sugars (any two)
  2. Lipid test indicator: Sudan III (red stain in lipid)
  3. Non-reducing sugar test first step: boil the solution with dilute HCl to hydrolyse (then neutralise with NaHCO₃ before Benedict's)
  4. Secondary structure protein: keratin (α-helix) / silk fibroin (β-pleated sheet)
  5. Quaternary structure protein: collagen
  6. 70S ribosomes in prokaryotes: cytoplasm (free in cytosol)
  7. 70S ribosomes in eukaryotes: mitochondrial matrix and chloroplast stroma
  8. Middle lamella main component: calcium pectate (pectins)
1B
  1. Cellulose manufacture: plasma membrane (cellulose synthase complexes); Golgi makes other wall polysaccharides
  2. Converting fatty acids to sugar: glyoxysomes
  3. Glycoprotein synthesis: rough ER (with Golgi apparatus)
  4. Carbohydrate metabolism: smooth ER
  5. Water balance: contractile vacuole / central vacuole
  6. Detoxification: smooth ER (also peroxisomes)
  7. Separation of sister chromatids: anaphase II; crossing over: prophase I; nuclear envelope reforms: telophase I and telophase II
  8. Substrate-level phosphorylation: cytosol (glycolysis) and mitochondrial matrix (Krebs cycle)
  9. Above optimum temperature: rate falls rapidly as H-bonds and other weak bonds break, active site shape changes, enzyme denatures
  10. Chlorophyll b graph: axes absorbance vs wavelength; peaks in blue (~450–470 nm) and red-orange (~640–650 nm), trough in green (500–600 nm)
1C
  1. NADH → about 2.5 ATP; FADH₂ → about 1.5 ATP
  2. Link reaction products: acetyl CoA, CO₂, NADH (per pyruvate)
  3. Prokaryotes ~3.5 billion years ago, eukaryotes ~1.8 billion years ago → about 1.7 (1.5–2) billion years later
  4. Earliest tetrapods evolved from lobe-finned fishes (Sarcopterygii)
  5. First food chains (predator–prey relationships): about 535–525 million years ago (Cambrian explosion)
  6. Large trees with roots, stems and leaves: about 385 million years ago (Devonian)
2A
  1. Author's name (often abbreviated) written after the species name in non-italic form, e.g. Homo sapiens L.
  2. Endothermy: Aves, Mammalia
  3. Keratinised structures: Reptilia, Aves, Mammalia (any two)
  4. External fertilisation: Amphibia, Osteichthyes (also Cyclostomata)
  5. Shark external features: placoid scales, 5–7 pairs of gill slits without operculum, heterocercal caudal fin, ventral mouth, claspers in males (any three)
  6. Phyla respiring only through body wall: Porifera, Cnidaria, Platyhelminthes, Nematoda (any three)
  7. Pigments common to brown and golden-brown algae: chlorophyll a, chlorophyll c, fucoxanthin (also β-carotene)
2B
  1. Spring wood vessels: wider lumen, thinner walls; summer wood vessels narrower with thicker walls
  2. Stain: safranin (stains lignified walls red)
  3. Phloem sap is rich in sugar (sucrose) and organic solutes; xylem sap is mainly water and mineral ions
  4. Calcium (Ca²⁺) acts as a second messenger in plant signal transduction
  5. Ovary wall develops into the pericarp (fruit wall)
  6. Gravity detected by statoliths (starch-filled amyloplasts) settling to the lower side of root cap columella cells
2C
  1. Bone: cells (osteocytes) scattered in abundant extracellular matrix of collagen fibres and calcium phosphate; derived from mesoderm
  2. Gastritis causes: Helicobacter pylori infection; excess alcohol, smoking, stress, spicy/irregular meals (any two)
  3. Antioxidant vitamins: vitamin C, vitamin E (also A/β-carotene)
  4. Annelid respiratory pigments: haemoglobin (erythrocruorin), chlorocruorin, haemerythrin
  5. CO₂ binds to amino groups of globin chains, not to the haem iron, so it does not compete with O₂
  6. Cigarette smoke irritates bronchi, increases mucus secretion and damages/paralyses cilia, so mucus and particles accumulate, causing inflammation and infection of bronchi
  7. Sebum is oily and acidic (pH ~3–5) with fatty acids that inhibit microbial growth on skin
3A
  1. Type of nitrogenous excretory product depends on habitat (water availability) and evolutionary history (also mode of reproduction)
  2. Malpighian tubules open into the gut at the junction of midgut and hindgut
  3. Kidney hormone erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production in bone marrow
  4. Coordination links stimuli to suitable responses so the organism responds to environmental changes, maintains homeostasis and survives
  5. Radial nerves: phylum Echinodermata
  6. PNS: cranial nerves, spinal nerves and ganglia (sensory/afferent and motor/efferent divisions — somatic and autonomic)
  7. Corpus callosum connects the two cerebral hemispheres
  8. Respiration regulated by medulla oblongata and pons
  9. Olfaction: olfactory receptor (chemoreceptor) cells; angular head movement: hair cells in ampullae of semicircular canals
  10. Ciliary muscles change lens shape for accommodation; choroid is pigmented to absorb stray light and supplies blood to the retina
3B
  1. PTH raises blood Ca²⁺ concentration
  2. Target sites: bone, kidney, small intestine (indirectly via activated vitamin D)
  3. Parthenogenetic invertebrate: honey bee (drones), aphids, Daphnia, rotifers
  4. Spermatogenesis diagram: primary spermatocyte (2n) → meiosis I → two secondary spermatocytes (n) → meiosis II → four spermatids (n) → differentiation → spermatozoa
  5. Ovary TS: primary follicles, secondary follicles, Graafian follicle, corpus luteum, corpus albicans, oocytes (any three)
  6. Breast milk components resisting infection: antibodies (IgA), lactoferrin, lysozyme, white blood cells
  7. Abortion drugs (e.g. mifepristone/RU-486) block progesterone receptors so the endometrium cannot be maintained and is shed; prostaglandins induce uterine contractions
  8. Bacterial STIs: gonorrhoea, syphilis, chlamydia
3C
  1. Nematodes: longitudinal muscles contract against fluid under pressure in the pseudocoel, producing undulating/thrashing movement
  2. Fusiform (streamlined) body reduces air resistance (drag) during flight
  3. Paired cranial bones: parietal and temporal
  4. Sternum also gives attachment for muscles and ribs/clavicles, aiding breathing; its red marrow forms blood cells
  5. Degenerative non-inflammatory joint disease: osteoarthritis
  6. Binding of a new ATP molecule to the myosin head releases it from actin, breaking the cross bridge
  7. Pedigree: mother of 3rd generation is affected but had an unaffected father → Hh
  8. Father of 3rd generation is affected: HH or Hh (cannot be decided from the chart)
4A
  1. Initiation complex: mRNA, small and large ribosomal subunits, initiator tRNA carrying methionine (with initiation factors/GTP)
  2. Single-strand binding (SSB) proteins prevent re-pairing
  3. DNA analysis techniques: gel electrophoresis, DNA sequencing, nucleic acid hybridisation/Southern blotting, restriction fragment analysis (RFLP)/DNA fingerprinting
  4. Community: all populations of different species living and interacting in an area at a given time
  5. Ecosystem: a community together with its abiotic environment interacting, with energy flow and nutrient cycling
  6. Tundra soil moist: permafrost prevents drainage and low temperature reduces evaporation
  7. Salt marshes: high salinity, regular tidal flooding, waterlogged anoxic muddy soil, nutrient rich
  8. Flagship species: a charismatic species used as a symbol to raise public support for conservation of a habitat (e.g. Asian elephant)
  9. Hotspots: very high numbers of endemic species and high threat — lost ≥70% of original habitat
4B
  1. Desertification drivers: climatic variation (drought) and human activities (overgrazing, deforestation, poor land use)
  2. Basel Convention controls transboundary movement and disposal of hazardous wastes
  3. Ozone layer: Montreal Protocol (under the Vienna Convention)
  4. Mattresses: ethylene oxide gas; anthrax-contaminated buildings: chlorine dioxide gas (or formaldehyde vapour)
  5. Smear: clean grease-free slide → place a drop of toddy with a sterile loop and spread thinly → air dry → heat fix by passing through a flame → stain
  6. S. typhi toxin is an endotoxin: lipopolysaccharide (lipid A) of outer membrane, released on cell lysis, heat stable, weakly immunogenic/not neutralised by antitoxin, causes fever (any two)
4C
  1. Phosphate solubilising bacteria secrete organic acids that lower pH and chelate Ca/Fe/Al, converting insoluble phosphates to soluble forms; phosphatases mineralise organic P
  2. Vitamin B12 producers: Propionibacterium, Pseudomonas, Streptomyces
  3. Internal (intrinsic) factors: pH, moisture/water activity, nutrient content, redox potential, natural antimicrobial substances, biological structure
  4. Water contaminating genera other than Vibrio: Salmonella, Shigella, Escherichia, Campylobacter
  5. Seed must be mature/after-ripened and must have overcome dormancy before germination (with water, O₂ and suitable temperature available)
5a
  1. Occurs in the stroma of chloroplasts; uses ATP and NADPH from light reactions
  2. Three phases: carbon fixation, reduction, regeneration of RuBP
  3. Fixation: CO₂ combines with RuBP (5C) catalysed by rubisco
  4. Forms an unstable 6C intermediate that splits into two 3-phosphoglycerate (PGA, 3C)
  5. Reduction: PGA phosphorylated by ATP to 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate
  6. 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate reduced by NADPH to glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P)
  7. For 3 CO₂ fixed, 6 G3P formed; 1 G3P leaves the cycle as net product
  8. G3P used to make glucose, sucrose, starch and other organic compounds
  9. Regeneration: remaining 5 G3P rearranged to 3 RuBP using ATP
  10. Per 3 CO₂: 9 ATP and 6 NADPH used; per glucose: 18 ATP and 12 NADPH
  11. ADP, Pi and NADP⁺ return to the thylakoid light reactions
  12. Light-independent but indirectly depends on light; enzymes light-activated
5b
  1. Eukaryotic, mostly multicellular (yeasts unicellular)
  2. Body made of hyphae forming a mycelium; septate or aseptate (coenocytic)
  3. Cell walls contain chitin
  4. Heterotrophic by absorption: secrete exoenzymes and absorb digested food
  5. Saprotrophs, parasites or mutualists (mycorrhizae, lichens)
  6. Lack chlorophyll; store food as glycogen and oil
  7. No embryo stage; no flagellated cells (except chytrids)
  8. Reproduce asexually by spores, budding or fragmentation
  9. Sexual reproduction by plasmogamy, heterokaryotic/dikaryotic stage, karyogamy, meiosis
  10. Spores produced in sporangia/fruiting bodies; dispersed by wind/water
  11. Haploid-dominant life cycle; zygote only diploid stage
  12. Phyla: Chytridiomycota, Zygomycota, Glomeromycota, Ascomycota, Basidiomycota
6a
  1. Epidermis (piliferous layer): single layer of thin-walled cells, no cuticle, bears root hairs
  2. Cortex: wide, several layers of thin-walled parenchyma with intercellular spaces; stores starch
  3. Endodermis: innermost cortical layer; barrel-shaped cells with Casparian strips (suberin) in radial and transverse walls
  4. Passage cells in endodermis opposite xylem
  5. Pericycle: one layer of parenchyma inside endodermis; gives rise to lateral roots
  6. Vascular cylinder (stele) with radial arrangement of xylem and phloem alternating
  7. Xylem exarch (protoxylem towards outside, metaxylem towards centre)
  8. Usually 2–6 xylem strands (diarch to hexarch)
  9. Phloem groups between xylem arms
  10. Conjunctive parenchyma between xylem and phloem
  11. Pith small or absent (metaxylem meets in centre)
  12. Diagram expected: labelled TS of dicot root
6b
  1. Low temperature reduces membrane fluidity; membranes become rigid, transport and membrane protein function impaired
  2. Enzyme activity, respiration and photosynthesis slowed; growth reduced
  3. Chilling injury: leakage of solutes, membrane damage
  4. Freezing: ice crystals form in cell walls/intercellular spaces, drawing water out → dehydration of cytoplasm
  5. Intracellular ice ruptures membranes and organelles → cell death
  6. Water uptake by roots reduced (cold soil) → water stress
  7. Response: increase the proportion of unsaturated fatty acids in membrane lipids to maintain fluidity
  8. Accumulation of solutes (sugars, proline) lowers freezing point and reduces dehydration
  9. Synthesis of antifreeze / cold-shock proteins that limit ice crystal growth
  10. Cold acclimation: gradual exposure induces tolerance genes
  11. Dormancy of buds, leaf fall in deciduous plants, perennation as seeds/underground organs
  12. Abscisic acid involved in cold stress signalling
7a
  1. NK cells are lymphocytes of innate (non-specific) defence
  2. Circulate in blood and lymph; patrol the body
  3. Recognise cells with reduced/abnormal MHC class I molecules (virus-infected and cancer cells)
  4. Do not need prior exposure or antigen-specific receptors
  5. Release perforin forming pores in target cell membrane
  6. Release granzymes that enter and trigger apoptosis of the target cell
  7. Kill infected cells before virus multiplies further, limiting spread
  8. Destroy tumour cells – immune surveillance
  9. Secrete cytokines (e.g. interferon-γ) that activate macrophages
  10. Also kill antibody-coated cells (antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity)
  11. Link innate and adaptive responses
7b
  1. Immunity produced by the person's own immune system after exposure to an antigen
  2. Natural active immunity: follows infection by the pathogen
  3. Artificial active immunity: follows vaccination (immunisation)
  4. Vaccines: live attenuated, inactivated/killed, toxoids, subunit/recombinant, mRNA
  5. Antigen presented by APCs to helper T cells which activate B and cytotoxic T cells
  6. Clonal selection and proliferation of specific lymphocytes
  7. B cells form plasma cells secreting antibodies (humoral response)
  8. Cytotoxic T cells destroy infected cells (cell-mediated response)
  9. Memory B and T cells formed
  10. Primary response slow; secondary response faster, stronger and longer lasting
  11. Long-lasting (sometimes lifelong) protection, but takes time to develop
  12. Contrasts with passive immunity (ready-made antibodies, short-lived)
8a
  1. Synapse: junction between neuron and another neuron/effector
  2. Presynaptic membrane at synaptic terminal containing vesicles of neurotransmitter and mitochondria
  3. Synaptic cleft ~20 nm wide
  4. Postsynaptic membrane with ligand-gated ion channel receptors
  5. Action potential reaches terminal, depolarises membrane
  6. Voltage-gated Ca²⁺ channels open; Ca²⁺ enters terminal
  7. Ca²⁺ causes vesicles to fuse with presynaptic membrane, releasing neurotransmitter (e.g. acetylcholine) by exocytosis
  8. Neurotransmitter diffuses across cleft and binds receptors
  9. Ligand-gated channels open; Na⁺ influx → EPSP (or K⁺/Cl⁻ → IPSP)
  10. Summation of EPSPs reaching threshold generates action potential
  11. Neurotransmitter removed by enzymes (acetylcholinesterase) or reuptake, ending signal
  12. Transmission one-way and involves synaptic delay
8b
  1. Progressive degenerative disorder of the motor system
  2. Symptoms: resting tremor
  3. Muscle rigidity / stiffness
  4. Slowness of movement (bradykinesia), difficulty initiating movements
  5. Poor balance and posture, shuffling gait
  6. Mask-like face, soft speech, small handwriting
  7. Later: depression, sleep and cognitive problems
  8. Cause: death of dopamine-releasing neurons in the substantia nigra of midbrain
  9. Dopamine deficiency in basal nuclei disrupts control of movement
  10. Accumulation of protein aggregates (Lewy bodies, α-synuclein)
  11. Risk factors: ageing, genetic mutations (few cases), environmental toxins
  12. No cure; L-dopa treatment relieves symptoms
9a
  1. Aim: obtain pure DNA free of proteins, RNA, lipids, carbohydrates
  2. Collect and homogenise tissue/cells (grinding, blending) to break cell walls
  3. Lyse cells and nuclear membranes using detergent (e.g. SDS) / buffer
  4. Lysozyme for bacterial walls; cellulase for plant cells
  5. Salt (NaCl) added to neutralise DNA charges and help clump DNA
  6. Protease (proteinase K) degrades proteins including histones
  7. RNase removes RNA
  8. Remove proteins/debris with phenol–chloroform extraction or centrifugation
  9. Precipitate DNA using ice-cold ethanol or isopropanol
  10. DNA appears as white threads, spooled or pelleted by centrifugation
  11. Wash with 70% ethanol and dissolve in TE buffer/water
  12. Check purity and quantity by spectrophotometry (A260/A280) or gel electrophoresis
  13. EDTA chelates Mg²⁺ inhibiting DNases
9b
  1. Aim: remove solids, organic matter (BOD), toxic chemicals and pathogens before discharge
  2. Preliminary treatment: screening and grit removal of large debris
  3. Primary treatment: sedimentation in settling tanks removes suspended solids; physical principle
  4. Neutralisation/chemical treatment of acids, alkalis; coagulation/flocculation (alum) removes colloids
  5. Secondary treatment: biological degradation of dissolved organic matter by aerobic microbes
  6. Activated sludge process: aeration with microbial floc; floc settles and part recycled
  7. Trickling filter: wastewater sprayed over rocks with microbial biofilm
  8. Reduces BOD substantially
  9. Anaerobic digestion of sludge produces methane (biogas); digested sludge dried
  10. Tertiary treatment: removal of N, P, heavy metals by chemical precipitation, filtration, adsorption (activated carbon)
  11. Disinfection by chlorination/UV/ozone kills pathogens
  12. Treated effluent tested to meet discharge standards (CEA)
10a
  1. Traits controlled by a single gene with two alleles showing dominance
  2. Follow Mendel's laws of segregation and independent assortment
  3. Dominant traits: widow's peak, free earlobes, freckles, dimples, tongue rolling (traditional examples)
  4. Recessive traits: straight hairline, attached earlobes
  5. Recessive disorders: albinism, cystic fibrosis, sickle-cell anaemia, Tay–Sachs, phenylketonuria
  6. Dominant disorders: Huntington disease, achondroplasia
  7. Recessive disorders appear in homozygotes; heterozygotes are carriers
  8. Dominant: one allele enough, affected person usually has an affected parent
  9. Studied using pedigree analysis
  10. Sex-linked Mendelian traits: colour blindness, haemophilia
10b
  1. Found in arid zone: Hambantota, Mannar, Puttalam, Jaffna coastal areas
  2. Rainfall < 1250 mm, long dry season, high temperature and evaporation
  3. Sandy, saline soils
  4. Vegetation of thorny shrubs and scattered small trees, open canopy
  5. Plants: Acacia, Euphorbia, Cassia, Opuntia, Ziziphus, Salvadora, Carissa
  6. Xerophytic adaptations: thorns, small/reduced leaves, succulence, deep roots, thick cuticle
  7. Deciduous in dry season
  8. Fauna: elephants, deer, wild boar, peacocks, reptiles
  9. Part of Yala, Bundala, Wilpattu areas
  10. Threats: grazing, fire, clearing, invasive species (Prosopis juliflora)
10c
  1. Overharvesting of wild fish (e.g. endemic species) for trade reduces natural populations
  2. Introduction of exotic/alien invasive species through escapes or release
  3. Invasive fish compete with and prey on native species, reducing biodiversity
  4. Spread of diseases and parasites to wild fish
  5. Genetic pollution through hybridisation with native species
  6. Effluent rich in nutrients and organic waste causes eutrophication
  7. Chemicals, antibiotics and hormones in wastewater pollute water bodies, antibiotic resistance
  8. Destructive collection methods damage habitats (e.g. reefs)
  9. High water use
  10. Mitigation: regulation, captive breeding, quarantine, waste water treatment

Scan notes: All 50 MCQs and all Paper II parts present; OCR clear. Only figure (pedigree, P2 3C(v)) read from page image. Q19 ambiguous (nucleic acids vs triglycerides both depend on pancreatic enzymes).

2026

G.C.E. (Advanced Level) — Biology

Current syllabus (2019 onward) · Re-set practice paper

Paper I50 MCQs · 2 hoursAnswer all. Choose the one correct or most suitable option.
Paper II25 parts in this booklet · 3 hoursPart A: answer all structured questions. Part B: answer four essays.

Every question tests the same concept as question of the same number in the 2026 paper, re-written by MEDVision. Source coverage: Paper I + Paper II (two Part A pages missing from scan).

2026 · Paper IMultiple choice
1.

Which of the following diseases can be passed from one person to another by an infectious agent?

  1. 1Stroke
  2. 2Osteoarthritis
  3. 3Lung cancer
  4. 4Tuberculosis
  5. 5Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
U1 · Biology, health & society
2.

Which one of the following statements about the levels of protein structure is correct?

  1. 1Proteins of living organisms are built from about 30 different kinds of amino acids.
  2. 2Silk fibroin is a protein whose secondary structure is mainly an α-helix.
  3. 3Myoglobin, which has a single polypeptide chain, shows quaternary structure.
  4. 4The secondary structure of a protein is formed by peptide bonds between R groups.
  5. 5A protein such as haemoglobin, built from four polypeptide chains, has quaternary structure.
U2 · Biomolecules & water
3.

Consider the following pairs of organelles and functions.
A — Smooth ER: stores Ca²⁺ ions in muscle fibres
B — Lysosome: hydrolysis of old, damaged organelles
C — Rough ER: synthesis of steroid hormones
D — Peroxisome: synthesis of ribosomal RNA
Which pairs are correct?

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2A and C only
  3. 3B and D only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5A, B and C only
U2 · Cell organelles & structure
4.

At which two stages of meiosis do the chromosomes uncoil and become less visible under the light microscope?

  1. 1Prophase I and metaphase I
  2. 2Telophase I and telophase II
  3. 3Anaphase I and prophase II
  4. 4Prophase I and telophase II
  5. 5Metaphase II and anaphase II
U2 · Cell cycle, mitosis & meiosis
5.

Which statement about the regulation of enzyme activity by inhibitors is correct?

  1. 1A competitive inhibitor binds to a site on the enzyme away from the active site.
  2. 2Non-competitive inhibition can be overcome by increasing substrate concentration.
  3. 3Binding of an allosteric inhibitor at a regulatory site stabilises the inactive form, lowering the activity of all active sites of a multi-subunit enzyme.
  4. 4In feedback inhibition, the end product of a pathway combines with the first substrate.
  5. 5A high ATP concentration allosterically activates enzymes that produce ATP.
U2 · Enzymes
6.

Which of the following statements about C₄ photosynthesis in a plant such as maize is correct?

  1. 1PEP carboxylase fixes CO₂ in the bundle sheath cells.
  2. 2CO₂ released from malate in the bundle sheath cells is fixed again by Rubisco into the Calvin cycle.
  3. 3Oxaloacetate is the compound that is carried from mesophyll to bundle sheath cells.
  4. 4Pyruvate formed in the bundle sheath cells is converted to malate in the mesophyll cells.
  5. 5The Calvin cycle takes place only in the mesophyll cells.
U2 · Photosynthesis
7.

Consider these statements about the link reaction (pyruvate oxidation) for one glucose molecule.
A — Pyruvate enters the mitochondrion by simple diffusion without using energy.
B — Converting the two pyruvates to acetyl CoA releases two CO₂ molecules.
C — The link reaction itself makes ATP by substrate-level phosphorylation.
Which is/are correct?

  1. 1A only
  2. 2B only
  3. 3C only
  4. 4A and B only
  5. 5B and C only
U2 · Cellular respiration & fermentation
8.

Which of the following ideas formed part of Lamarck's explanation of evolution?

  1. 1Individuals with favourable variations leave more offspring.
  2. 2Populations produce more offspring than the environment can support.
  3. 3Heritable variation exists among members of a population.
  4. 4Organs used often become larger and stronger, and these acquired changes are inherited.
  5. 5Individuals in a population compete for limited resources.
U3 · Origin of life & evolution
9.

Which of the following is/are regarded as artificial groupings rather than natural lineages?
A — Kingdom Protista
B — Domain Archaea
C — Viruses

  1. 1A only
  2. 2C only
  3. 3A and C only
  4. 4B and C only
  5. 5A, B and C
U3 · Classification & taxonomy
10.

Which feature could be used to tell apart a green alga (Ulva), a red alga (Gelidium) and a brown alga (Sargassum)?

  1. 1The main storage carbohydrate
  2. 2Presence of chlorophyll a
  3. 3Marine habitat
  4. 4Multicellular body
  5. 5Cellulose in the cell wall
U3 · Prokaryotes, protists & fungi
11.

Which set lists only chordate classes whose members are ectothermic and have an endoskeleton made of bone?

  1. 1Chondrichthyes, Osteichthyes and Amphibia
  2. 2Osteichthyes, Amphibia and Reptilia
  3. 3Amphibia, Reptilia and Aves
  4. 4Reptilia, Aves and Mammalia
  5. 5Chondrichthyes, Amphibia and Reptilia
U3 · Animal diversity
12.

Match each vascular tissue element with its feature.
Element: A — Tracheid; B — Sieve tube element; C — Vessel element; D — Companion cell
Feature: P — Lignified walls with pits but no perforations; Q — No nucleus, cytoplasm as a thin layer along the wall; R — End walls with perforation plates; S — Active loading of sucrose into phloem

  1. 1A-R, B-Q, C-P, D-S
  2. 2A-P, B-S, C-R, D-Q
  3. 3A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S
  4. 4A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S
  5. 5A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q
U4 · Plant tissues & anatomy
13.

Which of the following happen when a stoma closes?
A — K⁺ ions move out of the guard cells.
B — The water potential of the guard cells becomes lower than that of neighbouring cells.
C — The guard cells become flaccid.

  1. 1A only
  2. 2A and B only
  3. 3A and C only
  4. 4B and C only
  5. 5A, B and C
U4 · Water relations & transport
14.

A plant with separate male and female gametophytes and a plant with separate male and female sporophytes are, respectively,

  1. 1Nephrolepis and Selaginella
  2. 2Pogonatum and Nephrolepis
  3. 3Nephrolepis and Cycas
  4. 4Pogonatum and Cycas
  5. 5Pogonatum and Selaginella
U3 · Plant diversity
15.

Parthenocarpic (seedless) fruits occur naturally or can be induced in which of the following?
A — Banana
B — Pineapple
C — Grape

  1. 1A only
  2. 2A and B only
  3. 3B and C only
  4. 4A and C only
  5. 5A, B and C
U4 · Plant reproduction & life cycles
16.

A dark-grown pea seedling that meets a stone stops elongating, its stem thickens and it grows sideways around the obstacle. Which hormone mainly causes this response?

  1. 1Auxin
  2. 2Cytokinin
  3. 3Ethylene
  4. 4Gibberellin
  5. 5Abscisic acid
U4 · Plant hormones & responses
17.

Which option gives examples of parasitism, commensalism and mutualism, in that order?

  1. 1Nepenthes, Cuscuta and lichen
  2. 2Cuscuta, an epiphytic orchid on a tree and Rhizobium in legume root nodules
  3. 3Epiphytic orchid, Loranthus and Anabaena in Azolla
  4. 4Loranthus, Rhizobium and an epiphytic orchid
  5. 5Drosera, a barnacle on a whale and mycorrhiza
U8 · Populations & ecological interactions
18.

Which 'epithelium – location – function' combination is correct?
Epithelium: A — Simple squamous; B — Stratified squamous; C — Simple cuboidal
Location: P — Lung alveoli; Q — Lining of the oesophagus; R — Kidney tubules
Function: X — Protection against abrasion; Y — Gas exchange by diffusion; Z — Secretion and absorption

  1. 1A-Q-Y
  2. 2B-P-X
  3. 3C-R-Z
  4. 4A-R-X
  5. 5B-Q-Y
U5 · Animal tissues
19.

Which statement about the human digestive system is correct?

  1. 1Bacteria in the large intestine synthesise vitamin D.
  2. 2Water is absorbed not only in the colon but also in the small intestine and, to a small extent, in the stomach.
  3. 3All the muscle in the wall of the alimentary canal is smooth muscle.
  4. 4Cholecystokinin mainly stimulates the secretion of gastric juice.
  5. 5Most chemical digestion of fat takes place in the stomach.
U5 · Digestion & nutrition
20.

Which 'circulatory system – animal' pairs are correct?
A — Open circulatory system: insects
B — Closed double circulatory system: bony fish
C — Closed double circulatory system: birds

  1. 1A only
  2. 2B only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4A and C only
  5. 5B and C only
U5 · Circulation & blood
21.

Which statement about the human heart and major blood vessels is correct?

  1. 1Pressure of blood leaving the right ventricle into the pulmonary trunk is lower than that of blood leaving the left ventricle into the aorta.
  2. 2The left atrioventricular valve has three cusps.
  3. 3Deoxygenated blood from the head and arms returns to the heart through the inferior vena cava.
  4. 4The carotid arteries are the first branches of the aorta.
  5. 5Pulmonary veins carry deoxygenated blood to the left atrium.
U5 · Circulation & blood
22.

Which statement about breathing in humans is correct?

  1. 1Inhalation results from relaxation of the diaphragm.
  2. 2Vital capacity equals tidal volume plus expiratory reserve volume only.
  3. 3The hypothalamus is the main centre that sets the rhythm of breathing.
  4. 4The diaphragm is made of smooth muscle.
  5. 5In exhaled air, the partial pressure of oxygen is greater than that of carbon dioxide.
U5 · Gas exchange
23.

Which statement about human immunity is correct?

  1. 1Injecting antiserum gives life-long immunity.
  2. 2Plasma cells develop from cytotoxic T cells.
  3. 3Antibodies destroy bacteria directly by digesting them.
  4. 4Cytokines released by helper T cells are needed to activate B cells that become antibody-secreting plasma cells.
  5. 5Epitopes are the antigen-binding sites on the receptors of lymphocytes.
U5 · Immunity
24.

In which pairs does a rise in (i) lead to a rise in (ii)?
A — (i) Aldosterone in blood; (ii) Na⁺ reabsorption in the distal tubule
B — (i) ADH in blood; (ii) Volume of urine produced
C — (i) Angiotensin II in blood; (ii) Aldosterone secretion

  1. 1A only
  2. 2A and B only
  3. 3A and C only
  4. 4B and C only
  5. 5A, B and C
U5 · Excretion & osmoregulation
25.

Drugs used to treat schizophrenia mainly block the receptors of which neurotransmitter?

  1. 1GABA
  2. 2Acetylcholine
  3. 3Dopamine
  4. 4Glycine
  5. 5Endorphin
U5 · Nervous system
26.

A passenger's ears 'pop' as an aircraft descends, as air pressure is equalised across the eardrum. The tube responsible connects the

  1. 1middle ear and the pharynx.
  2. 2inner ear and the pharynx.
  3. 3middle ear and the inner ear.
  4. 4outer ear and the middle ear.
  5. 5middle ear and the larynx.
U5 · Sense organs
27.

A patient has a slow heart rate, feels cold easily, has dry skin and is gaining weight despite a poor appetite. Which is the most likely cause?

  1. 1Excessive secretion of thyroxine
  2. 2Underproduction of TSH by the anterior pituitary
  3. 3Excessive secretion of parathyroid hormone
  4. 4Excessive secretion of glucagon
  5. 5Deficiency of ADH
U5 · Endocrine system
28.

Which sequence correctly describes intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)?

  1. 1Oocytes are mixed with many sperm in a dish; embryo is transferred to the uterus; implantation
  2. 2Washed sperm are placed in the uterus near ovulation; fertilisation in the oviduct; implantation
  3. 3Oocytes and sperm are placed together in the oviduct; fertilisation; implantation
  4. 4Oocyte is retrieved; a single sperm is injected into its cytoplasm; the embryo is cultured and transferred to the uterus; implantation
  5. 5An embryo from one woman is transferred to another woman's uterus; implantation
U5 · Reproduction & development
29.

A man takes testosterone injections. Which of the following responses is/are most likely?
A — Reduced secretion of LH from the anterior pituitary
B — Increased release of GnRH from the hypothalamus
C — Increased secretion of FSH

  1. 1A only
  2. 2B only
  3. 3A and B only
  4. 4A and C only
  5. 5B and C only
U5 · Reproduction & development
30.

Which statement about human vertebrae is correct?

  1. 1Lumbar vertebrae have transverse foramina.
  2. 2Turning the head from side to side occurs at the joint between the atlas and the dens of the axis.
  3. 3Thoracic vertebrae have bifid spinous processes.
  4. 4The sacrum is formed by fusion of three vertebrae.
  5. 5The atlas has a large, thick vertebral body.
U5 · Skeleton, muscle & movement
31.

The elbow and the knee are hinge joints. Which movements do such joints mainly permit?

  1. 1Abduction and adduction
  2. 2Rotation and circumduction
  3. 3Flexion and extension
  4. 4Gliding only
  5. 5Abduction and rotation
U5 · Skeleton, muscle & movement
32.

In tomato, tall stem (T) is dominant to dwarf (t) and red fruit (R) is dominant to yellow fruit (r). A tall, red-fruited plant was test-crossed and half the offspring were tall with red fruit while half were tall with yellow fruit. What were the parental genotypes?

  1. 1TTRR × ttrr
  2. 2TtRr × ttrr
  3. 3TTRr × ttrr
  4. 4TtRR × ttrr
  5. 5TTrr × ttRR
U6 · Mendelian inheritance
33.

Which human characteristic is controlled by more than two alleles at a single gene locus?

  1. 1Haemophilia A
  2. 2Height
  3. 3Skin colour
  4. 4ABO blood group
  5. 5Sickle-cell anaemia
U6 · Extensions of Mendelian genetics
34.

The following events occur during the initiation of translation.
P — The small ribosomal subunit binds to the mRNA together with the initiator tRNA carrying methionine.
Q — The anticodon of the initiator tRNA base-pairs with the AUG start codon.
R — The large ribosomal subunit joins to form a functional ribosome.
S — The initiator tRNA comes to occupy the P site of the complete ribosome.
What is the correct order?

  1. 1P, Q, R, S
  2. 2P, R, Q, S
  3. 3R, P, Q, S
  4. 4Q, P, S, R
  5. 5P, Q, S, R
U7 · Gene expression & regulation
35.

Which international agreement specifically regulates the safe transfer, handling and use of living modified organisms across national borders to protect biodiversity?

  1. 1Ramsar Convention
  2. 2CITES
  3. 3Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety
  4. 4Montreal Protocol
  5. 5Kyoto Protocol
U7 · GMOs, biosafety & applications
36.

Which of the following biomes has the smallest range of average annual precipitation?

  1. 1Temperate grassland
  2. 2Tundra
  3. 3Savanna
  4. 4Temperate broadleaf forest
  5. 5Northern coniferous forest
U8 · Biomes & Sri Lankan ecosystems
37.

Which pairs of features of mycoplasmas and unicellular protists are correct?
A — Mycoplasma: no cell wall, so shape is variable | Protists: may be solitary or colonial
B — Mycoplasma: smallest known free-living cells | Protists: all are photosynthetic
C — Mycoplasma: reproduce by binary fission | Protists: asexual fission and sexual reproduction by gametes
D — Mycoplasma: cell wall rich in peptidoglycan | Protists: aerobic or anaerobic

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2A and C only
  3. 3A and D only
  4. 4B and C only
  5. 5C and D only
U9 · Microbial diversity & structure
38.

Streptococcus species cause diseases in which of the following human organ systems?
A — Respiratory system
B — Nervous system
C — Cardiovascular system
D — Digestive system
E — Urinary system

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A, B and C only
  3. 3B, C and E only
  4. 4A, D and E only
  5. 5C, D and E only
U9 · Microbes & disease
39.

Which microorganism is correctly matched with its industrial use?

  1. 1Saccharomyces cerevisiae: production of acetic acid
  2. 2Acetobacter spp.: production of vitamin B₁₂
  3. 3Aspergillus niger: production of citric acid
  4. 4Acetogenic bacteria: production of methane
  5. 5Lactobacillus spp.: production of penicillin
U9 · Industrial & food microbiology
40.

Match each vegetative propagation structure with a plant that uses it.
Structure: A — Corm; B — Runner; C — Stolon
Plant: P — Mint; Q — Spider plant (Chlorophytum); R — Colocasia

  1. 1A-P, B-Q, C-R
  2. 2A-R, B-Q, C-P
  3. 3A-Q, B-R, C-P
  4. 4A-R, B-P, C-Q
  5. 5A-P, B-R, C-Q
U4 · Plant reproduction & life cycles
41.

If a drug stopped the Golgi apparatus of a cell from working, which of the following would be directly affected?
A — Formation of lysosomes
B — Production of non-cellulose cell-wall polysaccharides in a plant cell
C — Synthesis of proteins on ribosomes
D — Sorting and dispatch of membrane proteins and lipids
E — Breakdown of hydrogen peroxide

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3B, C and E only
  4. 4A and D only
  5. 5C and E only
U2 · Cell organelles & structure
42.

Consider: dominant generation P — sporophyte, Q — gametophyte; spore type R — homospores, S — heterospores; examples X — Selaginella, Y — Pogonatum, Z — Nephrolepis.
Which combinations are correct?
A — P-S-X B — Q-R-Y C — P-R-Z D — P-R-X E — Q-S-Y

  1. 1A, B and C only
  2. 2A and D only
  3. 3B, C and E only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5A, B, C and D only
U3 · Plant diversity
43.

Which of the following features of shoot architecture help a plant capture the most light?
A — Phyllotaxy (leaf arrangement)
B — Height of the stem
C — Branching pattern
D — Near-vertical leaves, as in grasses, letting light reach lower leaves
E — Presence of root hairs

  1. 1A, B and C only
  2. 2A, B, C and D only
  3. 3A, C and E only
  4. 4B, D and E only
  5. 5A and D only
U4 · Plant form & growth
44.

Which of the following are functions of the human hypothalamus?
A — Regulating body temperature
B — Coordinating balance and posture
C — Secreting releasing hormones that control the anterior pituitary
D — Controlling thirst and hunger
E — Reflex control of heart rate

  1. 1A, B and C only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3B, D and E only
  4. 4C, D and E only
  5. 5A and E only
U5 · Nervous system
45.

Which statements about human extra-embryonic (fetal) membranes are correct?
A — Amniotic fluid cushions the fetus against mechanical shock and prevents drying.
B — The yolk sac is the source of primordial germ cells that later migrate to the gonads.
C — The allantois secretes hCG, which maintains the corpus luteum.
D — The chorion contributes to the fetal part of the placenta.
E — The amnion forms the umbilical blood vessels.

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3B, C and E only
  4. 4A and D only
  5. 5C and E only
U5 · Reproduction & development
46.

Which 'chromosomal mutation – syndrome' descriptions are correct?
A — Klinefelter syndrome: aneuploidy with an extra sex chromosome (47,XXY)
B — Turner syndrome: polyploidy
C — Down syndrome: aneuploidy with an extra autosome (trisomy 21)
D — Turner syndrome: aneuploidy with one sex chromosome missing (45,X)
E — Down syndrome: monosomy

  1. 1A, B and C only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3B, D and E only
  4. 4C and D only
  5. 5A and E only
U6 · Human genetics & disorders
47.

Which 'Sri Lankan ecosystem – climatic zone' pairs are correct?
A — Tropical thorn forest: arid zone
B — Tropical montane forest: wet zone
C — Dry patana: dry zone
D — Tropical lowland wet evergreen forest: dry zone
E — Wet patana: arid zone

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2A, B and C only
  3. 3B and D only
  4. 4C and E only
  5. 5A, C and D only
U8 · Biomes & Sri Lankan ecosystems
48.

Which options list an exotic (introduced) organism followed by an organism endemic to Sri Lanka?
A — Water hyacinth and purple-faced langur
B — Gliricidia and Sri Lanka junglefowl
C — Tilapia and Indian peafowl
D — Sri Lanka blue magpie and Prosopis
E — Rubber and mugger crocodile

  1. 1A and B only
  2. 2A, B and C only
  3. 3B and D only
  4. 4C and E only
  5. 5A, D and E only
U8 · Biodiversity & conservation
49.

Which statements about the treatment of industrial wastewater are correct?
A — Settleable solids are removed by sedimentation during primary treatment.
B — In the activated sludge process, aerobic microbes oxidise organic matter.
C — Trickling filters are part of tertiary treatment.
D — Sludge is digested by anaerobic microbes to give biogas, mainly methane and CO₂.
E — Anaerobic digestion takes place in the aeration tank of the activated sludge process.

  1. 1A, B and D only
  2. 2A, C and D only
  3. 3B, C and E only
  4. 4A and D only
  5. 5C and E only
U9 · Environmental microbiology & waste treatment
50.

Which characteristics are desirable in a fish species chosen for aquaculture?
A — Good consumer acceptability
B — Accepts formulated (artificial) feed
C — Tolerates high stocking density
D — Breeds uncontrollably in grow-out ponds
E — Reaches sexual maturity at a very small size

  1. 1A, B and C only
  2. 2A, B and D only
  3. 3B, C and E only
  4. 4C, D and E only
  5. 5A and E only
U10 · Aquaculture & animal production
2026 · Paper IIStructured & essay
1A
Part A · Structured

(i) (a) Name the monomer of chitin and give two places where chitin has a structural role.
(b) Give two ways in which NAD⁺ and NADP⁺ are functionally alike.
(ii) Name two structural components found both in the matrix of a mitochondrion and in the stroma of a chloroplast.
(iii) Which protein subunit polymerises to form the microfilaments of animal cells?
(iv) Tabulate three differences between the genetic material of a prokaryotic cell and a eukaryotic cell.
(v) Name the animal cell junction that (a) firmly anchors the cytoskeletons of neighbouring cells, and (b) forms cytoplasmic channels between adjacent cells. Give one tissue where each is found.

1B
Part A · Structured

(i) Name the stage of interphase in which each of the following occurs: (a) packaging of new DNA around histones; (b) duplication of the centrosome; (c) replication of DNA.
(ii) Give one event common to anaphase I and anaphase II of meiosis.
(iii) Give one way in which anaphase I differs from anaphase II.
(iv) Define anabolism.
(v) You are given 1% amylase, 1% starch, iodine solution, pipettes, a dropper, test tubes, a white tile and a stopwatch. List, in order, the steps you would follow to find how long amylase takes to digest the starch at room temperature.

1C
Part A · Structured

(i) Name the two kinds of complex that make up a photosystem and state what each contains.
(ii) For one glucose molecule, how many ATP are formed in the citric acid cycle (a) by substrate-level phosphorylation, and (b) by oxidative phosphorylation of the reduced coenzymes it produces?
(iii) Arrange carbohydrates, proteins and fats in increasing order of respiratory quotient.
(iv) Give the exact site in the cell where (a) CO₂ is released and (b) citrate is formed during aerobic respiration.
(v) List, in order, the main stages by which protocells are thought to have arisen during chemical evolution.

2A
Part A · Structured

(i) (a) List the four species concepts used to define a species.
(b) Give two ways in which protein synthesis in archaea differs from that in bacteria.
(ii) (a) Apart from the nucleus, name two structures visible with a light microscope in both Paramecium and Euglena.
(b) Name a vascular plant group that has: naked seeds with xylem vessels; no seeds and one type of spore; no seeds and two types of spore.
(iii) (a) Name a fungal phylum with septate, dikaryotic hyphae. (b) Name the fungal phylum that includes commensals of humans.
(iv) (a) Give two features that appear for the first time in the animal kingdom in annelids. (b) What is the main role of the mollusc mantle?
(v) (a) How do keratinised scales help reptiles live on land? (b) Name the chordate class in which several different respiratory surfaces are used.

2B
Part A · Structured

(i) (a) Which meristem lets grasses quickly regrow damaged leaves? (b) Name the mechanism of long-distance transport in plants.
(ii) (a) Explain how abscisic acid protects a plant from wilting. (b) State the role of molybdenum in plants.
(iii) (a) Explain what is meant by heteromorphic alternation of generations. (b) Give one adaptation that favours cross-pollination.
(iv) Name the main photoreceptor that controls seed germination.
(v) State the function of (a) tendons and (b) reticular fibres.

2C
Part A · Structured

(i) In a villus of the human small intestine, name (a) the cell layer covering its surface, (b) the network of vessels that takes up glucose and amino acids, and (c) the central blind-ended vessel. State the function of the vessels formed when the central vessels join.
(ii) List the stages of the cardiac cycle in order.
(iii) (a) What does thrombin do during blood clotting? (b) What makes a person Rh-positive?
(iv) (a) Where in the body does the mucus escalator operate? (b) How does it protect the body?
(v) (a) What failure of the immune system leads to autoimmune disease? (b) What is attacked in multiple sclerosis?

3A
Part A · Structured

(i) (a) Name the nitrogenous excretory product that is most toxic, and the one that costs the most energy to make. (b) What is reabsorbed from the descending limb of the loop of Henle?
(ii) Describe the organisation of the nervous system in (a) annelids and (b) echinoderms.
(iii) Give the position of the pons in the human brain and two of its functions.
(iv) Name the thermoreceptors and the mechanoreceptors of human skin.
(v) Where is each of the following hormones made? (a) ADH (b) Aldosterone

3B
Part A · Structured

(i) (a) Explain what a positive feedback mechanism is. (b) Give one human hormone that acts through positive feedback.
(ii) Draw a flow chart of the path of a sperm from where it is made to where it leaves the body.
(iii) Give two functions of the secretion of the bulbourethral glands.
(iv) Name the target cell of FSH and of LH in the testis and state what each cell does.
(v) Name the two cell groups formed when cells of the blastocyst rearrange, and state what each develops into.

3C
Part A · Structured

(i) Give three functions of the human skeleton beyond support and movement, which are common to animal skeletons.
(ii) How many carpal bones and how many tarsal bones does a human have?
(iii) Name the two curvatures of the vertebral column that are convex anteriorly.
(iv) (a) Define codominance. (b) Give one human example.
(v) Name a human disease caused by a pleiotropic allele.

4A
Part A · Structured

(i) Give three differences between DNA replication in prokaryotes and in eukaryotes.
(ii) State the role in DNA replication of (a) helicase and (b) topoisomerase.
(iii) (a) Why is DNA polymerase useful in gene technology? (b) Name the DNA polymerase most used in gene technology and its source organism.
(iv) In what unit are distances between restriction sites expressed on a restriction map?
(v) In making a recombinant DNA molecule, state the use of: restriction enzymes; DNA ligase; gel electrophoresis; probes.

4B
Part A · Structured

(i) Define primary production.
(ii) (a) Which terrestrial biome has the greatest variety of plants and animals? (b) Describe a mangrove ecosystem.
(Later sub-parts of this question are not in the scan.)

4C
Part A · Structured

(Sub-parts (i)–(iv) are not in the scan.)
(v) (a) Explain what adventitious roots are and give an example. (b) Name one type of nanoparticle used in smart drug delivery.

5a
Part B · Essay

Describe the steps of alcoholic fermentation and lactic acid fermentation, and compare the two.

5b
Part B · Essay

Give an account of the main characteristic features of bacteria.

6a
Part B · Essay

Describe how water is lost from a leaf by stomatal transpiration.

6b
Part B · Essay

Explain how root pressure develops and how it leads to guttation.

7a
Part B · Essay

Outline the basic plan of the human lymphatic system and describe its functions.

7b
Part B · Essay

Discuss the risk factors for hypertension and its effects on the body.

8a
Part B · Essay

Describe the microscopic (histological) structure of a human liver lobule.

8b
Part B · Essay

Explain how the liver helps maintain homeostasis in humans.

9a
Part B · Essay

Discuss the value of biodiversity in terms of environmental services and education.

9b
Part B · Essay

Give an account of the toxigenicity of pathogenic microorganisms.

10a
Part B · Essay

Write a short note on dominant epistasis.

10b
Part B · Essay

Write a short note on the environmental issues of genetically modified organisms.

10c
Part B · Essay

Write a short note on postharvest losses during storage.

2026 · Answers & reviewsMEDVision answers

Answer key — this booklet

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Answer key — original 2026 paper (MEDVision model answers)

For students working from the original paper. Shaded cells: check against the official marking scheme (amber = likely, red = disputed).

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Paper I — reviews

1
Answer 4 Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis and spreads by airborne droplets, so it is communicable. The others are non-communicable diseases linked to lifestyle, ageing or environment; do not confuse 'lung' diseases with infections.
2
Answer 5 Quaternary structure needs two or more polypeptide chains; haemoglobin has four (2α + 2β). Proteins use 20 amino acids, silk is a β-pleated sheet, a single-chain protein stops at tertiary structure, and secondary structure is held by backbone hydrogen bonds.
3
Answer 1 Smooth ER (sarcoplasmic reticulum) stores Ca²⁺ and lysosomes carry out autophagy. Steroids are made in smooth ER, not rough ER, and rRNA is made in the nucleolus.
4
Answer 2 Decondensation happens at the end of each division, in telophase I and telophase II. Chromosomes condense (become visible) in prophase, so any option with prophase is a trap.
5
Answer 3 Allosteric inhibitors bind a regulatory site and lock all subunits in the inactive shape. Competitive inhibitors bind the active site; the end product binds the enzyme, not the substrate; ATP inhibits ATP-producing enzymes, while ADP/AMP activate them.
6
Answer 2 Malate moves to the bundle sheath, is decarboxylated, and the CO₂ is refixed by Rubisco. PEP carboxylase acts in mesophyll; oxaloacetate is first reduced to malate; pyruvate returns to the mesophyll to regenerate PEP, not malate.
7
Answer 2 Each pyruvate loses one CO₂, so two are released per glucose. Pyruvate is actively transported into the mitochondrion, and the link reaction produces NADH, not ATP; any ATP from that NADH comes later in the ETC.
8
Answer 4 Lamarck proposed use and disuse and the inheritance of acquired characteristics. The other options are observations and inferences of Darwin's natural selection.
9
Answer 3 Protista groups unrelated eukaryotes that are not plants, animals or fungi, and viruses are placed outside the classification of living cells; both are artificial. Archaea form a natural domain.
10
Answer 1 Ulva stores starch, Gelidium floridean starch and Sargassum laminarin. All three have chlorophyll a, are marine, multicellular and have cellulose walls, so those features cannot separate them.
11
Answer 2 Bony fish, amphibians and reptiles are ectothermic with bony skeletons. Chondrichthyes have cartilage, and birds and mammals are endothermic.
12
Answer 3 Tracheids connect only through pits, vessel elements have perforation plates, mature sieve tube elements keep a thin peripheral cytoplasm, and companion cells load sugar. The common trap is swapping the tracheid and vessel features.
13
Answer 3 Loss of K⁺ raises the guard cells' water potential, so water leaves and they become flaccid, closing the pore. A lower water potential (B) would draw water in and open the stoma.
14
Answer 4 Pogonatum has separate male and female gametophytes, and Cycas has separate male and female trees. The Nephrolepis prothallus is bisexual, and one Selaginella sporophyte bears both micro- and megasporangia.
15
Answer 5 Banana and pineapple naturally form seedless fruits, and seedless grapes are produced, often with gibberellin treatment. All three are correct.
16
Answer 3 This is ethylene's triple response: less elongation, lateral stem thickening and horizontal growth. Auxin and gibberellin promote elongation instead.
17
Answer 2 Cuscuta is a parasite, an epiphytic orchid only uses the tree for support (commensal), and Rhizobium fixes nitrogen for the legume in exchange for sugars (mutualism). Insectivorous plants (Nepenthes, Drosera) are not parasites, and the other sets are in the wrong order.
18
Answer 3 Simple cuboidal epithelium lines kidney tubules and glands, where it secretes and absorbs. Simple squamous suits alveolar diffusion and stratified squamous protects the oesophagus, but neither appears in its correct full combination.
19
Answer 2 Most water is absorbed in the small intestine, the rest in the colon, and a little in the stomach. Colonic bacteria make vitamin K and B vitamins, the upper oesophagus and external anal sphincter are skeletal muscle, CCK acts on the gall bladder and pancreas, and fat is mainly digested in the small intestine.
20
Answer 4 Insects have an open system and birds a closed double circulation. Fish have a single circulation, with blood passing through the heart once per circuit.
21
Answer 1 The pulmonary circuit is a low-pressure system, so pulmonary trunk pressure is lower than aortic pressure. The mitral valve has two cusps, the upper body drains via the superior vena cava, the coronary arteries branch first, and pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood.
22
Answer 5 Exhaled air holds about 16% O₂ and 4% CO₂, so its PO₂ is higher than its PCO₂. The diaphragm is skeletal muscle that contracts during inhalation, the medulla (helped by the pons) controls the rhythm, and VC = TV + IRV + ERV.
23
Answer 4 Helper T cells activate B cells, which form plasma cells that secrete antibodies. Antiserum gives only short-term passive immunity, antibodies tag or neutralise rather than kill, and epitopes are parts of antigens.
24
Answer 3 Aldosterone increases Na⁺ reabsorption, and angiotensin II stimulates the adrenal cortex to release aldosterone (and constricts arterioles). ADH increases water reabsorption, so urine volume falls.
25
Answer 3 Schizophrenia is linked to excess dopamine activity, and antipsychotics block dopamine receptors. Dopamine is a biogenic amine, but the specific transmitter is the answer.
26
Answer 1 The auditory (Eustachian) tube joins the middle ear to the nasopharynx and equalises pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane. It does not open into the inner ear or the larynx.
27
Answer 2 These are signs of hypothyroidism, and a lack of TSH lowers T₃/T₄ output. Excess thyroxine would cause the opposite (weight loss, heat intolerance, fast heart rate).
28
Answer 4 ICSI injects one sperm directly into a retrieved oocyte, then transfers the embryo. The first option is conventional IVF, the second IUI and the third GIFT.
29
Answer 1 High testosterone exerts negative feedback on the hypothalamus (less GnRH) and the anterior pituitary (less LH and FSH). B and C describe the opposite.
30
Answer 2 The dens of the axis forms a pivot on which the atlas and skull rotate. Transverse foramina and bifid spines are cervical features, the sacrum is five fused vertebrae, and the atlas has no body.
31
Answer 3 Hinge joints move in one plane, giving flexion and extension. Abduction, adduction, rotation and circumduction need ball-and-socket or pivot joints.
32
Answer 3 All offspring are tall, so the parent is TT. A 1:1 ratio of red to yellow shows it is Rr. A test cross always uses the double recessive ttrr.
33
Answer 4 ABO blood groups depend on three alleles (Iᴬ, Iᴮ, i) at one locus. Height and skin colour are polygenic, and haemophilia and sickle-cell anaemia involve two alleles.
34
Answer 1 The small subunit and initiator tRNA bind the mRNA, the anticodon pairs with AUG, and the large subunit then attaches. The P site exists only after the large subunit joins, so S must come after R.
35
Answer 3 The Cartagena Protocol, under the Convention on Biological Diversity, deals with LMOs/GMOs. Ramsar covers wetlands, CITES wildlife trade, Montreal ozone-depleting substances and Kyoto greenhouse gases.
36
Answer 3 Savanna receives about 30–50 cm per year, a narrow range. Tundra (≈20–60 cm), coniferous forest (≈30–70 cm), temperate grassland (≈30–100 cm) and broadleaf forest (≈70–200 cm) have wider ranges. Note that the question asks for the range, not the lowest total.
37
Answer 2 Mycoplasmas lack a wall (so are pleomorphic) and divide by fission/budding, while protists are solitary or colonial and reproduce by fission or gametes. Not all protists photosynthesise, and mycoplasmas have no peptidoglycan wall.
38
Answer 2 Streptococcus causes pharyngitis and pneumonia (respiratory), meningitis (nervous), and rheumatic heart disease/endocarditis (cardiovascular). This follows the syllabus examples.
39
Answer 3 Aspergillus niger is the commercial source of citric acid. Yeast makes ethanol, Acetobacter makes vinegar, methane comes from methanogenic archaea, and penicillin from Penicillium.
40
Answer 2 Colocasia (like Alocasia) perennates by corms, the spider plant sends out runners with plantlets, and mint spreads by stolons.
41
Answer 1 The Golgi forms lysosomes, makes and secretes cell-wall polysaccharides, and sorts membrane components. Protein synthesis occurs on ribosomes and H₂O₂ breakdown occurs in peroxisomes.
42
Answer 1 Selaginella has a dominant heterosporous sporophyte, Pogonatum a dominant homosporous gametophyte, and Nephrolepis a dominant homosporous sporophyte. Selaginella is not homosporous and Pogonatum is not heterosporous.
43
Answer 2 Stem length, branching, phyllotaxy and leaf orientation all shape light capture. Root hairs absorb water and minerals.
44
Answer 2 The hypothalamus controls temperature, makes releasing hormones, and regulates thirst (water balance) and hunger. Balance and posture belong to the cerebellum, and reflex heart-rate control to the medulla oblongata.
45
Answer 1 Amnion, yolk sac and chorion statements are correct. hCG is secreted by the chorion (trophoblast), and the umbilical vessels come from the allantois.
46
Answer 2 Down, Turner and Klinefelter syndromes are all aneuploidies (gain or loss of one chromosome). None of them is polyploidy, and Down syndrome is a trisomy, not a monosomy.
47
Answer 1 Thorn forests occur in the arid zone (e.g. Mannar, Hambantota), and montane forests in the wet-zone highlands. Dry patana is in the intermediate zone, lowland wet evergreen forest in the wet zone, and wet patana in the montane wet zone.
48
Answer 1 Water hyacinth and Gliricidia are introduced, and the purple-faced langur and junglefowl are endemic. Peafowl and mugger are native but not endemic, and D reverses the order.
49
Answer 1 Primary treatment settles solids, secondary treatment (activated sludge, trickling filters) is aerobic, and sludge is digested anaerobically to CH₄ + CO₂. Trickling filters are secondary, not tertiary.
50
Answer 1 Culture species should be marketable, accept prepared feeds and tolerate crowding. Uncontrolled breeding and early maturity cause overcrowding and stunted growth, as seen with tilapia.

Paper II — marking points

1A
  1. Chitin monomer: N-acetylglucosamine (an amino sugar). Functions: arthropod exoskeleton and fungal cell walls (structural support/protection)
  2. NAD⁺ and NADP⁺ are both coenzymes/electron (hydrogen) carriers in redox reactions, and both are dinucleotides that are reduced to NADH/NADPH
  3. Found in both mitochondrial matrix and chloroplast stroma: circular DNA, 70S ribosomes (also enzymes)
  4. Microfilament protein subunit: actin (G-actin)
  5. Prokaryote DNA is circular, naked (no histones) and lies in the nucleoid; eukaryote DNA is linear, bound to histones and enclosed in a nucleus
  6. Prokaryotes usually have a single chromosome plus plasmids; eukaryotes have several chromosomes
  7. Prokaryote genes have few or no introns; eukaryote genes have introns
  8. Mechanical attachment: desmosome, e.g. skin epidermis/cardiac muscle
  9. Cytoplasmic channels: gap junction, e.g. cardiac muscle/smooth muscle of the gut
1B
  1. Winding of DNA around histones: S phase. Centrosome duplication: S phase (G₂ is also accepted in some keys). DNA replication: S phase
  2. In both anaphases, spindle fibres shorten and pull chromosomes/chromatids to opposite poles
  3. Difference: in anaphase I homologous chromosomes separate (each still has two chromatids); in anaphase II sister chromatids separate
  4. Anabolism: metabolic pathways that build complex molecules from simpler ones, using energy (e.g. protein synthesis, photosynthesis)
  5. Procedure: place iodine drops in rows on a white tile
  6. Pipette a measured volume of starch solution into a test tube
  7. Add a measured volume of amylase, mix and start the stopwatch at once
  8. At regular intervals (e.g. every 30 s) transfer a drop of the mixture to a fresh iodine drop
  9. Continue until the iodine no longer turns blue-black (stays yellow-brown); the elapsed time is the reaction time
1C
  1. Reaction-centre complex: a special pair of chlorophyll a molecules plus the primary electron acceptor
  2. Light-harvesting complexes: pigment molecules (chlorophyll a, b, carotenoids) bound to proteins
  3. Citric acid cycle per glucose: substrate-level phosphorylation 2 ATP (GTP); oxidative phosphorylation from its NADH and FADH₂: 6×2.5 + 2×1.5 = 18 ATP
  4. RQ in increasing order: fats (~0.7) < proteins (~0.8–0.9) < carbohydrates (1.0)
  5. CO₂ is released in the mitochondrial matrix (link reaction and Krebs cycle); citric acid is produced in the mitochondrial matrix
  6. Protocell stages: abiotic synthesis of small organic molecules (amino acids, nitrogenous bases)
  7. These join into macromolecules (proteins, nucleic acids)
  8. The molecules are packaged into protocells (membrane-bound droplets)
  9. Self-replicating molecules (RNA) arise, making inheritance possible
2A
  1. Species definitions: biological, morphological, ecological and phylogenetic species concepts
  2. Archaea differ from bacteria in protein synthesis: initiator amino acid is methionine (not formyl-methionine); not inhibited by streptomycin/chloramphenicol; several kinds of RNA polymerase
  3. Seen in both Paramecium and Euglena: contractile vacuole, food (or other) vacuoles/pellicle
  4. Naked seeds with xylem vessels: Gnetophyta (gnetophytes)
  5. Seedless, homosporous: Pterophyta, e.g. ferns (Nephrolepis)
  6. Seedless, heterosporous: Lycophyta, e.g. Selaginella
  7. Septate dikaryotic hyphae: Ascomycota or Basidiomycota
  8. Fungal phylum with commensals: Ascomycota (e.g. yeasts on the body)
  9. Features first shown by annelids: true coelom with metameric segmentation; closed circulatory system
  10. Mollusc mantle: secretes the shell (and encloses the mantle cavity)
  11. Keratinised scales/skin in reptiles prevent desiccation, an adaptation to terrestrial life
  12. Class with several respiratory structures: Amphibia (gills, lungs, skin, buccal cavity)
2B
  1. Meristem for rapid regrowth of damaged leaves (e.g. grasses): intercalary meristem
  2. Long-distance transport in plants: bulk flow (driven by pressure differences in xylem and phloem)
  3. ABA prevents wilting by closing stomata: it makes guard cells lose K⁺ and water, which reduces transpiration
  4. Molybdenum is a cofactor of nitrate reductase (and of nitrogenase in N₂ fixation)
  5. Heteromorphic alternation: the sporophyte and gametophyte generations differ in form/structure and size
  6. Cross-pollination adaptations: dichogamy (protandry/protogyny), self-incompatibility, heterostyly or dioecy
  7. Major photoreceptor for seed germination: phytochrome (red/far-red light)
  8. Tendons attach skeletal muscle to bone and transmit the force of contraction
  9. Reticular fibres form a supporting network (framework) in organs and join connective tissue to adjacent tissues
2C
  1. (a) Simple columnar epithelium with microvilli. (b) Blood capillary network. (c) Lacteal (lymph capillary)
  2. Lacteals converge into lymph vessels that absorb fats as chylomicrons and transport them to the blood
  3. Cardiac cycle: atrial systole → ventricular systole → complete cardiac diastole
  4. Thrombin is an enzyme that converts soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin threads
  5. Rh⁺ persons have the Rh (D) antigen on their red blood cell surface
  6. The mucus escalator works in the respiratory tract (trachea, bronchi, bronchioles)
  7. Benefit: mucus traps dust and microbes, and cilia beat them up to the pharynx to be swallowed, so the lungs are cleaned
  8. Autoimmunity: the immune system loses self-tolerance and attacks the body's own cells/molecules
  9. Multiple sclerosis: T cells attack the myelin sheath of CNS neurons
3A
  1. Most toxic N-excretory product: ammonia. Most energy to produce: uric acid
  2. Reabsorbed in the descending limb of the loop of Henle: water
  3. Annelids: a cerebral ganglion (brain) and a ventral nerve cord with segmental ganglia
  4. Echinoderms: a nerve net with a central nerve ring and radial nerves (no brain)
  5. Pons location: brainstem, between the midbrain and medulla oblongata (in front of the cerebellum)
  6. Pons functions: helps the medulla regulate breathing and relays information between the cerebrum and cerebellum
  7. Skin thermoreceptors: free nerve endings (heat and cold receptors)
  8. Skin mechanoreceptors: Meissner's corpuscles, Pacinian corpuscles, Merkel discs, Ruffini endings, hair-follicle receptors
  9. ADH is produced by neurosecretory cells of the hypothalamus (released from the posterior pituitary)
  10. Aldosterone is produced by the adrenal cortex (zona glomerulosa)
3B
  1. Positive feedback: a change (output) causes responses that amplify the original change further
  2. Hormone example: oxytocin (childbirth/milk ejection), or oestrogen causing the LH surge
  3. Sperm pathway: seminiferous tubules → epididymis → vas deferens → ejaculatory duct → urethra → exterior
  4. Bulbourethral secretion neutralises acidic urine remaining in the urethra
  5. It also lubricates the urethra (pre-ejaculate) and may carry some sperm
  6. FSH target: Sertoli cells, which nourish developing sperm/support spermatogenesis and secrete inhibin
  7. LH target: Leydig (interstitial) cells, which secrete testosterone
  8. Blastocyst cell rearrangement gives the inner cell mass, which develops into the embryo (and some extraembryonic membranes)
  9. It also gives the trophoblast, which develops into the chorion/fetal part of the placenta
3C
  1. Human-specific skeletal functions: blood cell production (haemopoiesis in red marrow)
  2. Storage of minerals (Ca²⁺, phosphate) and fat (yellow marrow)
  3. Protection of internal organs (e.g. skull–brain, rib cage–heart/lungs); also helps hearing (ossicles)
  4. Wrist bones (carpals): 8. Ankle bones (tarsals): 7
  5. Anteriorly convex curvatures: cervical and lumbar curvatures
  6. Codominance: both alleles of a heterozygote are fully and separately expressed in the phenotype
  7. Human example: AB blood group (also MN blood group)
  8. Pleiotropic disease example: sickle-cell anaemia (also cystic fibrosis)
4A
  1. Prokaryotes have a single origin of replication; eukaryotes have many origins
  2. Prokaryotic replication is faster; eukaryotic replication is slower
  3. Prokaryotes replicate in the cytoplasm (circular DNA, no telomeres); eukaryotes in the nucleus (linear DNA with telomeres and histones)
  4. Helicase unwinds the double helix by breaking hydrogen bonds between base pairs at the replication fork
  5. Topoisomerase relieves strain/supercoiling ahead of the fork by breaking, swivelling and rejoining DNA strands
  6. DNA polymerase copies/amplifies DNA in vitro (PCR) and is used in sequencing and cDNA production
  7. Most widely used: Taq polymerase from Thermus aquaticus (heat-stable)
  8. Restriction map distances are measured in base pairs (bp/kb)
  9. Restriction enzymes cut the DNA and the vector at specific sites, leaving sticky ends
  10. DNA ligase joins the fragment to the vector (seals sugar-phosphate bonds)
  11. Gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments by size
  12. Probes are labelled sequences that identify/detect the specific gene or clone carrying it
4B
  1. Primary production: the amount of light energy converted to chemical energy (organic compounds) by autotrophs in an ecosystem in a given time
  2. Most diverse terrestrial biome: tropical (rain) forest
  3. Mangroves: coastal ecosystem in intertidal areas of estuaries/lagoons with brackish water
  4. Dominated by salt-tolerant woody plants (halophytes) with pneumatophores, stilt roots and vivipary
  5. Mangroves act as breeding/nursery grounds for fish and crustaceans and protect the coastline
  6. Sub-parts (iii) onwards were on the missing page 9
4C
  1. Adventitious roots arise from organs other than the radicle/primary root, e.g. from stems, nodes or leaves
  2. Examples: prop roots of maize, stilt roots, roots from stem cuttings
  3. Nanoparticles used in smart drugs: liposomes, dendrimers, gold or silica nanoparticles, carbon nanotubes
  4. Sub-parts (i)–(iv) of 4C were on the missing page 9
5a
  1. Both start with glycolysis in the cytosol: glucose → 2 pyruvate, with a net 2 ATP and 2 NADH
  2. No O₂ is needed; fermentation regenerates NAD⁺ so glycolysis can continue
  3. Alcoholic fermentation (yeast, some bacteria, plant cells under anoxia): pyruvate is decarboxylated to acetaldehyde, releasing CO₂ (pyruvate decarboxylase)
  4. Acetaldehyde is reduced by NADH to ethanol (alcohol dehydrogenase), regenerating NAD⁺
  5. Net equation: C₆H₁₂O₆ → 2C₂H₅OH + 2CO₂ + 2ATP
  6. Lactic acid fermentation (muscle cells under O₂ deficit, Lactobacillus): pyruvate is reduced directly by NADH to lactate (lactate dehydrogenase)
  7. No CO₂ is released: C₆H₁₂O₆ → 2 lactate + 2ATP
  8. Only 2 ATP per glucose, all from substrate-level phosphorylation; most energy stays in ethanol/lactate
  9. Uses: ethanol in bread/alcohol making; lactate in yoghurt/cheese; in muscle lactate goes to the liver
5b
  1. Prokaryotic: no nucleus or membrane-bound organelles; DNA in a nucleoid
  2. Single circular chromosome without histones; plasmids often present
  3. 70S ribosomes
  4. Peptidoglycan cell wall: Gram-positive (thick) or Gram-negative (thin layer plus outer membrane)
  5. Some have a capsule/slime layer, fimbriae/pili and flagella (simple, rotating)
  6. Shapes: cocci, bacilli, spirilla, vibrios; arrangements such as chains and clusters
  7. Unicellular, microscopic (about 0.5–5 µm); some form endospores that resist harsh conditions
  8. Reproduce asexually by binary fission; gene transfer by transformation, transduction and conjugation
  9. Diverse nutrition: photoautotrophs, chemoautotrophs, chemoheterotrophs (saprotrophs, parasites, symbionts)
  10. Respiration varies: obligate aerobes, obligate anaerobes, facultative anaerobes
  11. Ecological roles: decomposition, nitrogen fixation and nutrient cycling; some are pathogens
6a
  1. Transpiration is the loss of water vapour from aerial parts, mainly through stomata (~90%)
  2. Water reaches leaf mesophyll from xylem in the veins
  3. Water evaporates from the moist walls of mesophyll cells into intercellular air spaces
  4. The air spaces become saturated with water vapour
  5. When stomata are open, vapour diffuses out down a water-potential/vapour-pressure gradient to the drier outside air
  6. Water lost from mesophyll walls is replaced from adjacent cells and xylem, creating tension (negative pressure)
  7. This tension pulls the xylem water column up (cohesion–tension: transpiration pull)
  8. The rate depends on stomatal opening (light, CO₂, K⁺ movement in guard cells, ABA)
  9. External factors: temperature, humidity, wind, light intensity and soil water availability
  10. Leaf structural factors: number and position of stomata, cuticle, sunken stomata and hairs
  11. Significance: cools leaves, drives the uptake and transport of water and minerals
6b
  1. Root cells actively pump mineral ions into the xylem of the stele (using ATP), mainly at night when transpiration is low
  2. The endodermis/Casparian strip stops ions leaking back out of the stele
  3. Ion accumulation lowers the water potential of xylem sap
  4. Water moves into xylem from the surrounding root tissues by osmosis
  5. This builds a positive pressure in the root xylem (root pressure) that pushes sap upward
  6. Root pressure is small (a few hundred kPa) and cannot alone lift water to the top of tall trees
  7. When the soil is moist, humidity high and transpiration low (night/early morning), root pressure pushes more water into leaves than is lost
  8. Excess water is forced out as liquid droplets through hydathodes at leaf tips/margins: guttation
  9. Guttation fluid contains water plus dissolved minerals/organic substances
  10. Examples: grasses and Colocasia; guttation is different from dew
7a
  1. Lymph capillaries are blind-ended vessels in tissues that take up excess interstitial fluid (lymph)
  2. Capillaries join into larger lymph vessels with valves (like veins)
  3. Lymph moves by skeletal muscle contraction, breathing movements and smooth muscle in vessel walls; valves prevent backflow
  4. Lymph passes through lymph nodes, which contain lymphocytes and macrophages
  5. Vessels join the thoracic duct (left side) and the right lymphatic duct
  6. These empty into the subclavian veins, returning fluid to the blood
  7. Lymphoid organs: lymph nodes, spleen, thymus, tonsils, adenoids, appendix, Peyer's patches
  8. Functions: return leaked fluid and proteins to blood, so maintaining blood volume and preventing oedema
  9. Absorb fats via lacteals in villi and carry them as chylomicrons
  10. Defence: filter pathogens, and produce/mature lymphocytes for immune responses
7b
  1. Hypertension: persistently raised arterial blood pressure (≥140/90 mmHg)
  2. Non-modifiable risks: age, family history/genetics, male sex
  3. Modifiable risks: obesity and physical inactivity
  4. High salt intake and high saturated fat/cholesterol diet
  5. Smoking and excess alcohol
  6. Stress, diabetes and kidney disease
  7. Atherosclerosis narrows arteries and raises resistance
  8. Consequences: heart works harder, causing left ventricular hypertrophy and heart failure
  9. Damage to arterial walls speeds atherosclerosis, leading to coronary heart disease/heart attack
  10. Stroke (rupture or blockage of cerebral vessels), aneurysm
  11. Kidney damage/failure and retinal damage (vision loss)
8a
  1. The liver is made of many roughly hexagonal lobules (structural/functional units)
  2. A central vein runs through the centre of each lobule
  3. Portal triads at the corners contain a branch of the hepatic artery, a branch of the hepatic portal vein and a bile ductule
  4. Hepatocytes are arranged in plates/cords one to two cells thick, radiating from the central vein
  5. Sinusoids between the plates carry mixed blood from the artery and portal vein towards the central vein
  6. Sinusoids have fenestrated (leaky) endothelium for exchange
  7. Kupffer cells (macrophages) line the sinusoids and phagocytose old RBCs and bacteria
  8. Bile canaliculi between hepatocytes carry bile outward to the bile ductules (opposite to blood flow)
  9. Central veins join to form hepatic veins, which drain to the inferior vena cava
  10. Connective tissue (Glisson's capsule) surrounds the liver and separates lobules
8b
  1. Blood glucose: stores excess glucose as glycogen (glycogenesis, insulin) and releases glucose by glycogenolysis/gluconeogenesis (glucagon)
  2. Lipids: makes cholesterol and lipoproteins and converts excess carbohydrate to fat
  3. Proteins: deamination of excess amino acids; urea synthesis via the ornithine cycle
  4. Transamination makes non-essential amino acids
  5. Makes plasma proteins (albumin for osmotic pressure; fibrinogen and prothrombin for clotting)
  6. Detoxification of drugs, alcohol and hormones
  7. Breaks down old RBCs (Kupffer cells); bilirubin is excreted in bile
  8. Stores iron, vitamins A, D and B₁₂ and glycogen
  9. Produces bile salts for fat emulsification
  10. Heat production from high metabolic activity helps thermoregulation
9a
  1. Environmental (ecosystem) services: photosynthesis/oxygen production and carbon sequestration that regulate climate
  2. Nutrient cycling and soil formation; decomposition of wastes
  3. Water purification and regulation of the water cycle (watersheds, wetlands)
  4. Pollination of crops and wild plants; natural pest control
  5. Soil protection against erosion; flood and coastal protection (mangroves, coral reefs)
  6. Ecosystem stability and resilience
  7. Educational value: natural ecosystems are open laboratories for teaching and research
  8. They provide knowledge of evolution, ecology, taxonomy and genetics
  9. Biodiversity supports discovery of new medicines/genes and biotechnology
  10. Field studies, nature trails, botanical gardens and zoos build environmental awareness and conservation attitudes
9b
  1. Toxigenicity: a pathogen's ability to produce toxins that harm host tissues; a major factor in virulence
  2. Two types: exotoxins and endotoxins
  3. Exotoxins are proteins secreted by mainly Gram-positive (some Gram-negative) bacteria
  4. Exotoxins are highly potent, specific and heat-labile; they can be converted into toxoids for vaccines
  5. Examples: tetanus toxin (Clostridium tetani), botulinum toxin, diphtheria toxin, cholera toxin (Vibrio cholerae)
  6. Types: neurotoxins, enterotoxins, cytotoxins
  7. Endotoxins are the lipid A part of lipopolysaccharide in the Gram-negative outer membrane
  8. Endotoxins are released when cells die/lyse; they are heat-stable and less potent
  9. They cause fever, inflammation, aches, and in severe cases septic shock (e.g. Salmonella typhi)
  10. Fungi also produce toxins (mycotoxins such as aflatoxin from Aspergillus flavus), which are carcinogenic
  11. Toxins can act away from the site of infection, and some cause food poisoning without infection
10a
  1. Epistasis: a gene at one locus alters/masks the phenotypic expression of a gene at another locus
  2. Dominant epistasis: a dominant allele of the epistatic gene masks the expression of the other gene
  3. Example: fruit colour in summer squash. W (dominant) gives white and masks the Y/y colour gene
  4. ww Y_ gives yellow; ww yy gives green
  5. Crossing WwYy × WwYy gives a modified F₂ ratio of 12 white : 3 yellow : 1 green instead of 9:3:3:1
  6. A test cross gives 2 white : 1 yellow : 1 green
  7. Shows that genes interact and that phenotypic ratios deviate from Mendelian ratios
10b
  1. Gene flow: transgenes spread to wild relatives via pollen, possibly creating 'superweeds'
  2. Herbicide-resistant crops encourage heavy herbicide use, which selects for resistant weeds
  3. Bt crops may harm non-target organisms (e.g. beneficial insects, pollinators, soil organisms)
  4. Pests evolve resistance to Bt toxin
  5. Loss of biodiversity/genetic diversity as uniform GM varieties replace traditional varieties
  6. GMOs may become invasive and disrupt ecosystems and food webs
  7. Horizontal gene transfer (e.g. antibiotic-resistance markers) to microbes
  8. Regulated by biosafety measures, e.g. the Cartagena Protocol
10c
  1. Postharvest loss: a measurable fall in the quantity or quality of produce between harvest and consumption
  2. Physiological causes: continued respiration and transpiration (water loss, wilting, weight loss), ripening/senescence driven by ethylene, sprouting
  3. Biological causes: microbial spoilage by fungi and bacteria (rots, mycotoxins), insect pests, rodents and birds
  4. Physical/mechanical causes: bruising and injury that open entry points for microbes
  5. Environmental factors: high temperature and humidity, poor ventilation, unsuitable storage structures
  6. Effects: loss of nutritional value, quality, market value and food security
  7. Reduction: cold storage, controlled/modified atmosphere storage and proper packaging
  8. Also: drying of grains to safe moisture, hygienic stores, pest control and careful handling

Scan notes: Paper II page 9 is missing from the scan. It contained Q4(B)(iii) onwards and Q4(C)(i)–(iv), so 4B and 4C cover only the visible sub-parts (4B i–ii; 4C v). All Paper I pages (Q1–50) and all Part B questions are present. The OCR mangled Q12 options; they were read from the page image. Q41 (Golgi/cellulose), Q43, Q47 and Q48 depend on NIE syllabus interpretations and are marked medium.